Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

23 Abril 2011
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<meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"><meta name="ProgId" content="Word.Document"><meta name="Generator" content="Microsoft Word 11"><meta name="Originator" content="Microsoft Word 11"><link rel="File-List" href="file:///C:%5CDOCUME%7E1%5CADMINI%7E1%5CCONFIG%7E1%5CTemp%5Cmsohtml1%5C01%5Cclip_filelist.xml"><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:WordDocument> <w:View>Normal</w:View> <w:Zoom>0</w:Zoom> <w:HyphenationZone>21</w:HyphenationZone> <w:punctuationKerning/> <w:ValidateAgainstSchemas/> <w:SaveIfXMLInvalid>false</w:SaveIfXMLInvalid> <w:IgnoreMixedContent>false</w:IgnoreMixedContent> <w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText>false</w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText> <w:Compatibility> <w:BreakWrappedTables/> <w:SnapToGridInCell/> <w:WrapTextWithPunct/> <w:UseAsianBreakRules/> <w:DontGrowAutofit/> </w:Compatibility> <w:BrowserLevel>MicrosoftInternetExplorer4</w:BrowserLevel> </w:WordDocument> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:LatentStyles DefLockedState="false" LatentStyleCount="156"> </w:LatentStyles> </xml><![endif]--><style> <!-- /* Font Definitions */ @font-face {font-family:Calibri; panose-1:2 15 5 2 2 2 4 3 2 4; mso-font-charset:0; mso-generic-font-family:swiss; mso-font-pitch:variable; mso-font-signature:-1610611985 1073750139 0 0 159 0;} @font-face {font-family:"Agency FB"; panose-1:2 11 5 3 2 2 2 2 2 4; mso-font-charset:0; mso-generic-font-family:swiss; mso-font-pitch:variable; mso-font-signature:3 0 0 0 1 0;} /* Style Definitions */ p.MsoNormal, li.MsoNormal, div.MsoNormal {mso-style-parent:""; margin-top:0cm; margin-right:0cm; margin-bottom:10.0pt; margin-left:0cm; line-height:115%; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:11.0pt; font-family:Calibri; mso-fareast-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-bidi-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-fareast-language:EN-US;} @page Section1 {size:612.0pt 792.0pt; margin:70.85pt 3.0cm 70.85pt 3.0cm; mso-header-margin:36.0pt; mso-footer-margin:36.0pt; mso-paper-source:0;} div.Section1 {page:Section1;} --> </style><!--[if gte mso 10]> <style> /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Tabla normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0cm 5.4pt 0cm 5.4pt; mso-para-margin:0cm; mso-para-margin-bottom:.0001pt; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:10.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]Countering Biblical Contradictions, 143<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]by Bumbulis, Smith, and White<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God is satisfied with his works<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"God saw all that he made, and it was very good." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Gen 1:31][/FONT][FONT=&quot]. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God is dissatisfied with his works <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The Lord was grieved that he had made man on earth, and his heart was filled with pain." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Gen 6:6][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is an obvious case of both/and, for something occurred after Gen 1:31 and before Gen 6:6, namely, the Fall. Evil entered creation as a result of man's volition. One can argue the theological implications elsewhere, as the only relevant point is that this is not an obvious contradiction. When God created, all was good. After man rebelled, God grieved.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God dwells in chosen temples<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"the LORD appeared to him at night and said: "I have heard your prayer and have chosen this place for myself as a temple of sacrifices.....I have chosen and consecrated this temple so that my Name may be there forever. My eyes and my heart will always be there." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][2 Chr 7:12,16][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God dwells not in temples<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"However, the Most High does not live in houses made by men." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Acts 7:48][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I fail to see the contradiction here. The claim that "my eyes and heart will always be there" appears to mean nothing more to me than the fact that the LORD would pay special attention to the temple and have a special affinity for it; the LORD would reveal Himself to His people through the temple. Stephen's speech in Acts merely highlights the transcendence of God. Put simply, if you put these together you arrive at the following truth - God is transcendent, yet He reveals Himself where He will.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God dwells in light<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"who alone is immortal and who lives in unapproachable light whom no one has seen or can see." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][1 Tim 6:16][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God dwells in darkness<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Then spake Solomon. The Lord said that he would dwell in the thick darkness" [/FONT][FONT=&quot][1 Kings 8:12][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"He made darkness his secret place; his pavilion round about him were dark waters and thick clouds of the skies." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Ps 18:11][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Clouds and darkness are round about him." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Ps 97:2][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The first thing I would point out is these are likely to be metaphors and it would seem unwise to take such language too literally when describing God. But what could such seemingly contradictory metaphors convey? Note that in both cases there is the theme of the unsearchableness of God. That is, the light is unapproachable and the darkness is thick and covers a secret place. Thus, these verses could actually be teaching the same thing - simply that God is unapproachable.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One could also note that Paul's account is quite optimistic following from a consideration of Christ. Prior to the Incarnation, there was indeed a certain darkness associated with the hidden God. But the eyes of the blind have been opened!<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Or it could be said that the verses in 1 Kings and Psalms need be nothing more than a description of God perceived through the memory of His interation with His people described in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus 19:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot].<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God is seen and heard<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 33:23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 33:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 3:9,10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 32:30[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is 6:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 24:9-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God is invisible and cannot be heard<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 1:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 5:37[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 33:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Tim 6:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]These "contradictions" are easily resolved if one accepts the Trinitarian view of God. Allow me to repost a reply which addressed a similar point, and in doing so, resolves this contradiction.... <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In a previous post, someone attempts to discredit the deity of Christ by appealing to [/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 1:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (KJV) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]He notes: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"If no man has seen God, then logically Jesus was not God, since there is no secular record of an outbreak of sightlessness in Judea in Jesus' time". <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How shall the Christian respond? Well, let's consider the statement that "No man hath seen God". Consider the following verses from the Old Testament (OT): <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Sarai says
"You are the God who sees me",
for she said,
"I have now seen the One who sees me" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 16:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"So Jacob called the place Peniel, saying, "It is because I saw God face to face, and yet my life was spared". ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 32:30[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Moses and Aaron, Nadab and Abihu, and the seventy elders of Israel went up and saw the God of Israel" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 24:9-10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"they saw God" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 24:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"We have seen God!" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Judges 13:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Now while this person's logic seems to rule out that Jesus was God, it also means that the Bible contains a very significant contradiction. If no one has seen God, how is it that Sarai, Jacob, Moses et al, and Monoah and his wife are said to have seen God? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Actually, this is a problem only for those who deny the deity of Christ while claiming to follow the teachings of the Bible. Let's look again at John 1:18: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only (or Only Begotten), who is at the Father's side, has made him known". <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I think it is clear that John is speaking of the Father as the one who has not been seen. To paraphrase it, "No one has ever seen God, but the Son, who is at His side, has made Him known". This interpretation not only seems to follow naturally from this verse, but is also quite consistent with the Logos doctrine taught in John 1. Recall, it is the Logos who mediates between God and man, and who reveals God to man. Jesus would later say, "Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father." Prior to the Incarnation of the Son, no one had seen the Father, for it is through the Son that the Father is revealed. So for the Trinitarian, there is no Bible contradiction. No one ever saw God the Father, and what Sarai, Jacob, Moses, etc saw was God the Son. This can be seen from many perspectives, but let's simply consider one from [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Isaiah 6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Isaiah "saw the Lord" (vs 1). Seraphs were praising the "Lord Almighty" (vs 3). Isaiah is overwhelmed and responds, "Woe to me, I am ruined. For I am a man of unclean lips [this rules him out as the servant in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Isaiah 53[/FONT][FONT=&quot]], and I live among a people of unclean lips, and my eyes have seen the King, the Lord Almighty" (vs 5). Later, we read: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Then I heard the voice of the Lord saying, "Whom shall I send? And who will go for us?" (vs. 8). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Again, the plurality of God is implied. Isaiah asks God to send him, and then God gave him a message to preach. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Now it's time to jump to [/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 12:37-41[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. John claims that the peoples failure to believe in Jesus was a fulfillment of these teachings Isaiah received from the Lord in Isaiah 6. Then note vs. 41. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Isaiah said this because he saw Jesus' glory and spoke about him". <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Here is a clear example where John equates Jesus with the Lord Almighty seen by Isaiah! This all fits together beautifully. Isaiah sees the Lord Almighty, yet he sees Jesus' glory. Jesus speaks as a plural being (who will go for US). It is the Son who is seen, not the Father. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Thus, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 1:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot] does not mean that Jesus was not God, it only means He is not the Father. This verse presents no problems for the Trinitarian, and in fact, when studied, serves as a great launching point for finding Christ in the OT. Prior to the Logos dwelling amongst us and revealing the Father to us, no one had seen the Father. But because of the Incarnation, we can now cry, "Abba, Father" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Romans 8:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and "Our Father who art in heaven"! Those who see the Son can see the Father. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God is tired and rests<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In six days the Lord made heaven and earth, and on the seventh day he rested, and was refreshed. [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 31:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God is never tired and never rests<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The everlasting God, the LORD, the Creator of the ends of the earth, fainteth not, neither is weary. [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is 40:28[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]According to Haley, and many others, the term "rested and was refreshed" is simply a vivid Oriental way of saying that God ceased from the work of creation and took delight in surveying the work. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God is everywhere present, sees and knows all things<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 15:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 139:7-10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Job 34:21-22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God is not everywhere present, neither sees nor knows all things<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Then the man and his wife heard the sound of the LORD God as he was walking in the garden in the cool of day, and they hid from the LORD God among the trees of the garden." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Gen 3:8][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"But the LORD came down to see the city and the tower that men were building." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Gen 11:5][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The the LORD said, 'The outcry against Sodom and Gomorrah is so great and their sins so grievous that I will go down and see if what they have done is as bad as the outcry that has reached me. If not, I will know." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Gen 18:20-21][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I accept the teaching that God is everywhere present and sees and knows all things. So let's consider the instances in Genesis that are cited: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Gen 3:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot] - "Then the man and his wife heard the sound of the LORD God as he was walking in the garden in the cool of day, and they hid from the LORD God among the trees of the garden." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Let's also add the next verse to stregthen the critics case: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"But the LORD God called to the man, "Where are you?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How could one hide from God? Why does God need to ask this question? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]First, what Adam and Eve could have hid from is merely the visible and special manifestation of the Lord. As for God's seeming ignorance, anyone with children can recognize the utility of such questions. If a child is known to have broken a lamp, it is better to question the child than to simply accuse her. The former approach enables the child to take an active role in her wrong-doing, and allows for her to apologize. Note that God asked several questions: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Where are you?....Who told you that you were naked?....Have you eaten of the fruit of the tree?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Note the response. Instead of begging for mercy and confessing their sins, both the man and woman justified themselves and sought to put the blame on another. So typically human! By asking these questions, God enabled the man and woman to either freely repent or to firmly establish their sinfulness. Thus, while the critic thinks these are questions demonstrating ignorance, such an interpretation can be easily dismissed in light of the above considerations. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What of the others? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"But the LORD came down to see the city and the tower that men were building." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Gen 11:5][/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The the LORD said, 'The outcry against Sodom and Gomorrah is so great and their sins so grievous that I will go down and see if what they have done is as bad as the outcry that has reached me. If not, I will know." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Gen 18:20-21][/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]These look like common human notions of someone coming down to check out what is going on. And perhaps, that's how the writer of these accounts understood God. But perhaps there is also another layer to the account. Obviously, it teaches God's transcendence. But it also demonstrates God's interest. He is not an aloof sky-god. And he doesn't watch from afar. He gets right down into human history. But there is more. Maimonides once noted that just as the word 'ascend', when applied to the mind, implies noble and elevated objects, the word 'descend' implies turing one's mind to things of lowly and unworthy character. Thus, God is not "coming down" in a physical sense, but in a "mental" sense, where he turns his attention to the sinful activity of men and invokes judgment. Of course, it is hard to describe God in human language, but I think the above account is not unreasonable. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Since these supposed contradictions depend on a particular interpretation which is (or at the very least may be) in error, no contradiction has been established. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God knows the hearts of men<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 1:24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 139:2,3][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God tries men to find out what is in their heart<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Do not lay a hand on the boy," he said. "Do not do anything to him. Now I know that you fear God." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Gen 22:12][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Remember how the LORD your God lead you all the way in the desert these forty years, to humble you and test you in order to know what was in your hearts." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Deut 8:2][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The LORD your God is testing you to find out whether you love him with all your heart and with all your soul." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Deut 13:3][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We'll assume that God knows the hearts of men, so let us determine if the above three verses are necessarily contradictions. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Could it be that these three instances simply serve to reveal and verify to man that which is already known by God? Anyone who has ever had a college chemistry course can probably relate to the following. A chemistry professor comes into class, and says, "I will now add acetic acid to this compound to see what happens." The professor already knows what will happen! After the experiment, he might even add, "I now know that such and such results will occur after adding the acid." Here he is simply putting himself in the place of the class, and speaking for them. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What the three verses could be showing is that once again, God is not some aloof sky-god who merely dictates. Instead, he relates. By asking questions, by claiming to have found something, he relates and allows man to play an active, not passive, role in the relationship. For example, Abraham now knew that God knew his heart. And he also knew God's knowledge was true in light of the 'test' that he just went through. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In this supposed contradiction, along with the one immediately prior, the critic perceives ignorance on the part of God because of a belief that an omniscient God ought to dictate. Why can't an omniscient God refrain from dictating, and simply relate in a way which intimately involves humanity? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God is all powerful<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 32:27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 19:26[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God is not all powerful<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The LORD was with the men of Judah. They took possession of the hill country, but they were unable to drive the people from the plains, because they had iron chariots." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Judg 1:19][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is obviously not a contradiction. John Baskette notes that the critic is "reading the verse as saying that the LORD ... he ... could not drive out the inhabitants of the valley." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]He adds: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"This is an egregiously bad misreading of the text. The "he" is Judah! not the LORD. That should be obvious to even the most obtuse objector." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God is unchangable<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]James 1:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mal 3:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 24:14/[/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 23:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God is changable<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 6:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jonah 3:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Sam 2:30,31[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Kings 20:1,4,5,6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 33:1,3,14,17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Once again, these purported contradictions all presuppose some platonic-type sky god. Christianity has always believed that God is a God who relates and who is personal. And whenever there is a personal relationship, there is a dynamic. And dynamics can involve both immutability and change. Whenever you have a personal dynamic, when one person changes, the other reponds in a way which reflects this change. But all is not relative. If God's essence is immutable, then He is the standard by which such change is understood. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]For example, imagine you are in a field standing next to a tree. As you walk around the tree, you may end up north of the tree (and the tree is south of you). If you continue walking, such a relative relationship changes, so that you might find yourself south of the tree (and the tree is north of you). In the same way, our behavior towards God is like walking around the tree. Depending upon what we do, God is in a different relationship with us. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Let's consider a better analogy. A man and a wife are in a happy marriage. The man commits adultery, and the wife becomes unhappy. Has the wife changed in a significant manner? Not really. Her change is a function of what her husband did, and reflects the immutablity of her belief that infidelity is wrong. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the purported contradictions, we have a set of Scriptures which speak of God's essence - it is unchangeable. The other set deal with God's relationships with men (they don't abstractly speak of God's essence). Thus, as the above analogies show, there need be no contradiction. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God is just and impartial<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"To declare that the LORD is upright; He is my rock and there is no unrighteousness in him." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Ps 92:15][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Far be it from Thee to do such a thing, to slay the righteous with the wicked, so that the righteous and the wicked are treated alike. Far be it from Thee! Shall not the Judge of all the earth deal justly?" [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Gen 18:25][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The Rock! His work is perfect, For all His ways are just; a God of faithfulness and without injustice, righteous and upright is He." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Deut 32:4][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Yet you say, "The way of the LORD is not right." Here now, O house of Israel! Is My way not right? Is it not your ways that are not right?" [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Ezek 18:25][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"For there is no partiality with God." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Rom 2:11][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God is unjust and partial<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"So he said, Cursed be Canaan; A servant of servants He shall be to his brothers." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Gen 9:25][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"You shall not worship them or serve them; for I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers in the children, on the third and the fourth generations of those who hate Me." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Ex 20:5][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"for though the twins were not yet born, and had not done anything good or bad, in order that God's purpose according to His choice might stand, not because of works, but because of Him who calls, it was said to her, "The older will serve the younger." Just as it is written, "Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Rom 9:11-13][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"For whoever has, to him shall more be given, and he shall have in abundance; but whoever does not have, even what he has shall be taken from him." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Mt 13:12][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The first set is as follows: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"To declare that the LORD is upright; He is my rock and there is no unrighteousness in him." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Ps 92:15][/FONT][FONT=&quot] -- Basic Teaching(BT)= God is righteous <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Far be it from Thee to do such a thing, to slay the righteous with the wicked, so that the righteous and the wicked are treated alike. Far be it from Thee! Shall not the Judge of all the earth deal justly?" [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Gen 18:25][/FONT][FONT=&quot]-- BT= God does not condemn the righteous with the wicked. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The Rock! His work is perfect, For all His ways are just; a God of faithfulness and without injustice, righteous and upright is He." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Deut 32:4][/FONT][FONT=&quot]-- BT= God is righteous <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Yet you say, "The way of the LORD is not right." Here now, O house of Israel! Is My way not right? Is it not your ways that are not right?" [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Ezek 18:25][/FONT][FONT=&quot] -- BT= God's ways are right, the ways of Israel, when the prophet spoke, were not. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"For there is no partiality with God." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Rom 2:11][/FONT][FONT=&quot]--BT = God is impartial. However, it seems clear from the context that we are talking about God being impartial when it comes salvation being offered to both Jew and Gentile. Thus, the verses cited below could only be contradictory if they teach that Christ's atonement was only for the Jews or Gentiles. Since they don't, we need only consider if God is unrighteous in any of them-> <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The second set is as follows: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"So he said, Cursed be Canaan; A servant of servants He shall be to his brothers." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Gen 9:25][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Here, one must read a contradiction into the teachings as it is unclear whether Noah's curse would make God "unrighteous." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"You shall not worship them or serve them; for I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers in the children, on the third and the fourth generations of those who hate Me." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Ex 20:5][/FONT][FONT=&quot] The following verse notes that lovingkindness extends to thousands of generations of those who love God. This leads me to believe this verse is hyperbolic and thus difficult to make into a contradiction. For example, is God really unrighteous for bestowing blessings for a thousand generations, yet visting iniquity for ONLY three or four generations? The thrust seems to run in the other direction. Whether or not one views this as "unrighteous" is a function of their ethics, and thus the "contradiction" is read into the scripture. (BTW, I would note, however, that sinful behavior is often transmitted in families. For example, the son of an alcoholic is often an alcoholic himself.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]MaryAnna responds to another related "contradiction" which is also relevant here: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
 
Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

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[FONT=&quot]Are children punished for the sins of the parents?
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exo. 20:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot] tells us that God is to be feared, as He has the ability to visit the sins of the fathers on the children.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek. 18:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot] tells us this will not happen if the children repent and turn away from the ways of their fathers. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Not a contradiction. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]"for though the twins were not yet born, and had not done anything good or bad, in order that God's purpose according to His choice might stand, not because of works, but because of Him who calls, it was said to her, "The older will serve the younger." Just as it is written, "Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Rom 9:11-13][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Again, I view that "Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated" as a hyperbole which indicates that God simply favored Esau. This is not a clear case of unrighteousness. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"For whoever has, to him shall more be given, and he shall have in abundance; but whoever does not have, even what he has shall be taken from him." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Mt 13:12][/FONT][FONT=&quot] I view this as a proverbial way of saying that he who improves upon the gifts that he receives will receive more, but he who does not improve upon them (ie, neglects or takes them for granted) shall have them removed. I find this the very opposite of unrighteousness. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Thus, in not one case is there a unequivocal contradiction in this set. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God is the author of evil<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Is it not from the mouth of the Most High that both calamities and good things come?" [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Lam 3:38][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Now therefore say to the people of Judah that those living in Jerusalem, 'This is what the LORD says: Look! I am preparing a disaster for you and devising a plan for against you. So turn from your evil ways, each one of you, and reform your ways and actions." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Jer 18:11][/FONT][FONT=&quot]. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"I form light and create darkness, I bring prosperity and create disaster; I the LORD, do all these things." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Is 45:7][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"I also gave them over to statues that were not good and laws they could not live by." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Ezek 20:25][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"When a trumpet sounds in a city, do not people tremble? When disaster comes to a city, has not the LORD caused it? [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Amos 3:6][/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God is not the author of evil<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 14:33[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deut 32:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]James 1:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Now, in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deut 32:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot], we read that God is just. None of the above verses teach that God is unjust. Paul is speaking about God in the context of Church gatherings - that in such gatherings, God is a God of peace, not confusion. None of the above verses speak of such Church gatherings. James teaches that God does not tempt anyone with evil. None of the above verses teach that God tempts with evil. (I think [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ez 20:25[/FONT][FONT=&quot] is best understood in light of [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Romans 1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Thus, no obvious contradictions in this set. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God gives freely to those who ask<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]James 1:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 11:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God witholds his blessings and prevents men from receiving them<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 12:40[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Josh 11:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is 63:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Joshua 11:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot] says nothing about some asking, and God refusing to give. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is 63:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot] says nothing about someone asking, and God refusing to give. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 12:40[/FONT][FONT=&quot] says nothing about someone asking, and God refusing to give. In these three verses, it is mentioned that God "hardened the hearts" of someone. If someone never asked, and will never truly ask, it is not a contradiction to harden one's heart, yet give to those who DO ask. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God is to be found by those who seek him<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 7:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 8:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God is not to be found by those who seek him<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 1:28[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Then they will call on me, but I will not answer; they will seek me diligently, but they shall not find me." [/FONT][FONT=&quot][Pr 1:28][/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Here, the context has been ignored. First of all, it is wisdom which is speaking. Those who laugh, scoff, and refuse wisdom are not going to magically find it when calamity strikes. If one wishes to identify wisdom with God, the same principle holds - those who scoff, reject, and laugh at God are not going to find God when calamity strikes. After all, if they look, they look through the filters of selfishness (ie, "save my butt"). Instead of calling on God or looking for God, they should be repenting. But those who live a life of scorning God are not those who repent when disaster strikes. Thus, no contradiction. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God is warlike<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 15:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is 51:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God is peaceful<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 15:33[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 14:33[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The LORD is a warrior; the LORD is his name." [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 15:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Is 51:15 has nothing to do with war) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The God of peace be with you all. Amen" [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 15:33[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"For God is not a God of disorder, but of peace." [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 14:33[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It seems clear that God reveals Himself as a God of Battles in much of the OT. So what of these NT teachings? This "contradiction" is premised on equivocation, where the NT references to peace are interpreted to be the antomym of 'war', when this is obviously not the case. In Romans, Paul seems to be speaking of peace in a subjective, existential sense - a relationship with God brings a sense of peace. In Corinithians, Paul is speaking about the activity of Church congregations - they should be orderly and peaceful, not full of confusion and contention. No obvious contradiction here. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God is cruel, unmerciful, destructive, and ferocious<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 13:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deut 7:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Sam 15:2,3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Sam 6:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God is kind, merciful, and good<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]James 5:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lam 3:33[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Chron 16:34[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 18:32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 145:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Tim 2:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 John 4:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 25:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The first set of scriptures say nothing about God being cruel (this is a subjective call). They deal simply and bluntly with God's judgment. Thus, we have a both/and situation here. Yes, God is merciful and full of compassion. Yet, those who reject his mercy and compassion will find that His judgment in unrelenting and ferocious - that is His nature. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God's anger is fierce and endures long<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 32:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 25:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 17:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God's anger is slow and endures but for a minute<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 103:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 30:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The verse in Numbers and Jeremiah do not teach some general truth that 'God's anger is fierce and endures long." This is the critic's personal interpretation. In Jeremiah, in RESPONSE to Judah's great sin, God's anger is kindled (which itself, implies that it is slow to occur) and will "burn forever." I view this as a hyperbole (like "walking a thousand miles"). Put simply, God's anger against Judah would endure long. In Num 32, God's anger burned against Israel because of their sin and he made them wander in the desert 40 years. In Num 25, we read that God had Moses slay those who sought to contaminate the Jews with pagan ideals in order that his fierce anger may turn away from Israel. Since there is no contradiction between a fierce anger, and an anger slow to rise, this is an irrelevant verse. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So let's focus on duration. Above, we saw that God's anger lasted long (in human terms) in SPECIFIC cases as the RESULT of sinful behavior. What of the Psalms? First, let's keep in mind that we have now entered the territory of another genre - poetry. As such, it's going to be hard to make an unequivocal contradiction. Anyway, in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 103[/FONT][FONT=&quot], we simply note that God is slow to anger. Nothing in Jer or Num contradicts this. In [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 30:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot], it appears as if David is speaking from his personal experience with God in saying that God's anger lasts only a moment. And what is a 'moment' in poetical terms anyway? And could this teaching be yet one more proverbial way of saying that God is far more gracious than angry? That is, when all is said and done, what is revealed is a God who is slow to anger, quick to forgive, yet who can indeed demonstrate a fierce anger when provoked by great or ubiquitous sin. I see no obvious contradiction here. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God commands, approves of, and delights in burnt offerings, sacrifices ,and holy days<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 29:36[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 23:27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 29:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 1:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God disapproves of and has no pleasure in burnt offerings, sacrifices, and holy days.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 7:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 6:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 50:4,13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is 1:11-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The first set of Scriptures explains where God institutes sacrifices, etc., among Israel. Nothing in the second set contradicts this. In [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 7:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot], we read, "I did not just give them commands about burnt offerings and sacrifices," The author of this supposed contradiction conveniently left out the next verse: " but I gave them this command: "Obey me, and I will be your God and you will be my people." This is obviously not a disapproval of burnt offerings, but a disapproval on emphasizing such offerings to the exclusion of obedience in all areas. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 6:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot] speaks of the incense in Sheba, hardly contradicting the first set. The verse in Psalms is lifted out of context, as the LORD clearly says, "I do not rebuke you for your sacrifices." ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 50:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The verses in Isaiah are also lifted out of context. God rebukes the people for the sacrifices because they represent religious hypocrisy. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is 1:15-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot] clearly demonstrate this. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God accepts human sacrifices<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Sam 21:8,9,14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 22:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Judg 11:30-32,34,38,39[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God fobids human sacrifice<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deut 12:30,31[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The account in Gen 22:2 has been the subject of a great wealth of religious speculation, but the fact remains that Isaac was not sacrificed. The account in 2 Sam is misnamed as a "human sacrifice." It looks far more like an execution carried out by the Gibeonites because Saul had previously persecuted them. The verses in Judges do not obviously indicate that Jephthah offered his daughter as a "human sacrifice" and if He did, there is no indication that God "accepted it." No contradictions here. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God temps men<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 22:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Sam 24:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 20:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 6:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God temps no man<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]James 1:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Gen 22 refers to testing; 2 Sam says nothing about God tempting; In Jer 20, the prophet Jeremiah is simply complaining. Just because in a moment of desparation, he accuses God of deceiving him, does not mean that God DID deceive him. Mt 6:13 is part of the Lord's prayer, "lead us not into temptation." The prayer simply inquires of God that helps us keep our distance from temptation (hardly an example of God tempting men!!). The only possible hope of a contradiction in this set is to equate testing with temptation. But is testing identical to tempting? For example, let's say God wants to test someone's honesty and puts them in a room with a lost wallet. Is this tempting? I think not. To truly tempt, God would have to whisper, "Pick it up, keep it, no one will know, etc." No clear contradictions here. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God cannot lie<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 6:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God lies by proxy; he sends forth lying spirits to decieve<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Thes 2:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Kings 22:23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 14:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In this case, we need not even consider the scriptures. As "sending forth lying spirits" is not the same as actually lying yourself. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But, MaryAnna White notes: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1 Kings 22:21-22[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Lying spirit - Here, of course, God does not lie directly nor approve of nor sanction man's lying. One could argue that all that happens on earth is permitted by God - He could stop it if He saw fit. He even permitted Satan to cause Job to suffer - a much more interesting case. But that does not mean that He is the source of all such things. They just afford Him opportunities, as here, to accomplish what He is after. As they are useful to Him, He permits them to continue for a season. Like Judas. Eventually, those instruments no longer useful, all such spirits and men will be judged by being cast into the eternal lake of fire. That is neither approval nor sanction, but merely proof of God's sovereignty. – MAW<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Because of man's wickedness God destroys him<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 6:5,7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Because of man's wickedness God will not destroy him<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 8:21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is only a contradiction because the critic interprets it as so. Does Genesis 8:21 say that God will not destroy man because he is wicked? Not really. For God says that he will never again curse the ground, even though man's heart is evil (NIV). Furthermore, cursing the ground does not necessarily mean the same thing as destroying man, now does it? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God's attributes are revealed in his works.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 1:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God's attributes cannot be discovered<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Job 11:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is 40:28[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Romans 1:20 simply notes that Creation points to the Creator - a divine being of great power. Job 11:7 points out that we can never fully grasp the divine, it does NOT say that God cannot be inferred from nature. Is 40:28 notes that we can never hope to fully scrutinize the understanding of God. None of this is contradictory. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. There is but one God<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deut 6:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There is a plurality of gods<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 1:26[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 3:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 18:1-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 John 5:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This, of course, would lead us to a discussion of the Trinity, something that is beyond the scope of this article. Trinitarian theology is a classic example of "both/and" thinking. Besides, what of Deut 6:4? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Deut. 6:4 reads, "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Now it is important to note that the Hebrew word used for 'one' is NOT yahid, which denotes absolute singularity elsewhere in the OT. Instead, Moses chose the Hebrew word ehad, which signifies unity and oneness in plurality. This word is used in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 2:24[/FONT][FONT=&quot] where Adam and Eve are instructed to become "one flesh". It's also found in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Numbers 13:23[/FONT][FONT=&quot], where the Hebrew spies returned with a "single cluster" of grapes. So Deut 6:4 actually supports the concept of the Trinity, by noting that God is "oneness in plurality". The same word which describes the oneness of a marriage relationship is also used to describe God's essence! <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Robbery commanded<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 3:21,22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 12:35,36[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Robbery fobidden<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 19:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 20:15][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It's not at all obvious that you can refer to the instances in Ex 3, 12 as "robbery." When African-Americans demand recompensation for their history of slavery, are they demanding to rob white people? Thus, these are not obvious examples of God commanding robery. Besides, in Ex. 3 and 12, the Israelites asked the Egyptians for goods. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]25[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Lying approved and sanctioned<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Josh 2:4-6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]James 2:25[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 1:18-20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Kings 22:21,22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Lying forbidden<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 20:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 12:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rev 21:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Rev speaks all of liars be cast into the lake of fire. Since the first set of scriptures do not say otherwise, we can dismiss this one. Proverbs speaks of lying as an abomination. Since the first set of scriptures do not say lying is not an abomination, we can dismiss this one. The verse in Ex is one of the Ten Commandments. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It's not obvious to me that lying is approved of in the above situations. Concerning Rahab (Josh 2:4-6), James says, "the harlot was justified by works, when she received the messengers and sent them out by another way" (James 2:25). Her act of saving the lives of these men is what is approved of. The same goes for Ex 1, where the midwives refuse to kill the male infants which were birthed. As for 1 King 22:21-22, once again it is unclear if lying is truly approved of. According to one Bible scholar: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The whole declaration of Micaiah...is a figurative and poetical description of a vision that he had seen. Putting aside its rhetorical drapery, the gist of the whole passage is that God for judicial purposes suffered Ahab to be fatally deceived." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Another scholar says: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Because Ahab had abandoned the Lord his God and hardened his own heart, God allowed his ruin by the very instrument Ahab had sought to prostitute for his own purposes, namely, prophecy. God used the false declarations of the false prophets that Ahab was so enamored with as his instruments of judgment." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Since it is unclear that God truly approves of lying in this case, the contradiction is not established. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]26[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Hatred to the Edomite sanctioned<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Kings 14:7,3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hatred to the Edomite forbidden<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deut 23:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The account in Deut indeed forbids hatred against the Edomite. Does the account in 2 Kings sanction it? Not at all. It merely mentions that Amaziah slew many Edomites. And while hatred can be part of warfare, it need not be. And since the account in 2 Kings doesn't even mention hatred of the Edomites, this is obviously a concocted contradiction. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Killing commanded<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 32:27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Killing forbidden<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 20:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Ex 20:13 reads, "You shall not murder." Not all killing is murder. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]28[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The blood-shedder must die<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 9:5,6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The blood-shedder must not die<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 4:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Gen 4:15 makes no such generalization. It is specific to Cain. This is an example where the critic takes an incident and transforms it into an absolute principle. Besides, the covenant in Gen 9 are made with Noah, who existed much later than did Cain. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]29[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The making of images forbidden<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 20:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The making of images commanded<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 25:18,20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Ex 20:4 states than one should not make idols and bow down and worship them. The cherubims in Ex 25 are not idols, nor were they worhipped. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]30[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Slavery and opression ordained<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 9:25[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 25:45,46[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Joel 3:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Slavery and opression forbidden<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is 58:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 22:21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 21:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 23:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Slavery and oppression (two different things in the Bible) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Gen. 9:25[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Canaan is punished, sentenced to be a bondsman. (slave) This is a punishment by God upon Ham through the mouth of his father Noah for his rebellious insubordination and disregard for God's authority on earth at that time - his father. He could have been killed for this, but instead he was merely told that some of his descendents would be slaves. This is not a condoning of oppression, but a prophecy that such a judgment would indeed be carried out. (Ones who died for rebellion include Korah and Absalom; Miriam was judged with a case of leprosy for a few days.) This verse says nothing to those who would be the slave owners as to whether their action is condoned or not. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Lev. 25:45[/FONT][FONT=&quot] It's ok to buy a stranger for a bondsman/woman if someone sells him/her to you, as long as it's not a fellow Israelite. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Joel 3:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot] God punishes Tyre (?) by selling the people to the Israelites as slaves and then selling them to the Sabeans. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Still no mention of condoning oppression. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Isa. 58:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot] mentions a particular fast to Jehovah as a breaking of every yoke. Surely that cannot refer to (include) the yoke on the oxen, so there is some limitation to which yokes are broken. Some yokes are forbidden - i.e. yoking a fellow Israelite- and are undoubtedly included. The case of a foreign slave could be argued either way and hence this verse is not a clear contradiction of any of the above. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Exo. 22:21[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Not permitted to vex or oppress strangers. Does not say, not permitted to buy them. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Exo. 21:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Not permitted to steal and sell people. Does not say, not permitted to buy and sell them. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matt 23:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Neither be called instructors, because One is your Instructor, the Christ." (RV). Footnote: "Or, guides, teachers, directors." This section is talking about how we address fellow believers. It earlier says to call no one "father." Obviously it is talking here about differentiating among believers by bestowing titles of honor. These titles should be reserved for God alone, not bestowed on men. But our physical father is still our father, our school teachers are still our teachers, and our masters, if we are slaves, are still our masters and are to be called such if they so demand. The President is still the President, etc. We are admonished in the Bible to show honor to those in authority over us in our families, in the government, etc. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Gen 9:25[/FONT][FONT=&quot] has Noah stating that Canaan will be the servant of Japheth. This does not necessarily read as the ordination of "slavery and oppression" by God. The verses in Lev refer to a mild form of servitude. Joel simply threatens captivity as a punishment for sin. None of these verses unequivocally ordain "slavery and oppression." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]On the other hand, the verses on Is and Exodus do forbid truly oppressive behavior. The verse in Mt. is irrelevant to this subject. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]31[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Improvidence enjoyed<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 6:28,31,34[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 6:30,35[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 12:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Improvidence condemned<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Tim 5:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 13:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I believe that this is a case of both/and, as neither extreme is good. These teachings serve to balance each other. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]MaryAnna observes: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Improvidence enjoyed" [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt. 6:28, 31, 34[/FONT][FONT=&quot] - these verses tell us not to be anxious. They don't tell us not to work for our living. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke 6:31-35[/FONT][FONT=&quot] tell us to give to those that ask, and to lend without expecting any return. This again is not telling us not to provide for our own needs. If we didn't have it in the first place we wouldn't be able to give or lend it. And it doesn't say that the borrowers or askers are approved by God. The reward mentioned here goes to the givers, not to the takers. This is made obvious by verse 29, which says to turn the cheek to those who smite it. Clearly the Bible is not meaning that we are supposed to go around slapping people in the face. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke 12:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Therefore what you have said in the darkness will be heard in the light, and what you have spoken in the ear in the private rooms will be proclaimed on the housetops." What this has to do with improvidence, I have no idea, unless it is meant as an example of condoning of eavesdropping and gossip. That would be a really strange interpretation of this verse, looking at the context. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Improvidence condemned" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1 Tim. 5:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot] says we must provide for our own. (Doesn't say we need to be full of anxiety, just do it.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Proverbs 13:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot] - a good man leaves an inheritance to his children's children... Yup. --MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Anger approved<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"In your anger do not sin: do not let the sun go down while you are still angry." [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eph 4:26[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Anger disapproved<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eccl 7:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 22:24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]James 1:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I do not view Paul's admonitions as being approving of anger. In fact, the advice about not allowing the day to end while you are angry is anything but an approval of anger. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]33[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Good works to be seen of men<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 5:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Good works not to be seen of men<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 6:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Here is a case where context matters. In Mt 5, Jesus is speaking in the context of being the salt of the earth. It is by allowing Christ to work through us that people will be drawn to Him. That is, one does good works to glorify God. In Mt 6, Jesus is talking about doing good works in a self-righteous sense, where one draws attention to self. Consider a very practical example - a Christian who serves by feeding the poor ought to do so humbly and quietly. They will eventually be noticed, if only by those they serve. The same Christian shouldn't be bragging about his work among acquaintences, where a "holier-than-thou" sense is evident. The former approach draws people to God, the latter repels them. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]34[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Judging of others forbidden<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 7:1,2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Judging of others approved<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 6:2-4[/FONT][FONT=&quot] / [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 5:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is a commonly employed 'contradiction' which also ignores context. Mt 7 is not dealing with judging in of itself, rather, it speaks of hypocrisy - judging others by standards that one does not live by. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]35[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Christ taught nonresistance<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 5:39[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 26:52[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christ taught and practiced physical resistance<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 22:36[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 2:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Since using a scourge to drive out the animals and overturn the tables is not a case of "physical resistance," the verse in John is irrelevant. In Luke, it appears as if Jesus is teaching the disciples that in their changed circumstances, self-defense and self-provision might be necessary. The very fact that two swords was "enough" indicates a restrained theme to this teaching. Mt 5 is where Jesus teaches that one ought to "turn the other cheek." This is a hyperbole used to teach a moral lesson - do not set yourself against those who have injured you (does anyone really think that Jesus would have us expose our chests and invite the mugger to shoot us?). In Mt 26, someone with Jesus struck out at the legal authorities. Here the context is different from that of Lk 22. I read this as saying that those who raise the sword against the legal authorities can expect to die by the sword (and of course, this in of itself is not necessarily a moral principle). Then again, in light of vss. 53,54, one cannot establish that this teaching goes beyond the immediate circumstances. That is, if the disciples had fought, they would have been killed, and Jesus had better things in mind. That's why he told them He could summon supernatural aid if need be. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]36[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Christ warned his followers not to fear being killed<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 12:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christ himself avoided the Jews for fear of being killed<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 7:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke 12 is a generalized teaching which states that one ought to fear God more so than men (read vs. 5). John 7:1 says nothing about Jesus being afraid that the Jews would kill him. It simply mentions that He avoided them since they wanted to kill Him. It wasn't His time to die yet. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]37[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Public prayer sanctioned<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Kings 8:22,54[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]9:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Public prayer disapproved<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 6:5,6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mt 6 does not as much focus on public prayer as it does on hypocritical prayer - "And when you pray, you are not to pray as hypocrites." Jesus condemns the prayers designed to gather favor in the eyes of men. Nothing contradictory here. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]38[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Importunity in prayer commended<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 18:5,7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Importunity in prayer condemned<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 6:7,8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The vain repetitions ("as the heathen do") Jesus speaks of in Mt hardly seem to me to be the fervant supplications that Luke relays. Put simply, there's a difference between fervant, real prayer and repetitive chanting or mouthing some memorized prayer. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]39[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The wearing of long hair by men sanctioned<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Judg 13:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 6:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The wearing of long hair by men condemmed<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 11:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Judg. 13:5 the Nazarite is not permitted to cut his hair. Num. 6:5 teaches the same thing. 1 Cor. 11:14 teaches that if a man has long hair, it is a dishonor to him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Yes, true. The Nazarites kept long hair even though it was a dishonor to them. 1 Cor. 11:10 tells us that long hair is a sign of submission. So the Nazarites submitted to God even though it meant suffering some shame, for the duration of their vow. They also stayed away from dead things and any product of the grape, I think. --MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One could also note that national customs furnish an explanation here. 1 Cor was addressed to a Greek audience, where long hair on men often indicated effeminacy and indulgences in unnatural vices. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]40[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Circumcision instituted<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 17:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Circumcision condemned<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gal 5:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Gen. 17:10 God institutes circumcision to set His people apart. This is in the Old Testament where God would use a special people through which His Messiah could be brought forth. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Gal. 5:2 Spoken to ones who already believe in Christ but were not circumcised - if they go to be circumcised, they are going back to the law. This means they are denying the effectiveness of Christ's death... so they lose out on the benefits of being a believer. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is not the only such verse. Paul says elsewhere that we should beware those of the circumcision, also calling them the concision and even dogs. This is referring to the Judaizers who were trying to get the believers to be circumcised as a condition of their salvation.. among other things. They were trying to bring the believers under the law, even though these believers had been previously Gentiles and not Jews. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Paul tells us - it is not that all who have been circumcised are condemned, but rather that circumcision is no longer necessary in the New Testament because it has been replaced by the cross of Christ. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Indeed, here is another case (like #1) where the critic ignores the intervening events between the Scriptures cited. He/she may as well argue that the existence of a OLD and NEW covenant is a contradiction. And that exercise would be futile. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]41[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The Sabbath instituted<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 20:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Sabbath repudiated<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is 1:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 14:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Col 2:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Sabbath is a topic a lot of Christians disagree on. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Exo. 20:8 teaches that the Sabbath was instituted. But it was also practiced by God Himself even as early as day seven. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Isaiah 1:13 God says the wicked people are displeasing to God, and He no longer delights in anything they do, including keeping the Sabbath and making offerings to Him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]No surprise there. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Romans 14:5 and Col. 2:16 are New Testament verses. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Romans 14:5 neither supports the Sabbath nor repudiates it, though. It just says some keep and some don't and both are to be accepted as genuine believers. No problem there. (See verse 10). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Colossians 2:16 is the same story. "Let no one judge you with regards to the Sabbath" sounds like a far cry from "You are forbidden to keep the Sabbath" or "The Sabbath is bunk." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This matter would really do better dealt with on the larger scale of "Should New Testament believers be required to keep the entire Old Testament law?" Then one could bring in Eph. 2:15 and so on to show that on the one hand the moral aspects of the law are uplifted in the New Testament (Matt. 5-7), yet on the other hand the rituals are abolished (Sabbath, circumcision, feasts) and the offerings are replaced by Christ as the one unique Sacrifice. The middle wall of partition between Jews and Gentiles has been torn down by Christ on the cross and there is no longer any difference (among Christians). See discussion with James in Acts regarding this matter. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The teaching in Isaiah does not repudiate the Sabbath. If we read further, the LORD says: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Your hands are full of blood; wash and make yourselves clean. Take your evil deeds out of my sight! Stop doing wrong, learn to do right!" [Is 1:15-17] Obviously, God is condemning the religious hypocrisy in this instance. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Nevertheless, even if we take the above claims as truth, namely, that God instituted the Sabbath in Exodus, and repealed it through Paul (and we need not debate if this is the true interpretation), as it stands, this is not contradictory. It is not contradictory to institute X and then repeal it much later. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]42[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The Sabbath instituted because God rested on the seventh day<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 20:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Sabbath instituted because God brought the Israelites out of Egypt<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deut 5:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In this case, I see no reason why both explanations cannot be true. As such, the Sabbath could have been rooted in the order of things and in the historical intervention of the Creator. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why was the Sabbath instituted? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Exo. 22:11 tells us the Israelites should rest because God rested on the seventh day. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Deut. 5:15 tells the Israelites that God commanded them to keep the Sabbath because of their deliverance from Egypt. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The wording is different between the two statements. Deut. tells us the reason for the commandment to keep the Sabbath. Exo does not, but merely tells us a good reason why they should keep it. Anyway, it is not uncommon to do something for more than one reason. Especially good reasons.-- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]43[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. No work to be done on the Sabbath under penalty of death<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 31:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 15:32,36[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus Christ broke the Sabbath and justified his deciples in the same<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 5:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 12:1-3,5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]First of all, Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath, not subject of the Sabbath. As for his disciples, they were charged with breaking the Sabbath because they picked some heads of grain and ate them. Jesus corrected the Jewish leaders on their legalism (read the entire discussion in Mt 12). Jesus did not condone working on the Sabbath, he just pointed out the folly of taking this law to the extreme were people could not eat or help others on the Sabbath. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]43 No work could be done on Sabbath but Jesus worked on Sabbath and justified His disciples in doing the same. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Yup. In the Old Testament no work could be done on the Sabbath, although it was ok to pull an ox out of the ditch. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Lord Jesus in the New Testament is the Lord of the Sabbath and perfectly free to break it and even abolish it, since He is the one who set it up in the first place. Also, He is the reality of the shadows. The Old Testament Sabbath was a rest for God's people, but in the New Testament our real Sabbath is the One who said, "Come to Me, all who are weary and heavy-ladened, and I will give you rest." Also, Hebrews tells us that there remains a Sabbath rest for the people of God. This is not talking about an outward ritual of sitting around all day once a week reading the Torah, but about resting in Christ as our real inward peace and rest and sanctuary in this age and in full in the age to come. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Like I said earlier, this can be a pretty controversial issue, but at least grant me that it's a possible explanation which removes the validity of 43 as a contradiction in the Bible. Others may explain it differently. --MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]44[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Baptism commanded<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 28:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Baptism not commanded <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 1:14,17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is not a contradiction. Paul simply responded to the favoritism which sprang up along the lines of who baptised whom. Furthermore, Paul notes that his particular calling was not as a baptist, but as a preacher. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]45[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Every kind of animal allowed for food.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 9:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 10:25[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 14:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Certain kinds of animals prohibited for food.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deut 14:7,8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The NT references stem from the New Covenant. The Genesis reference indicates that God sanctioned non-vegetarian diets. The Deut references are particular to the Jews and the Old Covenant that was made with them. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]46[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Taking of oaths sanctioned<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 30:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 21:23-24,31[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 31:53[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 6:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Taking of oaths forbidden<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 5:34[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus is trying to get beyond human conventions and the frivolous oaths which were common and was calling for simple and pure honesty. Hebrews refers specifically to God and indicates His commitment/covenant. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Does the Bible sanction or forbid oaths? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the Old Testament they are not commanded, but permitted. Num. 30 explains when they can be annulled. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God Himself made an oath as recorded in Heb. 13:4. In Matt. 5:34 we New Testament believers are told not to swear by anything but to just say yes and no. The explanation given is that we are powerless to change our hair color. (Natural color.) But surely God is not similarly powerless, so if He wants to swear something, He is perfectly able to carry it out and nothing can come up to stop Him. No contradiction there. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So OT permits swearing (doesn't command it) and sets limits on it. The uplifted NT law abolishes it altogether on the grounds that we are powerless to guarantee the outcome. But God is not powerless, so He can swear as He likes. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]47[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Marriage approved<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 2:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 1:28[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 19:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 13:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Marriage disapproved<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 7:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 7:7,8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Paul is not disapproving marriage! He is simply saying that it is good to be unmarried. Saying it is good to not marry is not saying it is bad to marry. Being unmarried is good in the sense that particular blessings can stem from it (in fact, Paul even describes celibacy as a "gift"). However, another set of blessings can stem from being married. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Does God approve of marriage? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Let's just look at the verses cited as saying that God disapproves of marriage, since obviously He approves. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1 Cor. 7:1, 8, 26[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
Verse 26 tells us why Paul says this. It is because of the present necessity. Well, these three verses do not tell us that God disapproves of marriage, but only that there is nothing wrong with staying single. "Good for them." A man who is content to refrain from touching any woman must really be full of the enjoyment of God, as Paul was. This is surely a good thing, although most people are not like that. As verse 7 says, each has his own gift from God, and for most people it is not the gift of staying single forever, although [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt. 19:10-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot] tells us (not cited) that there is a blessing for those that are able to keep it. Other verses not quoted tell us that the married person cares for how to please his/her mate, whereas the single one is free to concentrate on pleasing the Lord. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Anyway, none of these verses say that God disapproves of marriage. To teach others not to marry is to spread the doctrines of demons. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Tim. 4:1-5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"What God has joined together." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If God disapproved of marriage, He would disapprove of almost all humans that ever were. He Himself intends to be married. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Tim. 5:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Paul speaks of this matter again and makes it clear that his position is neither disapproval nor forbidding of marriage. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Genesis 2:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot] It is not good for the man to be alone. I will make a help suitable for him. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]48[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Freedom of divorce permitted<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deut 24:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deut 21:10,11,14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Divorce restricted<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 5:32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Yes, Jesus issues a new commandment and even explains the permission 1500 years earlier. He now issues a higher calling. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]49[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Adultery forbidden<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 20:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 13:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Adultery allowed<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 31:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Hos 1:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2:1-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One has to read adultery INTO Num 31:18 - it is not obvious that this verse is talking about adultery. As for Hosea, OT scholar Walter Kaiser believes that when God told Hosea to marry Gomer, she was not yet a harlot. [/FONT][FONT=&quot](Besides, the exception doesn't prove the rule). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Does the Bible permit adultery? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]No. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Numbers 31:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot] doesn't say that the "yourselves" were already married. Obviously it doesn't refer to the females among the Israelites, and so it can just as easily also exclude all the married and under-age males. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hosea 1:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot] God commands Hosea to marry a prostitute. The very idea of using this as a justification of adultery is absurd. The point here is to expose the nation of Israel at that time for her unfaithful and treacherous treatment of her Husband, God. Israel was a prostitute in the eyes of God, because she was going after idols, yet He still would marry her and even take her back after she ran after idols again. This is an example of an incredible level of forgiveness, not of a condoning of the evil that she had done. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hosea 2:1-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot] God commands Hosea to go back and reclaim his unfaithful wife back from the man she was messing around with. (See above.) The point is that this is an extremely difficult thing for a man to do, to take back his wife even from the house of her lover and to have to pay a price to get her back. Yet this is what God did for the children of Israel and also did for us. What an incredible heart He has for us, even though we were spiritually harlots in His eyes; He still loved us enough to pay the price to redeem us. --MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]50[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Marriage or cohabitation with a sister denounced<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deut 27:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 20:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Abraham married his sister and God blessed the union<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 20:11,12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 17:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Gen 17:16 says nothing about Sarah being Abrams sister. Gen 20:11 ignores [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 12:11-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Abraham had people believing that Sarah was his sister out of fear - it was a lie. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Is it ok to marry or cohabit with one's sister? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Well, in the early generations man didn't have a choice. Cain for example married someone, and the only gals around were his siblings. Abraham also lived long before Moses, who wrote Deuteronomy and Leviticus. After Moses, nope, not a good idea to marry your sister. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<st1:metricconverter productid="51. A" w:st="on">[FONT=&quot]51[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. A[/FONT]</st1:metricconverter>[FONT=&quot] man may marry his brother's widow<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deut 25:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A man may not marry his brother's widow<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 20:21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is a clear case of reading a contradiction INTO the Bible - Lev 20:21 says nothing obvious about marrying widows. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]52[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Hatred to kindred enjoined<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"If anyone comes to me and does not hate his father and mother, his wife and children, his brothers and sisters- yes, even his own life- he cannot be my disciple" [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 14:26[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hatred to kindred condemned<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eph 6:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eph 5:25,29[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I have seen this verse used numerous times from atheists in an attempt to show that Jesus was not a nice guy. But let's see if this verse really supports that position. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Many atheists interpret this verse literally. To them, it is clear that Jesus was instructing us to hate our families. But is it? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is fairly basic rule in hermenuetics that a particular teaching should be interpreted in the light of general teaching, that is, in light of its context. So, does this hate-message fit into the overall context of Jesus' teaching? Not really. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Elsewhere, Jesus responds to an inquiry about attaining eternal life. He replied, "honor your mother and father" [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt. 19:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]. In fact, on another occasion Jesus censured those theologians who argued that people who had vowed to give God a sum of money which they later discovered could have been used to help thier parents in need were not free to divert the money from religious purposes to which it had been vowed. In His characteristic condemnation of human traditions, Jesus observed: "Thus you nullify the Word of God for the sake of your tradition. You hypocrites!" [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt. 15:6-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Now, how can you hate your parents, yet also honor them? These seem to be exclusive sentiments. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]On the cross, Jesus tells John to take His mother as his own. Was he telling John to hate her? Then why did John take Mary into his home? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]An interesting thing happens if you put together some of these teachings. If we are to hate our family, why must we love our enemies? And by hating our families, they become our enemies, but then we are supposed to love them! <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]No, I find this literalistic interpretation of [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 14:26[/FONT][FONT=&quot] to be plagued with problems and taken out of context. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So what sense are we to make of this teaching? Perhaps Jesus is simply employing hyperbole to emphasize an important point. Let's return to the immediate context of this verse. In [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 14:27[/FONT][FONT=&quot], He notes that a disciple must be willing to carry his cross. In verses [/FONT][FONT=&quot]28-29[/FONT][FONT=&quot], he teaches from the example of building a tower and that one should count the costs before beginning. In verses [/FONT][FONT=&quot]31-32[/FONT][FONT=&quot], he uses an example of a king going to war to illustrate the same point. Then in verse [/FONT][FONT=&quot]33[/FONT][FONT=&quot], he explains that we must be willing to give up everything to be His disciple. In verses he alludes to salt that loses its saltiness, which is thrown out. And finally, he sums it all up by saying "He who has ears to hear, let him hear" [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]vs. 35[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Now throughout this whole preaching, Jesus uses symbolic parables and hyperbole to drive His points home. And what is the point? I think it is rather clear, that commitment to Jesus is primary and always comes first. Thus, if you are willing to put others before Christ and unwilling to follow through with your commitment, you may as well never commit in the first place. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is well known that in Jewish idiom, hate could also mean 'love less'. In fact, I think the same message taught in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 14:26[/FONT][FONT=&quot] is taught in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 10:37[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Anyone who loves his father or mother more than me is not worthy of me; anyone who loves his son or daughter more than me is not worthy of me; and anyone who does not take his cross and follow me is not worthy of me". <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In this case Jesus is speaking to his disciples, while in Luke He was addressing the crowds. But the same theme is present in both and His teaching to the disciples clearly explains the hyperbole in Luke. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I should also go back to that idiom. In the OT, the love-hate antithesis was used to distinguish between the intensity of one's love, and not meant as a polarization of concepts. Perhaps the clearest example is in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen. 29:30-31[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"So Jacob went to Rachel also, and he loved Rachel more than Leah, and served Laban another seven years. When the LORD saw that Leah was hated, he opened her womb". <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Thus, Leah's being hated or not loved really meant that she was loved less. In fact, in the poetry of the ancient Near East numerous terms were paired together. In such instances the meaning of these terms is far more dependent upon their idiomatic usage rather than their literal meaning in isolation. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Given that Jesus often teaches using symbolic parables and hyperbole, given the context of Luke's passage, along with the context of other teachings of Jesus which certainly contradict a literal reading of Luke's verse, and the use of the love-hate comparison in Hebrew idiom, all added to Matthews account of the same theme, a consistent picture comes out that Jesus was teaching that we should love our families less than He. His use of hyperbole is an effective way of getting attention and emphasizing his point at the same time. Commitment to Jesus comes first. By the way, this is another subtle implicit expression of Jesus as God, as elsewhere, he reminds us that we are to love "the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind" [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt. 22:37[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Anyway, if Bob was to tell Sue that he loved her so much that "he'd walk a thousand miles without food and water just to be with her", must Bob fulfill the literal sense of his statement for Sue to understand the depth of his love? If we insisted that hyperbole be taken literally, a very effective and deep method of communicating would be lost! <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]53[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Intoxicating beverages recommended<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 31:6,7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Tim 5:23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 104:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Intoxicating beverages discountenanced<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 20:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 23:31,32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Is it ok to drink alcoholic beverages? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Yup, but not in excess. And it's not required. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](All things are lawful for me but I will not be brought under the power of any. All things are lawful for me, but not all things are profitable. All things are lawful, but not all things build up. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 6:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Prov. 20:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot] says abusers of wine are not wise. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]31-32 are in the context of excessive drinking (see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]30-32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Lord was accused of being a drinker; it can be inferred that He did not entirely abstain from wine - just from drunkenness. However, anyone who is weak in this matter would do well not to touch the stuff. (IMHO) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A great verse not quoted is [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eph. 5:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (Compare with [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 2:13-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The point of wine in the Bible is a picture of our enjoyment of the Spirit. Well, atheists can't be expected to understand that. Anyway, we should be crazy before God and sober before man. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]54[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. It is our duty to obey our rulers, who are God's ministers and punish evil doers only<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 13:1-3,6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is not our duty to obey rulers, who sometimes punish the good and receive unto themselves damnation therefore<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 1:17,20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dan 3:16,18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dan 6:7,9,10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 4:26,27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 12:38-40[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 23:11,24,33,35[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]54 Should we obey our rulers? Are they God's ministers? Do they punish only evildoers? Do they sometimes punish the good as well? Will they receive damnation for their injustices? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This question has to be answered in parts.. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1) Should we obey our rulers? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Romans 13:1-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot], 6 says we should be subject to, and not resist, the authorities over us. Note: it doesn't say obey. We should obey if at all possible, unless such obedience is contrary to God, as in the extreme cases below. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Exo. 1:17, 20[/FONT][FONT=&quot] tells us that the midwives did not follow the pharaoh's command to kill the male babies of the Israelites and that God approved. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Dan. 3:16 18[/FONT][FONT=&quot] tell us that Daniel's three friends disobeyed the king's command to bow to the image. It also tells us that they were willing to submit to the consequences and that their attitude was not one of defiance but of respectful disobedience. Same as the midwives. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Daniel 6:7, 9, 10[/FONT][FONT=&quot] tells us Daniel was the same. He was submissive to the king and honored him, but was unable to obey this one particular command because it conflicted with His faithful worship of God. He also submitted to the penalty. All three are special cases where the authorities require something contrary to God. All three are not obedient but are still subject and do not resist. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Acts 4:26-27[/FONT][FONT=&quot] does not deal with this question. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mark 12:38-40[/FONT][FONT=&quot] is not a command not to respect them or do as they say. In another verse the Lord makes this more clear, telling us to do as they say but not as they do. The Lord had good reason to warn His disciples to beware the scribes, as they were part of the group that was plotting to kill Him. Anyway, that is not the point here. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke 23:11, 24, 33, 35[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Here the Lord submitted to the cruel treatment of the earthly government. He was a good example for us all. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2) Are they God's ministers? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Romans tells us that they are. No verse tells us that they are not, although they do sometimes abuse their office after they have received it from God. That makes them not much different from King Saul or the sons of Eli. David and Samuel (respectively) were still subject to them and respected them as established by God. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]3) Do they punish only evildoers? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Romans 13:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot] "For the rulers are not a terror to the good work, but to the evil. Do you want to have no fear of the authority? Do what is good, and you will have praise from him." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is a general principle, explaining that if we rob a bank or kill someone or dodge our taxes (the example in the context), we will have something to fear from the authorities, whereas if we don't we won't. If they oppress us unjustly, that is a matter not being dealt with in this verse. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]4) Do they get punished by God for their injustices? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Yes. God is not a regarder of persons. Every individual, regardless of status, will eventually face the judgment seat. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]55[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Women's rights denied<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 3:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Tim 2:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 14:34[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Pet 3:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Women's rights affirmed<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Judg 4:4,14,15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Judg 5:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 2:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 21:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]#55 Does the Bible affirm or deny women's rights? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Hot topic.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Gen. 3:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot] the curse on the woman (man got one too). The husband rules over the wife. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1 Tim. 2:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Woman not permitted to teach or exercise authority over a man, but to be in quietness. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1 Cor. 14:34[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Silent. Not permitted to speak in the assemblies but to be subject. Next verse explains: it is a shame for a woman to speak in the church. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1 Pet. 3:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot] As Sarah obeyed Abraham, calling him lord, so women should be subject to their own husbands. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Judg 4:4-15[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Deborah, a female, judged Israel. But note: The Bible purposely mentions her husband's name. She does not choose to lead the people of Israel to battle but is told to do so. She goes obediently when told, but tells Barak that he will be shamed in that a woman will kill his enemy Sisera. (It is a shame for a woman to defeat the enemy.) It is also a shame to Barak that he cannot go to battle without a woman. As a prophetess, she speaks, but she purposely keeps herself in her proper position as a female by maintaining the safeguards of her husband's headship and obedience to the authority of Barak. It is also a shame to Israel that there were no men who could judge them and so God was forced to use a female. (This does happen sometimes.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Judg. 5:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Confirms the fact that there was no male to rule Israel properly and so God was forced to raise up Deborah. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Acts 2:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Both men and women prophesy. Females prophesying is different from females teaching and exerting authority over men. Females can of course prophesy with their heads covered, signifying submission and acceptance of God's ordination. Just as Deborah did. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Acts 21:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot] A man had four virgin daughters who prophesied. Same as above. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]See also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor. 11:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1 Cor. 11:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot] shows us that the point here is to keep the proper order (v. 40) in the churches: God is the Head of Christ. He, Christ, was fully in submission to the Father in all things, even unto death. Likewise, men should be headed up by Christ and women by men, especially their own husbands. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While on that topic: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Eph. 5:25-31[/FONT][FONT=&quot] "Husbands, love your wives even as Christ also loved the church and gave Himself up for her that He might sanctify her, cleansing her by the washing of the water in the word, that He might present the church to Himself glorious, not having spot or wrinkle or any such things, but that she should be holy and without blemish. In the same way the husbands also ought to love their own wives as their own bodies; he who loves his own wife loves himself. For no one ever hated his own flesh, but nourishes and cherishes it, even as Christ also the church, because we are members of His Body. For this cause a man shall leave his father and mother and shall be joined to his wife, and the two shall be one flesh." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1 Peter 3:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot] says that the wives are weaker and are to be treasured as vessels unto honor by their husbands. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1 Cor. 12:22-24[/FONT][FONT=&quot] But much rather the members of the body which seem to be weaker are necessary. And those members of the body which we consider to be less honorable, these we clothe with more abundant honor; and our uncomely members come to have more abundant comeliness, but our comely members have no need. But God has blended the body together, giving more abundant honor to the member that lacked. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2 Cor. 12:9-10[/FONT][FONT=&quot] And He has said to me, My grace is sufficient for you, for My power is perfected in weakness. Most gladly therefore I will rather boast in my weaknesses that the power of Christ might tabernacle over me. Therefore I am well pleased in weaknesses, in insults, in necessities, in persecutions and distresses, on behalf of Christ; for when I am weak, then I am powerful. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The brothers saw the vision on the mount of transfiguration, were appointed as disciples and later as apostles, and in the churches took on the responsibilities of being elders, deacons, teachers, and so on. But it was a group of sisters who supplied the funds for Jesus and His disciples to live for those three and a half years. It was a sister who willingly and without a second thought offered herself to be used by God to bring forth the Messiah, it was a sister who anointed the Lord Jesus with the costly nard which may have been her entire life savings and wiped His feet with her tears, sisters who first learned of His resurrection, and a sister who lingered at the tomb and was first to see Him in resurrection. The Lord does not discriminate against us sisters; rather, He is full of compassion for us in our weakness. Let us love and seek Him with our whole heart. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]56[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Obedience to masters enjoined<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Col 3:22,23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Pet 2:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Obedience due to God only<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 4:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 7:23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 23:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]#56 Should masters be obeyed? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 4:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot] is referring to the service of worship, as the context makes clear. We are to worship only God. It is quoted from [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deut. 6:13-14[/FONT][FONT=&quot] which is also in the context of being forbidden to worship idols. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1 Cor. 7:20-24[/FONT][FONT=&quot] tells slaves to remain as slaves even if the opportunity arises to be liberated. Then verse 22 says that a slave is the Lord's freedman and a freeman is the Lord's slave. This is telling us that outwardly we may be a slave or free but in the Lord we are His slave and we are also free in Him. So although we are slaves to men outwardly, the one we hold in our heart as our true Master is the Lord. This is not a sanction of being rebellious to our masters but a reference to our heart. The context makes it clear that it is not saying that slaves should seek to be free or to rebel against their masters. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matt. 23:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. This verse was previously dealt with in question #30. It is not referring to whether or not we have earthly masters, but whether or not we address some believers as if they were superior with titles of honor like Father and Teacher (Uh, and Reverend and Pastor and Deacon). All believers are brothers. Context: [/FONT][FONT=&quot]verses 6-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Yes, there are apostles, prophets, evangelists, etc. But we just don't need to address them honorifically. And mustn't. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]57[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. There is an unpardonable sin<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"But whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit has no forgiveness forever, but is guilty of an everlasting sin." [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 3:29[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There is not unpardonable sin<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"And from all the things from which you were not able to be justified by the law of Moses, in this One everyone who believes is justified." [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 13:39[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Note that the critic is relying on a particular interpretation of Acts 13, as it doesn't clearly say there is no unpardonable sin. It merely says that those who believe are justified. Now, Jesus' teaching may be descriptive in essense - those who blaspheme the Holy Spirit are those who never believe. That is, blasphemy of the Holy Spirit may be a symptom of a heart which is in such rebellion that it never yeilds to the call of the Holy Spirit. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is also possible that blaspheming the Spirit may simply be rejecting His call. Or at the very least, those who blaspheme the Spirit are ones who rebel against Him. Recall that the Spirit is sent to bring us into the Truth and convict us of sin. Those who would blaspheme the Spirit obviously rebel against Him, thus reject salvation. Thus, how could they be saved? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]58[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Man was created after the other animals<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 1:25,26,27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Man was created before the other animals<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 2:18,19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The first chapter of Genesis is a synopsis of creation. The second is more detailed and focuses on the creation of man (and was unlikely intended to be a separate creation account). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The NIV translates [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 2:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot] as follows: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Now that LORD God had formed out of the ground all the beasts of the field and all the birds of the air. He brought them to the man..." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Simply put, the Garden could have initially been without animal life, and God simply brought the animals he had already created to Adam. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]59[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Seed time and harvest were never to cease<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 8:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Seed time and harvest did cease for seven years<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 41:54,56[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 45:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]59 Did seed time and harvest ever cease? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Gen. 8:22 "shall never cease." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Gen. 41:54-56, 45:6 There was a famine over the whole earth for seven years. The seasons didn't cease, just the fruitful yield thereof. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Seed time and harvest are another way of saying Spring and Fall, especially in the context of Genesis 8 which is speaking of the seasons. They were forced to cease during the flood, which was marked by heavy rainfall and not much variety. This was not what happpened in Egypt and the other countries during the famine in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 41-45[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]60[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God hardened Pharaoh's heart<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 4:21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 9:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Pharaoh hardened his own heart<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 8:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]#60 Who hardened Pharaoh's heart? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Exo. 4:21 and 9:12 God did. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Exo. 8:15 Pharaoh did. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]MaryAnna notes that they both did. I agree, as much has been written on this topic. But I would note that people often react very differently to God's actions. For example, let's imagine that God invoked some calamity on people as a judgment for their sin. Some people would respond and repent. Many would simply harden their heart and blame God. Thus, by bringing about this calamity, some might be saved, but God could be said that have indirectly hardened the hearts of others. Of course, sometimes you don't need calamity. I'm sure many Christians can testify of varying evangelistic experiences. After months of witnessing, some become saved. But sometimes, those who come awful close to being saved back away and become more rebellious than ever, their hearts being more hardened than ever after being touched by the convicting hand of the Holy Spirit. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]61[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. All the cattle and horses in Egypt died<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 9:3,6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]All the horses of Egypt did not die<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 14:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The account in Ex 9:3 refers to the livestock in the field. If not all the Egyptian horses were in the fields, they wouldn't all die, now would they? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]62[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Moses feared Pharaoh<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 2:14,15[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]4:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Moses did not fear Pharaoh<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 11:27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hebrews says "By faith he left Egypt, not fearing the king's anger." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The accounts in Ex 2 and 4 describe events long before Moses led his people out of Egypt (besides, Ex 4 says nothing about Moses fearing Pharaoh). This is obviously another contradiction which is read INTO the Bible. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]63[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. There died of the plague twenty-four thousand<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 25:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
 
Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

<meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"><meta name="ProgId" content="Word.Document"><meta name="Generator" content="Microsoft Word 11"><meta name="Originator" content="Microsoft Word 11"><link rel="File-List" href="file:///C:%5CDOCUME%7E1%5CADMINI%7E1%5CCONFIG%7E1%5CTemp%5Cmsohtml1%5C06%5Cclip_filelist.xml"><link rel="Edit-Time-Data" href="file:///C:%5CDOCUME%7E1%5CADMINI%7E1%5CCONFIG%7E1%5CTemp%5Cmsohtml1%5C06%5Cclip_editdata.mso"><!--[if !mso]> <style> v\:* {behavior:url(#default#VML);} o\:* {behavior:url(#default#VML);} w\:* {behavior:url(#default#VML);} .shape {behavior:url(#default#VML);} </style> <![endif]--><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="PlaceName"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="PlaceType"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="City"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="country-region"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="place"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="metricconverter"></o:smarttagtype><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:WordDocument> <w:View>Normal</w:View> <w:Zoom>0</w:Zoom> <w:HyphenationZone>21</w:HyphenationZone> <w:punctuationKerning/> <w:ValidateAgainstSchemas/> <w:SaveIfXMLInvalid>false</w:SaveIfXMLInvalid> <w:IgnoreMixedContent>false</w:IgnoreMixedContent> <w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText>false</w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText> <w:Compatibility> <w:BreakWrappedTables/> <w:SnapToGridInCell/> <w:WrapTextWithPunct/> <w:UseAsianBreakRules/> <w:DontGrowAutofit/> </w:Compatibility> <w:BrowserLevel>MicrosoftInternetExplorer4</w:BrowserLevel> </w:WordDocument> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:LatentStyles DefLockedState="false" LatentStyleCount="156"> </w:LatentStyles> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if !mso]><object classid="clsid:38481807-CA0E-42D2-BF39-B33AF135CC4D" id=ieooui></object> <style> st1\:*{behavior:url(#ieooui) } </style> <![endif]--><style> <!-- /* Font Definitions */ @font-face {font-family:Calibri; panose-1:2 15 5 2 2 2 4 3 2 4; mso-font-charset:0; mso-generic-font-family:swiss; mso-font-pitch:variable; mso-font-signature:-1610611985 1073750139 0 0 159 0;} @font-face {font-family:"Agency FB"; panose-1:2 11 5 3 2 2 2 2 2 4; mso-font-charset:0; mso-generic-font-family:swiss; mso-font-pitch:variable; mso-font-signature:3 0 0 0 1 0;} /* Style Definitions */ p.MsoNormal, li.MsoNormal, div.MsoNormal {mso-style-parent:""; margin-top:0cm; margin-right:0cm; margin-bottom:10.0pt; margin-left:0cm; line-height:115%; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:11.0pt; font-family:Calibri; mso-fareast-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-bidi-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-fareast-language:EN-US;} a:link, span.MsoHyperlink {color:blue; text-decoration:underline; text-underline:single;} a:visited, span.MsoHyperlinkFollowed {color:purple; text-decoration:underline; text-underline:single;} @page Section1 {size:612.0pt 792.0pt; margin:70.85pt 3.0cm 70.85pt 3.0cm; mso-header-margin:36.0pt; mso-footer-margin:36.0pt; mso-paper-source:0;} div.Section1 {page:Section1;} --> </style><!--[if gte mso 10]> <style> /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Tabla normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0cm 5.4pt 0cm 5.4pt; mso-para-margin:0cm; mso-para-margin-bottom:.0001pt; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:10.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]There died of the plague but twenty-three thousand<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 10:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]According to Paul, 23,000 fell "in one day." The account in Numbers simply states that 24,000 died of the plague. It is not contradictory that 23,000 should die in a day, and another 1000 die before or after. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]64[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. John the Baptist was Elias<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"And if you are willing to receive it, he is Elijah, who is to come." [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 11:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John the Baptist was not Elias<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 1:21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Note, in Matt. 11:14, not "He is" but "If you are willing to receive it, he is." Indicating not a literal identity but a fulfillment of prophecy. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is referring to the prophecy in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mal. 4:5-6[/FONT][FONT=&quot] "Behold, I will send unto you Elijah the prophet before the coming of the great and terrible day of Jehovah. And he shall turn the heart of the fathers to the children, and the heart of the children to their fathers, lest I come and smite the earth with a curse." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This prophecy has two fulfillments. First, before the Lord's first coming, John the Baptist came in the spirit and power of Elijah to prepare the way of the Lord and make straight His paths. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 1:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot] "And it is he who will go before Him in the spirit and power of Elijah to turn the hearts of the fathers to the children, and the disobedient to the prudence of the righteous, to prepare for the Lord a people made ready." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The second fulfillment of this prophecy is before the second coming of the Lord. This has yet to happen, and at that time it will be Elijah, not one in the spirit and power of Elijah, who will actually come. This is confirmed by the Lord's word in: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mt 17:10-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot] "And the disciples asked Him, saying, Why then do the scribes say that Elijah must come first? And He answered and said, Elijah indeed is coming and will restore all things; but I say to you that Elijah has already come; and they did not recognize him, but did with him the things they wished. So also the Son of Man is about to suffer by them. Then the disciples understood that He spoke to them concerning John the Baptist." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Again the Lord is careful to point out that the literal Elijah has yet to come, but then to say "but I say to you." This indicates that although Elijah is coming, it can also be said that he has come - referring to John the Baptist. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Elijah's coming is also mentioned in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rev. 11:3-4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. He will be one of the two witnesses. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John 1:21 John B. said that he was not Elijah. That's right. He wasn't the actual person of Elijah. That would happen much much later .... <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So in a sense he was Elijah, and yet he wasn't. Not a contradiction. --MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]65[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The father of Joseph, Mary's husband was Jacob<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 1:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The father of Mary's husband was Heli<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 3:23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is distinctly possible that Luke's account traces Jesus' lineage through Mary, and no Joseph. Some of the circumstantial evidence in to support this is as follows: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1. Luke's birth narrative is through the eyes of Mary, while Matthew's is through the eyes of Joseph. Thus, Luke could have received his material through Mary (or somone close), thus it is quite possible that he received her genealogy. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 3:23[/FONT][FONT=&quot] reads, "Jesus...being supposedly the son of Joseph, the son of Heli, etc." Luke certainly draws attention to the fact that Jesus was not truly Joseph's son, so why would he then go to all the trouble in listing Joseph's genealogy? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]3. After considering the Greek of [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 3:23[/FONT][FONT=&quot], Robert Gromacki believes it should be translated as follows: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"being the son (as was supposed of Joseph) of Heli, of Matthat, etc." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Gromaki states: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Since women did not appear in direct genealogical listings, Joseph stood in Mary's place, but Luke was careful to note that there was no physical connection between Joseph and either Jesus or Heli." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]4. Luke's genealogy also lists Adam as "the son of God." This would indicate that one would have no grounds for insisting that the term "son" meant only the direct, biological offspring. Thus, one could think of Jesus as the "son of Heli." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]5. The writings of Ignatitius (ca. 100 AD) indicate that the early church thought that Mary was a Davidic descent. For example, he writes: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]""Under the Divine dispensation, Jesus Christ our God was conceived by Mary of the seed of David and of the spirit of God; He was born, and He submitted to baptism, so that by His Passion He might sanctify water." -- Ignatius to the Ephesians <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Christ was of David's line. He was the son of Mary; He was verily and indeed born.." -- Ignatius to the Trallians <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Since Ignatius believed in the virgin birth, it clearly follows that he would believe that she was "of the seed of David." Other apocryphal gospels and Justin Martyr also believed Mary to have been a descendent of David. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Objections to these claims are basically of two types: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A. The Jews did not typically trace genealogies through women. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Reply: This is true, but a virgin birth is not a typical birth. Thus standard practices would not be expected to hold. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]B. There is no explicit mention that the genealogy is Mary's. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Reply: This is true again, but the reason for this is probably due to point A. The genealogy would lose all appeal if it was explicitly cited as Mary's. However, it does seem to be implied. Thus, one could discern this truth after they had converted and studied the text. This would account for the early church's belief about Mary's Davidic descent. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Whatever one makes of such reasoning, it is certainly possible that the above explanation might be true, thus a contradiction has not been proved. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]66[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The father of Salah was Arphaxad<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 11:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The father of Salah was Cainan<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 3:35,36[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]To me, this looks like a legitimate contradiction, although I suppose it is possible that this is the same person known by different names. After all, it is not uncommon for Biblical personages to have more than one name. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]67[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. There were fourteen generations from Abraham to David<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 1:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There were but thirteen generations from Abraham to David<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 1:2-6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]68[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. There were fourteen generations from the Babalonish captivity to Christ.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 1:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There were but thirteen generations from the Babalonish captivity to Christ<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 1:12-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I list these together and allow MaryAnna to reply...... <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I looked this up in my study Bible (Recovery Version) and found the following explanation: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Matt. 1:17) "This genealogy is divided into three ages: (1) from Abraham until David, fourteen generations, the age before the establishing of the kingdom; (2) from David until the deportation to Babylon, fourteen generations, the age of the kingdom; (3) from the deportation to Babylon until the Christ, again fourteen generations, the age after the fall of the kingdom. According to history, there were actually forty-five generations. By deducting from these generations the three cursed generations [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt. 1:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Chron. 3:11-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Kings 15:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Chron. 21:5-6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]22:1-4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exo. 20:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] and the one improper generation [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt. 1:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Chron. 3:15-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Kings 23:34-35[/FONT][FONT=&quot]], and then adding one by making David two generations (one, the age before the establishing of the kingdom, and the other, the age of the kingdom), the generations total forty-two, being divided into three ages of fourteen generations each." --MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It's simply a matter of how you count. In other words, you can count it as fourteen generations first by extending from Abraham to David; secondly, by extending from David to the deportation; and thirdly, by extending from Jechonias to Christ, inclusive in each case. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]69[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The infant Christ was taken into <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 2:14,15,19,21,23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The infant Christ was not taken into <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 2:22, 39[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke does not say that the infant was not taken into <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> as neither account is exhaustive (those who look for contradictions often overlook the fact that Biblical accounts are rarely exhaustive in their scope). We can easily harmonize the accounts as follows: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Journey of Joseph and Mary from Nazareth to Bethlehem; birth of the child; presentation in the Temple; return to Bethlehem; visit of the Magi; flight into Egypt; return to settle in Nazareth. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]70[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Christ was tempted in the wilderness<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 1:12,13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christ was not tempted in the wilderness<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 2:1,2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mark 1:12, 13 Jesus was tempted in the wilderness immediately after His baptism. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John 2:1, 2 The third day after John testifies for Jesus for the first time in the book of John, (not the first ever) Jesus is in Cana of Galilee turning water into wine. There is no mention of how much earlier Jesus was baptized. He was tempted in the wilderness before 1:29. Then He went back to see John, at which time John proclaims that Jesus is the Lamb of God, based on previously having seen the Spirit descend on Him in the form of a dove. (verses 32 to 34). -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]71[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Christ preached his first sermon on the mount<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 5:1,2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christ preached his first sermon on the plain<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 6:17,20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Neither account says anything about this being his "first sermon." As MaryAnna notes: 71 Probably two different sermons with similar content. Matt. doesn't say the sermon on the mount was His first sermon. Matt. doesn't seem too concerned about the sequence of events. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt. 4:23[/FONT][FONT=&quot] seems to indicate that before this the Lord already had done a lot of speaking. The one in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt. 5[/FONT][FONT=&quot] was addressed to the disciples privately. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Indeed. It is not at all uncommon for a preacher to preach similar sermons at different times and with different audiences, now is it? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]72[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. John was in prison when Jesus went into <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 1:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John was not in prison when Jesus went into <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 1:35-43[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]3:22-24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The account in Mark does not indicate that this was the first time Jesus went into <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place>. It is quite possible that Jesus did earlier visit <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place> to baptize and mingle, and Mark alludes to a subsequent visit (after John's imprisonment) when He began to preach the nearness of the kingdom. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]73[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Christ's disciples were commanded to go forth with a staff and sandals<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 6:8,9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christ's disciples were commanded to go forth with neither staves not sandals<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 10:9,10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I view these as complementary accounts which get us closer to the full instructions of Jesus. In Mark, He tells his disciples to take nothing for their journey except a staff and sandals to wear. In Matthew, He instructs them not to acquire many things (including more sandals and staffs). In short, he is instructing them to take little, and not to accept the gifts of men in return for the healing and message that they bring with them. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<st1:metricconverter productid="74. A" w:st="on">[FONT=&quot]74[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. A[/FONT]</st1:metricconverter>[FONT=&quot] woman of <st1:place w:st="on">Canaan</st1:place> besought Jesus<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 15:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It was a Greek woman who besought Him<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 7:26[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]74 The nationality of the woman who besought Jesus. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matt. 15:22 She was a Canaanite woman. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mark 7:26 She was a Greek, Syrophoenician by race. The Phoenicians were descendants of the Canaanites. So she was Greek in some way other than race. It could have been by religion, marriage, or something else. Anyway, these verses don't contradict each other. The point is she was not an Israelite. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Also, "Greek" may have simply meant "Gentile". According to Haley, she lived in a part of <st1:place w:st="on">Canaan</st1:place> called "Syro-Phoenicia." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]75[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Two blind men besought Jesus<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 20:30[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Only one blind man besought Him<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 18:35,38[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]75 How many blind men were there? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matt. 20:30 mentions two. Luke 18:35, 38 only mentions one. A certain one. Luke probably was acquainted with him and so mentions him specifically. He may have continued to follow the Lord and even been among the 120 later, whereas the other may not have. At any rate Luke doesn't say that the blind man was alone, just that he was there and received his sight. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]I should point out that critic's don't like the type of replies that MaryAnna suggests, although I think her explanation is quite plausivle. So allow to me reply to their complaints at this point. In another context, one critic decried a similar type of approach as desribed it as follows <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Critic: "2. "There was more there than...." This is used when one verse says "there was a" and another says "there was b", so they decide there was "a" AND "b" -which is said nowhere." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]My reply: Simply because it is "said nowhere" doesn't mean it is not the case. That follows only if you assume exhaustively detailed and verbatim reports. In fact, we can induce that it was probably the case by putting the pieces together. This is a perfectly valid approach. Anyone who lives in this world ought to know that. If I go for a ride with my buddies Bob and Steve, and come home to tell my wife I was out with Bob (perhaps because I talked to him more, ie, he was on my mind) and later mention that Steve said something about getting a new job, have I contradicted myself? The contradiction exists ONLY if I said that ONLY Bob and I went for a drive. And it would certainly be reasonable for my wife to conclude that I must have went for a ride with both Bob and Steve. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In attempting to pooh-pooh this type of explanation which is commonly experienced, the critic is fallaciously engaged in black and white thinking. It's like saying, "Hey, either you went for a ride with Bob or Steve, which is it?". But why in the world can't it be both? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Critic: "This makes them happy, since it doesn't say there WASN'T "a+b"." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]My reply: I don't know about happy, but this sounds like the crying of a spoiled child. If you are out to demonstrate a CONTRADICTION, this is exactly the type of thing you have to uncover. Just because the critic fails to shoulder HIS/HER burden is no reason for me to take their point seriously. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]76[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Christ was crucified at the third hour<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 15:25[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christ was not crucified until the sixth hour<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 19:14,15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]76 At what hour was Jesus crucified? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mark 15:25 says it was in the third hour, 9:00 a.m. John 19:14-15 says that in the sixth hour (different clock). He was still not crucified yet but was being judged before Pilate. This was at about <st1:metricconverter productid="6 a" w:st="on">6 a</st1:metricconverter>.m. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So three hours later He had carried the cross up to <st1:place w:st="on">Golgotha</st1:place> (with some help) and was crucified. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew, Mark, Luke, and Acts use Hebrew time for their reckoning. John uses Roman time. Another example of this is in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 18:28[/FONT][FONT=&quot] - early morning refers to the fourth Roman watch, which was <st1:metricconverter productid="3 a" w:st="on">3 a</st1:metricconverter>.m. to <st1:metricconverter productid="6 a" w:st="on">6 a</st1:metricconverter>.m. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]77[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The two thieves reviled Christ.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 27:44[/FONT][FONT=&quot] / [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 15:32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Only one of the thieves reviled Christ<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 23:39,40[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]77 Did both or only one of the thieves revile Jesus? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matt. 27:44 and Mark 15:32 say they both did. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke 23:39-40 says that the one rebuked the other for his blasphemy. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Probably at first they both did and then one of them repented, and, while the other was still reviling, rebuked him and asked the Lord to remember him. So he was saved. Luke doesn't say that the rebuking one had not at first been also reviling. It merely records a segment of the conversation. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Once again, we see another "contradiction" which presumes exhaustive accounts -MB) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]78[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Satan entered into Judas while at supper<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 13:27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Satan entered into him before the supper<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 22:3,4,7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]78 When did Satan enter Judas? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John 13:27 Right after eating the morsel offered to him by Jesus. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke 22:3,4,7 Satan also entered Judas before that. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It could be he kept entering Judas. Just like the evil spirit that kept coming upon King Saul. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Indeed, are we to believe that once Satan enters someone, he remains there for the rest of the natural life of a person?? -- MB) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]79[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Judas committed suicide by hanging<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 27:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Judas did not hang himself, but died another way<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 1:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matt 27:5 states that Judas "threw the pieces of silver....and he went away and hanged himself." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Acts 1:18 states, "and falling headlong, he burst open in the middle and all his bowels gushed out." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It's rather easy to reconcile these: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1. First, Judas tried to kill himself by hanging himself. And this is not always a successful way. Maybe he tried, and failed (as have many others who have tried to commit suicide by hanging). Then after some time, he threw himself off a cliff and fell upon some jagged rocks. Keep in mind that it is not uncommon for people who commit sucide to have tried it before. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2. Judas could have tied a rope to a tree branch that extended over a cliff (after all, you have to get some space between your feet and the ground to hang yourself). In this situation, the rope/branch could have broke before or after death, and Judas plummeted to the ground and landed on some jagged rocks. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Certainly, these explanations are plausible, thus a contradiction has not been established. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot](The following is a post to soc.religion.christian by Frank Decenso, dated Feb. 21, 1994) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One of my favorites. I dealt with it at length before and have a 60k file on it. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]My explanation for atheists and critics... <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]MAT 27:5-8 Then he threw down the pieces of silver in the temple and departed, and went and hanged himself. But the chief priests took the silver pieces and said, "It is not lawful to put them into the treasury, because they are the price of blood." And they consulted together and bought with them the potter's field, to bury strangers in. Therefore that field has been called the Field of Blood to this day. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]First of all, notice that the text does not say that Judas died as a result of hanging. All it says is that he "went and hanged himself." Luke however, in Acts, tells us that "and falling headlong, he burst open in the middle and all his entrails gushed out." This is a pretty clear indication (along with the other details given in Acts - Peter's speech, the need to pick a new apostle, etc.) that at least after Judas' fall, he was dead. So the whole concept that Matthew and Luke both recount Judas' death is highly probable, but not clear cut. Therefore, if I were to take a radical exegetical approach here, I could invalidate your alleged contradiction that there are two different accounts of how Judas died. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Notice verse 5..."Then he...went and hanged himself." Matthew does not say Judas died, does it? Should we assume he died as a result of the hanging? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What does Acts say? ACT 1:18 (Now this man purchased a field with the wages of iniquity; and falling headlong, he burst open in the middle and all his entrails gushed out. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]ACT 1:20 "For it is written in the book of Psalms: 'Let his dwelling place be desolate, And let no one live in it'; and, 'Let another take his office.' <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Here we may have a graphic explanation of Judas' death. Of course, maybe someone can find some medical source somewhere that discusses the possibility of one having their entrails gush out after being burst open in the middle, and still survive. :) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So, my line of reasoning to dispel the contradiction myth re:the "two" accounts of Judas' death is this...Matthew doesn't necessarily explain how Judas died; he does say Judas "hanged himself", but he didn't specifically say Judas died in the hanging incident. However, Acts seems to show us his graphic demise. Therefore, there is no contradiction between Matthew and Acts re: Judas' `death'. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We do know from Matthew that he did hang himself and Acts probably records his death. It is possible and plausible that he fell from the hanging and hit some rocks, thereby bursting open. However, Matthew did not say Judas died as a result of the hanging, did he? Most scholars believe he probably did, but...? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One atheist I debated along these lines said... >Greek word "apagchw"(ie: hang oneself) is translated as a successful hanging." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I replied, "No you can't only conclude this, although...this was a highly probable outcome. But Matthew does not state death as being a result. The Greek word is APAGCHO. Matthew 27:5 is it's only occurrence in the New Testament. In the LXX (the Greek translation of the OT used at the time of Jesus), it's only used in 2 Samuel 17:23 : `Now when Ahithophel saw that his advice was not followed, he saddled a donkey, and arose and went home to his house, to his city. Then he put his household in order, and hanged himself, and died; and he was buried in his father's tomb.' Notice that not only is it stated that Ahithophel "hanged himself" [Gr. Sept., APAGCHO], but it explicitly adds, "and died". Here we have no doubt of the result. In Matthew, we are not explicitly told Judas died. Also, there is nothing in the Greek to suggest success or failure. It simply means 'hang oneself'". <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Frank <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]80[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The potter's field was purchased by Judas<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 1:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The potter's field was purchased by the Chief Priests<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 27:6,7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Perhaps here, the following maxim holds - "He who does a thing by another, does it himself." That is, yes it was the chief priests who actually bought the field, but Judas had furnished the occasion for its purchase. Thus, the verse in Acts could be employing a figure of speech where we attribute to the man himself any act which he has directly or indirectly procured to be done. After all, we attribute the "<st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Clinton</st1:place></st1:city> health care plan" to Bill Clinton, when in reality, it is a plan devised by others associated with Bill Clinton.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]81[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. There was but one woman who came to the sepulchre<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Early on the first day of the week, while it was still dark, Mary Magdalene went to the tomb and saw that the stone had been removed from the entrance." [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 20:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There were two women who came to the sepulchre<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"After the Sabbath, at dawn on the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary went to the other tomb." [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 28:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is a case where a contradiction is read into the account. John does not report that ONLY Mary Magdalene went to the tomb. Failing to mention someone does not necessarily mean that no one else was present. In fact, had the critics read further, they would have seen that Mary was not alone: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"So she came running to Simon Peter and the other disciple, the one Jesus loved, and said, "They have taken the Lord out of the tomb, and we don't know where they put him!" [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 20:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If Mary was alone, then who is WE? Clearly more than one person went with Mary. John just doesn't mention them. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]82[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. There were three women who came to the sepulchre<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 16:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There were more than three women who came to the sepulchre<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 24:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Again, the same reasoning applies. See my previous story about going for a [/FONT][FONT=&quot]ride in the car[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. :) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]83[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. It was at sunrise when they came to the sepulchre<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Very early on the first day of the week, just after sunrise, they were on their way to the tomb."[[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 16:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It was some time before sunrise when they came.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Early on the first day of the week, while it was still dark, Mary Magdalene went to the tomb." [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 20:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I see no contradiction. Mary could have left a little earlier than the others. Or they could have left while it was still dark and the sun began to rise while they were on their way. I've worked my share of nightshifts to know that one can leave the job while it is still dark,and get home after the sun has risen! <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]84[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. There were two angels seen by the women at the sepulchre, and they were standing up.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 24:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There was but one angel seen, and he was sitting down.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 28:2,5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is quite possible that much of the confusion about these trivial facts stems from the fact that many women went to the tomb that morning ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 24:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). It's possible, at the very least, that a group of women came to the tomb, and saw that the stone had been rolled away. Some women went inside, but the more timid remained outside. Those inside saw the vision of the two angels, while those outside saw the angel on the stone. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Also, in response to the manner in which this supposed contradiction is presented, I would point out that a.) Matthew does not say there was "but one angel," he simply focuses on the angel who moved the stone; b.) the Greek word in Luke rendered "stood near" also means, "to come near, to appear to." In [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 12:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (KJV) it is translated as "came upon." Thus, Luke may simply have said that angels suddenly appeared to them without reference to posture. Strictly speaking, one would be hard pressed to establish a contradiction in terms of numbers or posture even without my possible explanation. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]85[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. There were two angels seen within the sepulchre.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 20:11,12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There was but one angel seen within the sepulchre<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 16:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]These are not the same incidents. John's account is particular to Mary after she followed Peter and John back to the tomb, which was later than the account cited in Mark. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Now, I myself once stumbled upon a "better" contradiction. When Mary runs back, she is scared and thinks that the body has been stolen. Then she returns to the tomb and weeps. Now isn't this odd given that she supposedly heard the angels say that "He is risen"? Why so much despair after that miraculous experience? It doesn't seem to add up. Of course it is possible that she had not fully comprehended what occurred, as one has to be careful in expecting people to respond coherently. But I think the answer is more clear if we consider John's account. John notes that she went to the tomb and saw that the stone had been removed from the entrance. "So she came running to Simon Peter and the other disciple, the one Jesus loved and said, "They have taken the Lord out of the tomb, and we don't know where they put him". ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 20:1-2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Then Peter and John ran to the tomb only to find the empty burial wrappings. Mary must then have followed them, but when she got there, they had gone, so she stood there crying, worried that the body of Jesus had been stolen. Then two angels appeared to her, and then the risen Jesus did. In short, the reason she was in despair is probably because she didn't go into the tomb with the other women. As they approached the tomb, they saw it open, and probably began to worry amongst themselves that grave robbers came and stole the body before they could anoint it. At this realization, Mary probably left the group and bolted back to tell the others. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]86[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Christ was to be three days and three nights in the grave<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 12:40[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christ was but two days and two nights in the grave<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 16:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]According to Haley, Orientals reckon any part of a day as a whole day. Thus, one whole and two parts of a day, along with two nights, would be popularly styled as "three days and three nights." Such usuage is seen elsewhere in Scripture. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]87[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Holy ghost bestowed at pentecost<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 1:5,8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Holy ghost bestowed before pentecost<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 20:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]87 Two aspects of the Spirit. In John 20:22 He was breathed into the disciples. In Acts 1:5,8 He was poured out upon them. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]That's like in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor. 12:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot], which says that we were baptized in one Spirit and also given to drink one Spirit. One is inward and the other is upon us outwardly. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I agree. It's certainly possible that in John, the disciples became indwelt with the Holy Spirit, and in Acts they became empowered by the Holy Spirit. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]88[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The disciples were commanded immediately after the resurrection to go into <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 28:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The disciples were commanded immediately after the resurrection to go tarry at <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 24:49[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]According to Haley: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The command tarry ye in <st1:city w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:city>," etc., means simply, "Make <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> your head-quarters. Do not leave it to begin your work, until ye be endued," etc. This injunction would not preclude a brief excursion to <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place>. Besides, the command may not have been given until after the visit to <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place>." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Indeed, keep in mind that Jesus appeared to the disciples several times over a period of many days. The Gospel's simple give us "snapshots" of some of these events and certainly Matthew's account is a brief synopsis. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]89[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Jesus first appeared to the eleven disciples in a room at <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 24:33-37[/FONT][FONT=&quot] / [/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 20:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus first appeared to the eleven on a mountain in <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 28:16,17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew's account does not say that this was Jesus' first appearance. It is certainly possible that Matthew simply passes over the earlier appearences and focuses on the call to go into <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place>. In fact, notice how Matthew's account is not exhaustive. In 28:16, he mentions that Jesus had indicated what mountain in <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place> the disciples were to go to, yet he does not mention this when he quotes Jesus in verse 10. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]90[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Christ ascended from <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Mount</st1:placetype> <st1:placename w:st="on">Olive</st1:placename></st1:place><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 1:9,12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christ ascended from <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Bethany</st1:place></st1:city><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 24:50,51[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]You know one is grasping when they cite the same author writing about the same thing as a contradiction. :) <st1:city w:st="on">Bethany</st1:city> is on the eastern slope of <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Mount</st1:placetype> <st1:placename w:st="on">Olivet</st1:placename></st1:place>. Anyone coming back from there and returning to <st1:city w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:city> would have to pass over the moutain, and thus return from <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Mount</st1:placetype> <st1:placename w:st="on">Olivet</st1:placename></st1:place>. You would think that someone who proposes a geographical contradiction would look at a map.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]91[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Paul's attendants heard the miraculous voice, and stood speechless<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 9:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Paul's attendants heard not the voice and were prostrate<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 26:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]ACTS 26:14 And when they had all fallen to the ground, I heard a voice saying to me... <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Acts 9:7- The men traveling with Saul stood there speechless; they heard the sound but did not see anyone. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While we are at it, let's add the other account... <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Acts 22:9- My companions saw the light, but they did not understand the voice of him who was speaking to me. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Obviously, according to the NIV translation, there is no contradiction, as you can hear a sound, but not the recognize it as the voice of one speaking. So is this translation justified? Sure. The original Greek makes a distinction between hearing a sound as a noise and hearing a voice as a thought-conveying message. Haley notes "The Greek "akouo", like our word "hear", has two distinct meanings, to perceive sound, and to understand". This distinction makes sense also in light of the context. Recall the differing levels of perception. While the men heard an unintelligible sound and saw a light, Paul heard the voice and saw the person speaking. In fact, this type of distinction occurs in another place: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Then a voice came from heaven, "I have glorified it, and will glorify it again". The crowd that was there and heard it said it had thundered; others said an angel had spoken to him" [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 12:28-29[/FONT][FONT=&quot]]. Here is a clear-cut example where a voice speaks, but is heard by some as an unintelligible sound. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As for the stance of Paul's companions, Haley notes "the word rendered 'stood' also means to be fixed, to be rooted to the spot. Hense, the sense may be, not that they stood erect, but that they were rendered motionless, or fixed to the spot, by overpowering fear". It is also entirely plausible that when they first saw the great light, they "hit the dirt", then they could have got up off the ground and stood there motionless. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The problem with the skeptic's approach is that it assumes these accounts are exhaustive, step by step, accounts where each detail is conveyed. They are not. It's not as if the author of Acts is saying "this is how it happened" three separate times. The author does this once, and the other two times he relays Paul speaking about it in two different contexts. Now given that the author wasn't on the road to <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Damascus</st1:place></st1:city>, and given that Paul was speaking from memory, and given that none of these are meant to be some exhaustive, detailed, point by point description, it is indeed wise to fit them all together. Furthermore, the account in Acts 26 relays a speech that Paul gave to King Agrippa which was only a synopsis. Acts 26 simply relays the manner in which Paul chose to convey his points. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]92[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Abraham departed to go into <st1:place w:st="on">Canaan</st1:place><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 12:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Abraham went not knowing where<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 11:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
 
Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

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text-indent:0cm; mso-bidi-font-family:"Times New Roman";} @list l32:level1 lfo49 {mso-level-start-at:0; mso-level-number-format:arabic; mso-level-numbering:continue; mso-level-text:""; mso-level-tab-stop:none; mso-level-number-position:left; margin-left:0cm; text-indent:0cm; mso-bidi-font-family:"Times New Roman";} @list l32:level2 lfo49 {mso-level-start-at:0; mso-level-number-format:arabic; mso-level-numbering:continue; mso-level-text:"%2\."; mso-level-tab-stop:none; mso-level-number-position:left; margin-left:0cm; text-indent:0cm; mso-bidi-font-family:"Times New Roman";} ol {margin-bottom:0cm;} ul {margin-bottom:0cm;} --> </style><!--[if gte mso 10]> <style> /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Tabla normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0cm 5.4pt 0cm 5.4pt; mso-para-margin:0cm; mso-para-margin-bottom:.0001pt; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:10.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]In [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 12:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot] God simply says to leave "your country...to the land I will show you." The teaching in Hebrews could simply mean that Abraham did not know where he was going in the sense of not knowing where this promised land was. Thus, he set out for <st1:place w:st="on">Canaan</st1:place>. And it was once he was in <st1:place w:st="on">Canaan</st1:place> that God showed him that this was the promised land ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 12:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Look at it this way. God appears to Bob and tells him to leave his home because He has a mission for Bob. So Bob packs up, and not knowing where/what the mission is, and stops at an old friends house for a few days. Then God appears to Bob and instructs him of a mission which involves his friend. Thus, in one sense Bob sets out to partake of a mission with his friend, but in another sense, he sets out to his friends house not knowing what/where the mission is. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]93[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Abraham had two sons<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gal 4:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Abraham had but one son<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 11:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]93 Abram had one genuine son of his wife Sarah who could be the fulfillment of God's promise regarding his seed. He had another son by the maidservant Hagar and several others later by a second wife, but in his heart Isaac was his only son. This is also why he cut off all the others from inheritance. Notice the wording of Heb. 11:17 indicates that even though he had other sons, yet to him it was as if he were offering up his only begotten to whom the promise was made. --MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Besides, does anyone really believe that the writer of Hebrews was unaware of some well-known teachings about Abraham or had not read Genesis? Also, the writer of Hebrews is obviously screening out stuff to focus on topics related to faith. Hagar's son was not the product of faith, and thus not worthy of mention in this context. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]94[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Keturah was Abraham's wife<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 25:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Keturah was Abraham's concubine<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Chron 1:32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]MaryAnna suggests that Keturah could have been Abraham's concubine who at some point became his wife. The point behind both verses is not about Keturah, but about her children. The author of Genesis may have been less exact and referred to these children as those of Abraham's wife (if Bob had a child with Jill before being married, then got married to Jill, we would refer to the child as being of Bob's wife), while the author of 1 Chron (who is busy being exact in documenting genealogies) may have been more exact and noted that such children were born while Keturah was still the concubine of Abraham. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]95[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Abraham begat a son when he was a hundred years old, by the interposition of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Providence</st1:place></st1:city><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 21:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot] / [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 11:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Abraham begat six children more after he was a hundred years old without any interposition of providence<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 25:1,2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]#95 The problem was not with Abraham's infertility but with Sarah's inability to conceive. This was remedied only once by divine intervention. Abraham had one son before and several after, not with Sarah, all without divine intervention.-- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I'd also add that there is no certain reason for believing the births described in Gen 25:1,2 came after the birth of Isaac. Abraham could have had these children with Keturah much earlier. Verses 1,2 could simply be saying that Keturah has reunited with Abraham after Sarah's death, and they became married. Then it lists the children that they had had earlier on (perhaps while living in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city>). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]96[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Jacob bought a sepulchre from Hamor<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Josh 24:32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Abraham bought it of Hamor<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 7:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One possible explanation is that Abraham bought the field, whereas Jacob went back and specifically bought the tomb. Compare with [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen. 23:10-20[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]33:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Josh. 24:32 and Acts 7:16 were based on those verses. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]97[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. God promised the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">land</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Canaan</st1:placename></st1:place> to Abraham and his seed forever<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 13:14-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot] / [/FONT][FONT=&quot]17:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Abraham and his seed never received the promised land<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 7:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot] / [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 11:9-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]97 Here is a partial answer. God gave the land to Abraham and his seed. We do see that the land was eventually possessed by the children of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> (Abraham's grandson). Yet, in Acts, God did not give Abraham (personally) an inheritance on the land. True. But Abraham died in faith, even though he had not obtained the title deed to the property to pass on to his children. But eventually his descendents did get the land. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]To answer this even further (not for the benefit of any skeptics but just because I can't resist pointing out that this point is much deeper than just who occupies the land) - we have to look at [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Galatians 3:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot] which tells us what the real blessing of Abraham is. Then the seed of Abraham is identified in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Galatians 3:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Hebrews 12:1-2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. This is what Hebrews means when it says they did not receive the promises, according to the context. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Yes, of course the land was the literal land and the seed was the literal descendents of Abraham and yes they did get their inheritance and now they are also on it again (part of it). At the same time, Galatians and Hebrews are also true. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]98[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Goliath was slain by Elhanan<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Sam 21:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] *note, was changed in translation to be correct. Orignal manuscript was incorrect. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The brother of Goliath was slain by Elhanan<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Chron 20:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As conceded, the verse in 2 Sam was probably due to a copyist's mistake. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]99[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Ahaziah began to reign in the twelfth year of Joram<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Kings 8:25[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Ahaziah began to reign in the eleventh year of Joram<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Kings 9:29[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Note that Ahaziah is the son of Joram. It's possible that on account of Joram's sickness [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Chron 21:18,19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] that Ahaziah became associated with him in the eleventh year of Joram's rule, but then began to rule alone by the twelth year. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]100. Michal had no child<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Sam 6:23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Michal had five children<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Sam 21:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In this case, I'll quote John Baskette's reply previously posted. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"What does 2 Sam. 21:8-9 say? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"But the king took the two sons of Rizpah the daughter of Aiah, whom she bare unto Saul, Armoni and Mephibosheth; and the five sons of Michal the daughter of Saul, whom she brought up for Adriel the son of Barzillai the Meholathite: And he delivered them into the hands of the Gibeonites, and they hanged them in the hill before the LORD: and they fell [all] seven together, and were put to death in the days of harvest, in the first [days], in the beginning of barley harvest." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This would appear to be a real contradiction except for the phrase "whom she brought up for Adriel the son of Barzillai." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The phrasing tells you that these sons are not Michal's in the normal sense of the term because she did not "bear" these children. I.e. these sons are adopted children." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]101. David was tempted by the Lord to number <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Sam 24:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]David was tempted by Satan to number the people<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Chron 21:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are three possible responses here: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1. Biblical writers often dismissed secondary causes and attributed all things that happened to God, since He is over all things. Thus, God is did not tempt David, He allowed Satan to influence him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2. Arthur Hervey believes 2 Sam 24:1 is better translated as, "For one moved David against them." In this case, the numbering of the people was the cause of God's anger, not the result. After all, without this interpretation, it is not clear why God was angry with <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]3. The verse in 1 Chron translated as "Satan" could also be translated as "adversary." Strictly speaking, in this situation, God was <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>'s adversary. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]102[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The number of fighting men of <st1:country-region w:st="on">Israel</st1:country-region> was 800,000; and of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Judah</st1:place></st1:country-region> 500,000<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Sam 24:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The number of fighting men of <st1:country-region w:st="on">Israel</st1:country-region> was 1,100,000; and of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Judah</st1:place></st1:country-region> 470,000<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Chron 21:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The account in 1 Chron twice speaks of "all the people" and "all <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>." The account in 2 Sam does not. Thus, it is possible that the account in 1 Chron is more inclusive, while 2 Sam only deals with the standing army. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]103[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. David sinned in numbering the people<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Sam 24:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]David never sinned, except in the matter of Uriah<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Kings 15:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In 1 Kings, it is important to note that David is being compared to Abijah. Thus, comparatively speaking, David did not fail to keep God's commands (yet, a comparative approach could not hide the sins associated with Uriah). Also note, that 1 Kings did not say that David "never sinned." It said that he did what was right in the eyes of God and had not failed to keep any of God's commands. If God commanded David to number the people, there is no contradiction, now is there? Or, one could say that given David's repentent heart, from God's perspective, he did not sin (see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Psalm 51:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]104[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. One of the penalties of David's sin was seven years of famine.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Sam 24:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It was not seven years, but three years of famine<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Chron 21:11,12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This could definitely be a copyist's error. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]105[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. David took seven hundred horsemen<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Sam 8:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]David took seven thousand horsemen<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Chron 18:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This could be another copyist's error. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]106[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. David bought a threshing floor for fifty sheckels of silver<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Sam 24:24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]David bought the threshing floor for six hundred shekels of gold<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Chron 21:25[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"So David paid Araunah six hundred shekels for the site." - 1 Chron <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"So David bought the threshing floor and oxen for 50 shekels." - 2 Sam <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It could be that David paid 50 shekels for the oxen, and the amount paid for the threshing floor is not indicated in 2 Sam. This is not implausible given that the account in 1 Chron speaks of the oxen, wood, and wheat, yet only mentions David paying for "the site." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]107[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. David's throne was to endure forever.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 89:35-37[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]David's throne was cast down<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 89:44[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The throne of the seed of David (referring to Christ) will indeed endure forever. Psalms 89:44 is poetry saying that David's throne was cast down.. indeed it never was, although it was threatened for a time by David's son Absalom. Poetry cannot always be taken literally; also, the promise in 2 Sam. 7 regarding the eternal throne is not referring to David. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]This is a poem, and as such, it is dangerous to take it too literally. The writer of the psalm is lamenting what he perceives as a time when God has abandoned His people (after spending most of the psalm recounting all of God's promises and great works). Did God truly abandon His people? No. But from this writer's perspective, he appeared to. Thus, this psalm captures and communicates the angst that is humanity's lot. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I think it silly to use a poem to establish a contradiction. For example, in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 139:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot], David says he is knit in his mother's womb. Two verses later, he says he's woven together in the depths of the earth. Is David so stupid that he contradicts himself in a span of two sentences? Or is the critic so "stupid" that he/she insists on precise and very literal meanings of words used in poetry? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]108[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Christ is equal with God<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 10:30[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Phil 2:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christ is not equal with God<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 14:28[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 24:36[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A few of the "contradictions" are based on a lack of understanding of the Trinity. This is one of them. In His person, Christ is equal with God essentially. Economically, for the accomplishment of His plan, Christ took on humanity, forsaking His equality with God temporarily in order to set a good pattern of submission and to pass through death for the redemption of man and the destruction of the devil and to bring His life to all men. Now He has been seated at the right hand of the majesty on high, with all things subjected under His feet.-- [/FONT][FONT=&quot]MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]I agree. These teachings involve a discussion of both the Trinity and the Incarnation (which is beyond the scope of this reply). Suffice it to say that it is quite possible that such doctrines could be true, thus these verses would be a case of both/and, rather than a contradiction. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]109[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Jesus was all-powerful<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 28:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 3:35[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus was not all-powerful<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 6:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matt. 28:18 is after the resurrection, after all power was given to Him by the Father. John 3:35 says that the Father has given all into His hand.. could be referring to all the believers, as in other verses in John... <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mark 6:5 shows us that Jesus was limited by man's unbelief. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is a recurring theme in the Bible, that although God is all-powerful, He chooses to limit Himself to man; that is, He chooses to wait for man's co-operation. This explains why the Bible calls His believers His fellow workers. God doesn't need man to work together with Him, yet this is His chosen means of operation. If this is how He chooses to work, this explains how He is all- powerful and yet "could not do many works of power there because of their unbelief." --MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]110[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The law was superseded by the Christian dispensation<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 16:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eph 2:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 7:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The law was not superseded by the Christian dispensation<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 5:17-19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke 16:16 tells us that the law and the prophets were until John. This is referring to the Old Testament, which indeed lasted until John. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Ephesians 2:15 tells us that Christ in His flesh on the cross abolished the law of the commandments in ordinances. This is not referring to the moral law, but the dietary regulations, the Sabbath, the feast days, and other practices which set the Jews apart from the Gentiles. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Rom. 7:6 says we have been delivered from the law. This is talking about the slavery to the law, i.e. trying to keep the law in our flesh rather than allowing the inner divine life to spontaneously be expressed in a daily walk that is much higher than that mandated by the law. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matt. 5:17-19 shows us that Christ did not destroy the moral law, but rather fulfilled it. He fulfilled it three ways: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](1) He kept the law Himself.
(2) He fulfilled the requirement of the death penalty for us.
(3) He uplifted the law by instituting the higher law
(meant to be kept not by human effort but by His life in the believers.) --MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]To this I would also add Paul's teaching in Galatians. That is, the law is a tutor which brings us to Christ. When a person comes to Christ, the purpose of the law has been fulfilled.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]111[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Christ's mission was peace<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 2:13,14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christ's mission was not peace<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 10:34[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke 2:14 says, "peace among men with whom he is pleased." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mt. 10:34 says, "I did not come to bring peace, but a sword." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The first verse could very well mean that peace exists among those with whom God is pleased, i.e., the fellowship of believers. Yet such believers are like a light among the darkness, and men prefer the darkness. Thus, the fellowship of believers, while full of peace, incurs the wrath of the nonbelievers. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One only need consider that in some nations Christians peacefully gather, yet are persecuted, to see how easy this "contradiction" is resolved. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]112[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Christ received not testimony from man<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 5:33,34[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christ did recieve testimony from man<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 15:27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I see it as follows: In John 5:34, Jesus claims that the witness he receives comes not from men. If we read Luke 1:76, we see that John is to be a prophet, one who speaks for God. Thus, John's witness, as a prophet, is really God's witness. In other words, Jesus is not rejecting John's witness; he is clarifying it. (Also, this verse is particular to the witness for Jesus early in his ministry.) These verse do not necessarily teach that Jesus does not recieve witness from men. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The verse in John 15 speaks of a different situation. This is after Jesus' crucifixion and the indwelling of the Spirit. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]113[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Christ's witness of himself is true.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 8:14-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christ's witness of himself is not true.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 5:31[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is a bogus "contradiction." Jesus is not saying His witness of Himself is untrue. He is pointing out that if He alone bore witness of Himself, it would be untrue. Since Jesus did not bear witness of Himself alone, His witness of Himself is not untrue. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]MaryAnna adds: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]113 Was Christ's witness of Himself true? John 8:18 and 14 is talking about the legal stipulation in the Old Testament that a person giving testimony for himself was not to believe unless he had at least one other witness. John 5:31 is talking about the verity of Christ as a witness. Of course, in the sense of verity, Christ's witness is indeed true. --MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]114[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Christ laid down his life for his friends<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 15:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 10:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christ laid down his life for his enemies<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 5:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Did Christ lay down His life for His friends or His enemies? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Both. The friends mentioned in John 15:13 and John 10:11 are His disciples. The enemies mentioned in Rom. 5:10 were all of us. He could easily die for both His enemies and His friends. This could be answered more completely, but even this simple answer shows that these two verses are not contradictory. --MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]115[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. It was lawful for the Jews to put Christ to death<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 19:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It was not lawful for the Jews to put Christ to death<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 18:31[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Was it lawful for the Jews to put Jesus to death? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]By Jewish law, as stated in the Old Testament, yes. (John 19:7). But by the law of the occupying Romans at the time of Jesus' walk on earth, it was expressly forbidden for the Jews to put anyone to death on their own without going through the proper Roman legal channels and using the Roman means of execution (John 18:31). --MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]116[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Children are punished for the sins of the parents<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 20:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Children are not punished for the sins of the parents<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 18:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Are children punished for the sins of the parents? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Exo. 20:5 tells us that God is to be feared, as He has the ability to visit the sins of the fathers on the children. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Ezek. 18:20 tells us this will not happen if the children repent and turn away from the ways of their fathers. Not a contradiction. --MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]117[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Man is justified by faith alone<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 3:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gal 2:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gal 3:11,12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 4:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Man is not justified by faith alone<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]James 2:21,24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 2:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Romans 3:20 man is justified by faith, and not works of law.
Gal. 2:16 same.
Gal. 3:11, 12
<st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Rom.</st1:place></st1:country-region> 4:2 <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If we want to be justified, we have to receive the divine life. Otherwise, no matter how many good works we do, we can never be justified in the sight of God. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]However, after we receive the divine life of God, this will issue in a kind of living which will manifest our justification. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]James 2:21, 24; Rom. 2:13. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]James is making the point that faith without works is dead. Certainly it is a dead faith if it has no effect on our living. The living is the evidence that our faith is effective and that we have indeed been justified. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Romans is talking about the law and says that the doers of the law shall be justified.. in the context he is making the point that no one can be justified by works without faith because it is impossible to keep the law. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]I agree. It's not that works are necessary additions to faith. Instead, it's that a living faith gives rise to good works. Thus, we have another both/and situation. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It's interesting that the Bible protrays our relationship to God as a marriage. A loving marriage is one in which both faith and acts converge toward the same end. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]118[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. It is impossible to fall from grace<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 10:28[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 8:38,39[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is possible to fall from grace<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 18:24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 6:4-6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Pet 2:20,21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John 10:28 says the believers shall by no means perish forever. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Romans 8:38, 39 say nothing can separate us from the love of God. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So these two verses tell us we don't have to worry about our eternal destiny. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Ezek. 18:24 is an Old Testament verse. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hebrews 6:4-6 tells us salvation is once for all and cannot be renewed. If we fall away, we have only to repent and turn back to the Lord; it is not necessary to be saved all over again. Also, the sacrifices of the Old Testament time are no longer valid and are actually an insult to the Lord who died for us. (Some Christians mistakenly use these verses to say that if you are saved you can lose your salvation and never get it back.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2 Pet. 2:20-21- The last state is worse than the first.. Some believers "fall away from grace" in this age and suffer for it. This doesn't mean that their eternal destiny changes. They will still be with the Lord for eternity, but they will suffer first and be more miserable than before they believed in the Lord. This suffering is only temporary. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]MaryAnna's explanations might provoke disagreement amongst some Christians (not me though), but recall that in the context of this reply, it only need be possible that she is correct. If she is, the contradictions are easily resolved. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]119[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. No man is without sin<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Kings 8:46[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 20:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eccl 7:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 3:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christians are sinless<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 John 3:6-9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Of course no man is without sin, in himself. 1 John 3:6-9 does not say that Christians are without sin. It says that everything that has been begotten of God does not practice sin. The word "practice sin" refers to a habitual life of sin. It does not mean that Christians never do anything sinful. A believer who truly has an inner knowing of the Lord will not have the practice of habitual sin in his living. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]120[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. There is to be a resurrection of the dead<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 15:52[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rev 20:12,13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 20:37[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 15:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There is to be no resurrection of the dead<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Job 7:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eccl 9:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is 26:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Job 7:9-10; Eccl. 9:5; Is. 26:14
In this life we have nothing to fear from the dead; they will not come back to resume their former lives as if they had not died. They will stay resting in their graves, silent and unable to do anything further to affect their eternal destiny. They have no power to rise again. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1 Cor. 15:52; Rev. 20:12-13; Luke 20:37; 1 Cor. 15:16
Of course, at the Lord's return there will be a resurrection of all the dead to judgment. Then some of them will pass on to eternal fire and others will receive a reward. This is not to resume their former lives. Hence this is not a contradiction. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Another way of saying it is as follows: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The verses in Isaiah may be teaching that the dead do not normally rise. That is, they don't rise in of themselves, but they will be raised at a later date. Also, there is a definite comparative theme - where the dead are forgotten, God is never forgotten. The verses in Eccl and Job also have a temporal/worldly perspective. That is, while the living experience rewards, know things about each other, and are remembered by each other, this is not the case with the dead. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One could also resolve these by claiming as a possibility that the dead "sleep" until they are raised. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]121[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Reward and punishment to be bestowed in this world<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 11:31[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Reward and punishment to be bestowed in the next world<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rev 20:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 16:27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Cor 5:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There's a simple explantion here. Rewards and punishments are bestowed both here and in the hereafter. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]122[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Annihilation the portion of all mankind <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Job 3: 11,13-17,19-22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eccl 9:5,10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eccl 3:19,20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Endless misery the portion of all mankind <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 25:46[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rev 20:10,15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rev 14:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dan 12:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Is mankind annihilated or eternally miserable? Job 3:11-22, Eccl. 9:5,10; 3:19-20 These verses refer to the rest before judgment. Ecclesiastes 3 tells us all is vanity because just as animals die men die too. Job 3 tells us he wishes he were dead so he wouldn't feel pain. Ecclesiastes 9 says do what you can in this life because you won't be able to do much when you are in the grave. None of this is talking about annihilation. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matt. 25:46; Rev. 20:10,15; 14:11; all these verses tell us that of course after a period of waiting in the grave there will be a judgment and some will go to the lake of fire for eternity. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Daniel 12:2 ties the whole thing together. --MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]123[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The Earth is to be destroyed <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Pet 3:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 1:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rev 20:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Earth is never to be destroyed <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 104:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eccl 1:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Will the earth be destroyed? In a sense, yes. Everything on the earth will be destroyed. 2 Pet. 3:10; Heb. 1:11; Rev. 20:11 all confirm this. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]On the other hand, the earth with its foundations will remain to the age. Keep in mind also that Psa. 104:5 and Eccl. 1:4 are both poetry. Ecclesiastes in context is telling us of the temporal life of man more than making a statement about the permanence of the earth. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Not contradictory, since one is talking about the surface of the earth and the other is talking about its foundations. -- MAW <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]124[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. No evil shall happen to the godly <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 12:21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Pet 3:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Evil does happen to the godly <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 12:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Job 2:3,7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The teachings in Prov and 1 Pet could very well mean that no permanent or ultimate evil will befall the godly. Jesus' teaching about fearing those who can harm the soul rather than the body come to mind. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Also, one could view these teachings as general rules. Prov 26:4,5 taught us that a particular proverb might not always apply in every situation. As such, it is indeed true that the righteous are generally more immune to harm than the unrighteous. They are less likely to die while driving drunk, less likely to die of a fatal disease which is sexually transmitted, less likely to die of drug overdoses, less likely to be murdered in a crack house or beaten by a pimp, etc. And Peter points out that it's unlikely your will be harmed by being good to someone (verse 14 clearly implies verse 13 is a general rule). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]125[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Worldly good and prosperity are the lot of the godly <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 12:21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 37:28,32,33,37[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 1:1,3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 39:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Job 42:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Worldly misery and destitution the lot of the godly <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 11:37,38[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rev 7:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Tim 3:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 21:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Here the critic is concocting contradictions. None of the latter four verses teach that "worldly misery and destitution is the lot of the godly." Let's look at them: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Heb 11 - these verses speak only of the experiences of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>'s prophets, not of all the godly. They are not intended as a general principle. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Rev 7 - this verse is specific to the events surrounding the great tribulation. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2 Tim - here Paul teaches that those in Christ Jesus can expect persecution. Obviously, this cannot be compared to OT teachings since Jesus did not yet come. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke 21 - Jesus uses hyperbole to make the same point that Paul does. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Strictly speaking, these verses do no say what the critic purports, thus no contradiction. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Personally, however, I think the principle of Prov 26:4,5 applies. That is, worldly prosperity and good are the lot of some of the godly, while persecuction is the lot of others. The former Christians are the "silent witness," as they enable the Church to feed the hungry, clothe the naked, give shelter to the homeless, etc. The latter Christians are more like the prophets in that they serve as a social conscience, and thus get persecuted. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]126[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Worldly prosperity a reward of righteousness and a blessing <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 10:29,30[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 37:25[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 112:1,3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Job 22:23,24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 15:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Worldly prosperity a curse and a bar to future reward <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 6:20,24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 6:19,21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 16:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 19:24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 6:24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Job 22 does not teach that riches are a blessing! It is Eliphaz's teaching that Job ought to cast away his desire for riches to find God. Eliphaz was under the impression that Job wanted to reacquire prosperity, but this was probably not true <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Psalm 37:5 could be a poetical expression praising God for feeding and caring for His people. It has nothing to do with properity (unless one thinks that one is prosperous if they don't have to beg for food). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Psalm 112 is a poetical expression and Prov 15 is a rule of thumb which do indeed seem to teach that wealth is a blessing bestowed upon the righteous. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mark 10 says nothing about worldly prosperity. It is a hyperbole in line with the teaching that one must lose their life to gain it. That is, whatever you give up, you will regain more of, once in the fellowship of the Lord. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The verses in Luke 6 are hyperbolic teachings which convey a sense of righting wrongs and comforting. It would be irrational to take them too literally, as it would mean that all Americans (including Christians) would hunger in the age to come and that anyone of good humor would be crying in the age to come. Instead, it is quite possible (in light of all of Jesus' teachings) that Jesus is not condemning riches, full bellies, and laughter per se. He is instead providing balance. He offers comfort to those who are lacking, and warns those who are not (so that they don't trust in what they have rather than trusting in the Lord). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Whenever one cites a teaching of Jesus, they are obligated to consider it's meaning in the context of ALL of Jesus' teaching. And Jesus is not interested in outward expressions (eating, riches, an environment where good humor is possible) as much as he cares about the person's perceptions and reactions to there state of being. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mat 6 seems to help us here. Jesus does not condemn riches, He condemns riches which are perceived as "treasures." There is a difference between one who is rich, yet willingly uses those riches to help others and serve the Kingdom, and one who is rich yet who hoards his money. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 19 further supports this distinction as the rich man was unwilling to part with his money. For him, his riches were his treasure. This verse is simply a hyperbole pointing out that it is more difficult for one who is rich to become a Christian (this is probably a function of the fact that riches enable one to be more autonomous). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The teachings in Luke 16 are a parable conveying the same teaching as in Luke 6. Here is a rich man who did not place his riches under the Lordship of Christ. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are no true contradictions here. Put simply, one's riches must be under the Lordship of Christ. If they are, they are indeed a blessing. Not only to the person in question, but to the community she belongs to. If the riches are not under the Lordship of Christ, they are a curse, in that they tend to keep one from crying out to God. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Or one could cite Paul to clear up all these teachings, and note that it is not money which is the problem, it is the love of money which is the problem. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]127[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The Christian yoke is easy <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 11:28-30[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Christian yoke is not easy <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 16:33[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Tim 3:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 12:6,8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is not the Lord who causes difficulties for his children! The Lord does not make difficult serving him, but certainly (as stated later) the unbelieving world often causes us physical hardship. The last verse refers to chastening of God, which the Christian does not consider the uneasy yoke; God is the loving chastener, not the hating master. -- RS <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]128[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The fruit of God's spirit is love and gentleness <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gal 5:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The fruit of God's spirit is vengance and fury <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Judg 15:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Sam 18:10,11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]These are different situations and times. God made great warriors do great deeds for <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>'s sake in days of hardness; the coming of Jesus heralded a time where God's new chosen would be called towards a temperance that still came from God. --RS <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]I'd also note that while Gal does teach that the fruit of the Spirit includes love and gentleness in men, the OT teachings says nothing about the FRUIT of the Spirit. In Judges, the Spirit empowered Samson to carry out judgment. In 1 Sam, we are not even dealing with God's spirit. Instead, it's an evil spirit which God allowed to come upon Saul. (Don't these critics read the verses they use to purport contradictions?) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]129[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Longevity enjoyed by the wicked <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Job 21:7,8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 17:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eccl 8:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is 65:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Longevity denied to the wicked <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eccl 8:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 55:23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 10:27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Job 36:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eccl 7:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In Job 21, Job is replying to the generalizations brought up by Zophar. However, he considers these as exceptions, as is evident from Job 21:17-18. Thus, Job 21 teaches there are exceptions to the general observation. Ps 17:14 says nothing about longevity. Eccl 8 is a hypothetical situation used to assert that things go better for God fearing men. Is 65 speaks of a future age and is not applicable in this setting of verses. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]None of these verses teach, as a general rule, that the wicked enjoy longevity. For that matter, the latter set really don't teach that longevity is "denied" to the wicked. They simply note that the wicked often die young. No contradictions here. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]130[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Poverty a blessing<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 6:20,24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]James 2:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Riches a blessing<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 10:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Job 22:23,24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Job 42:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Neither poverty nor riches a blessing<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 30:8,9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Most of these are answered in reply to [/FONT][FONT=&quot]#125[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. In fact, Proverbs 30:8,9 nicely sums up my reply to [/FONT][FONT=&quot]#125[/FONT][FONT=&quot], in that it shows both the blessings and curses associated with riches. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]131[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Wisdom a source of enjoyment <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 3:13,17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Wisdom a source of vexation, grief and sorrow <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eccl 1:17,18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]My understanding of these apparent opposites is that both are true, and indeed, they can be. Wisdom brings the benefits of deeper understanding, but the burden of such an understanding can be terrible at times, too. --RS <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Indeed, this could easily be a both/and situation. For example, wisdom causes me to rejoice in the plan of God. But it also causes me sorrow in knowing that not all will partake of that plan. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<st1:metricconverter productid="132. A" w:st="on">[FONT=&quot]132[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. A[/FONT]</st1:metricconverter>[FONT=&quot] good name is a blessing <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eccl 7:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 22:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A good name is a curse <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 6:26[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Naturally, it's obvious that Luke 6:26 says no such thing. It does, however, warn against the complacency of popularity and vanity. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Wise words. -- RS <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]When the world speaks well of Christians, it is probably because those Christians do not disturb the world, and in fact, may be because they have worldly values. In this case, such Christians would do well to heed Jesus' warning. Luke 6 says nothing about a "good name." Furthermore, since the OT verses do not deal with the added dimension of the Church being in the world, they simply cannot be compared. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]133[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Laughter commended <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eccl 3:1,4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eccl 8:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Laughter condemned <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 6:25[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eccl 7:3,4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke 6 is answered in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]#126[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. As for the rest, Eccl 3:4 resolves the whole thing - "there is....a time to weep and a time to laugh." Laughing at one's suffering is not a time to laugh, thus would be condemned. Laughing during a time of celebration would obviously not be condemned. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]134[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The rod of correction a remedy for foolishness <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 22:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There is no remedy for foolishness <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 27:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The former regards children who don't know better by their nature until instructed and diverted from foolishness. The latter refers to someone who has grown up into the permanent foolishness. Context is all. --RS <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<st1:metricconverter productid="135. A" w:st="on">[FONT=&quot]135[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. A[/FONT]</st1:metricconverter>[FONT=&quot] fool should be answered according to his folly <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 26:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A fool should not be answered according to his folly <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 26:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The first thing to note is that these seemingly contradictory teachings are right next to each other. Could the writer of Proverbs be so stupid as to not notice this?! I hardly think so. In fact, I think it is very illuminating that these teachings are closely tied. They highlight the fact that Biblical admonitions need not fall under the "either/or" criteria, but can be more properly understood in term of "both/and." In fact, I have often found these two teachings from Proverbs quite useful. In debating various nonchristians, I often encounter foolish responses and name-calling. I can either choose not to respond or ignore the foolishness and get to the point of contention. At such times, I follow Proverbs 26:4. In other instances, I mirror the foolishness of my antagonist in the hopes that he/she can perceive the folly of their approach when I employ it. At such times, I follow Proverbs 26:5. The key is knowing when to use which approach, and in such instances, I try to allow the Spirit to guide me. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]136[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Temptation to be desired <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]James 1:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Temptation not to be desired <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 6:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Twisted wording, mostly. Jesus tells us to pray that the Lord move usto resist temptation. James says that once you know to let the Lordhelp you resist temptation, rejoice that your faith is honed by the experiences of his divine aid. -- RS <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]I'd also add that James 1:2 does not say that temptations are to be desired. It says that we should rejoice that in our trials because they help to mature our faith. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Consider this strained analogy. Anyone who works out at the gym knows that a good workout results in pain. But one does not seek out the pain. One does not ask for it. In fact, one could ask to be led away from pain, in general. Yet, when one works out physically or spiritually, pain/trials follow. Yet the pain/trials shoud not discourage you. In fact, they are a sign that you are growing. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]137[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Prophecy is sure <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Pet 1:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Prophecy is not sure <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 18:7-10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Apples and oranges. Peter wrote about prophecy that had already been fulfilled. Jeremiah's verse is about prophecy of things yet to be done. That is, it is a conditional prophecy designed to induce repentance. -- RS <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]138[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Man's life was to be one hundred and twenty years <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 6:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 90:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Man's life is but seventy years <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 90:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In Gen 6:3, God prescribes a 120 year lifespan just prior to the Flood. Psalm 90:10 does not say the lifespan is 120. It's a poetical reference to us living 70 years, 80 if we are strong. (According to the NIV notes, Hebrew poetic convention called for 80 to follow <st1:metricconverter productid="70 in" w:st="on">70 in</st1:metricconverter> parallel construction). Genesis 6 could be setting an upper limit, or given the context, it could be just one way of saying that man is mortal. Psalm 90 is an observation fitted into a poetical account of our fleeting existence. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]139[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The fear of man was to be upon every beast <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 9:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The fear of man is not upon the lion <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Prov 30:30[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Prov 30:30 - "The lion which is mighty among beasts and does not retreat before any" could mean "any other beast." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]140[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Miracles a proof of divine mission <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matt 11:2-5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 3:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 14:31[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Miracles not a proof of divine mission <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 7:10-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deut 13:1-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 11:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is a very confusing claim of contradictions. Taking the latter set of verses one by one: The first involves the Pharaoh's magicians doing a trick which Aaron, acting for the Lord, totally defeated. These verses say nothing about miracles not being a proof of divine mission, instead, the true miracle (from God) swallowed up the tricks of the magicians. The second is a commandment against abandoning God for other gods because of such tricks - something Jesus and Moses certainly never called for. The third verse is apparently taken out of context; in it, Jesus says that it makes no sense to claim he casts out demons in the devil's name. None of this can be construed as contradictory to the purpose of God's miracles. -- RS <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]141[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Moses was a very meek man <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 12:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Moses was a very cruel man <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 31:15,17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The latter of these is a judgment call, but at any rate, taking the point, it obviously involves assuming that to be noncontradictory, Moses, and everyone else, would have to be exactly the same from early to late in their lives and experiences. Such assumptions are unreasonable. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]142[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Elijah went up to heaven <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Kings 2:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]None but Christ ever ascended into heaven <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 3:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Here one has to read John 3:13 in context. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"If I told you earthly things and you do not believe, how shall you believe if I tell you heavenly things? And no one has ascended into heaven, but he who descended from heaven, even the Son of Man." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Haley notes: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Jesus, setting forth his own superior authority, says, substantially, "No human being can speak from personal knowledge, as I do, who came from heaven." " No man hath ascended up to heaven to bring back tidings." So we, speaking of the secrets of the future world, should very naturally say: "No man has been there to tell us about them." In saying this, we do not deny that any one has actually entered the eternal world, but merely that any one has gone thither, and returned to unfold its mystery." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Haley's interpretation of the whole point is entirely possible. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]143[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. All scripture is inspired <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Tim 3:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Some scripture is not inspired <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 7:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 7:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]/ [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Cor 11:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is a case of overinterpretation. Paul does not say that what he writes is not inspired by God; merely that the Lord has not commanded what Paul says. Paul was almost certainly inspired by God in each word he spoke following his conversion-- RS <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]I'd also note that in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 7:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot], Paul could be citing an actual tradition from Jesus' earthly ministry, while in verse 12 he is not. Thus, he is not saying the teaching is not inspired from God, only that it didn't stem from the teachings of Jesus when He was on earth. 2 Cor could merely mean that Paul was not speaking as Jesus would when He was on earth. But this doesn't mean that the Spirit is not speaking through him.
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[FONT=&quot]By: Jay Smith, Alex Chowdhry, Toby Jepson, James Schaeffer[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]"The first to present his case seems right, till another comes forward and questions him." [/FONT][FONT=&quot](Proverbs 18:17)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]The Charge of Contradiction[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Muslims talk often about the many contradictions in the Bible. The number of contradictions vary depending on whom you are talking to. Kairanvi's Izhar-ul-Haq presents 119 numbered contradictions, while others such as Shabbir Ally have supposedly found 101 contradictions. The problem as they see it concerns their supposition that any religious book claiming absolute divine authority must not include any contradictions, as a message emanating from an Omniscient being must be consistent with itself. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Muslims quote from the Qur'an (4:82) which says "do they not consider the Qur'an (with care). Had it been from any other than Allah, they would have found there-in many a discrepancy."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A Definition of Revelation:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In order to respond to this challenge it is important that we begin by recognizing and understanding clearly the presupposition and thinking that underlies such a challenge. The principle of non-contradiction has been elevated to the status of an absolute criterion, capable of being applied by human beings in judging the authenticity of God's word. This is not a proposition to which Christians can or should give assent. The Christian will gladly admit that scripture is ultimately non-self-contradictory. But the Christian cannot agree that the principle of non-contradiction is given to men as a criterion by which they are to judge God's word. It is this criterion which the Muslims have imposed upon the discussion of revelation.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is a mistake which many of us fall into; measuring that which is unfamiliar to us by a standard which is more familiar; in this case measuring the Bible with the standard which they have borrowed from the Qur'an. Their book, the Qur'an, is believed to have been 'sent down' (Nazil or Tanzil), from heaven unfettered by the hands of men. It is this belief in scripture as a revelation which has been 'sent down' which they then impose upon the Bible as well. But it is wrong for Muslims to assume that the Bible can be measured using the same criteria as that imposed on the Qur'an. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Bible is not simply one book compiled by one man as the Muslims claim for their Qur'an, but a compilation of 66 books, written by more than 40 authors, over a period of 1500 years! For that reason Christians have always maintained that the entire Bible shows the imprint of human hands. Evidence of this can be found in the variety of human languages used, the varying styles of writing, the differences in the author's intellects and temperaments, as well as the apparent allusions to the author's contemporary concepts of scientific knowledge, without which the scriptures would not have been understood by the people of that time. That does not mean, however, that the Bible is not authoritative, for each of the writers received their revelation by means of inspiration.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A Definition of Inspiration:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In 2 Timothy 3:16, we are told that all Scripture is inspired. The word used for inspiration is theopneustos which means "God-breathed," implying that what was written had its origin in God Himself. In 2 Peter 1:21 we read that the writers were "carried along" by God. Thus, God used each writer, including his personality to accomplish a divinely authoritative work, for God cannot inspire error.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Bible speaks many times of its inspiration: In Luke 24:27,44; John 5:39; and Hebrews 10:7, Jesus says that what was written about him in the Old Testament would come to pass. Romans 3:2 and Hebrews 5:12 refer to the Old Testament as the Word of God. We read in 1 Corinthians 2:13, "This is what we speak, not in words taught us by human wisdom but in words taught by the Spirit." This is corroborated in 2 Timothy 3:16, as we saw above. In 1 Thessalonians 2:13, Paul when referring to that which he had written says, "...you accepted it not as the word of men, but as it actually is, the Word of God..." Peter speaks of the inspiration of Paul's writings in 2 Peter 3:15-16, where he maintains that, "...Paul also wrote to you with the wisdom that God gave him. He writes the same way in all his letters..." Earlier, in 2 Peter 1:21 Peter writes, "For prophecy never had its origin in the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along [moved] by the Holy Spirit." And then finally in Revelation 22:18,19 the writer John, referring to the book of Revelation states, "...if anyone adds anything to them, God will add to him the plagues described in this book. And if anyone takes words away from this book of prophecy, God will take away from him his share in the tree of life..."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Charles Wesley summarizes this high view of inspiration brilliantly when he says, "The Bible must be the invention either of good men or angels, bad men or devils, or of God. However, it was not written by good men, because good men would not tell lies by saying 'Thus saith the Lord;' it was not written by bad men because they would not write about doing good duty, while condemning sin, and themselves to hell; thus, it must be written by divine inspiration" (McDowell 1990:178).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How does God inspire the writers? Does He simply move the writers by challenging their heart to reach new heights, much like we find in the works of Shakespeare, Milton, Homer and Dickens, all of which are human literary masterpieces? Or does that which He inspire contain the words of God-along with myths, mistakes and legends, thus creating a book in which portions of the Word of God can be found, along with those of finite and fallible men? Or are the scriptures the infallible Word of God in their entirety? In other words, how, Muslims will ask, is this inspiration carried out? Does God use mechanical dictation, similar to that which we find claimed for the Qur'an, or does He use the writers own minds and experiences?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The simple answer is that God's control was always with them in their writings, such that the Bible is nothing more than "The Word of God in the words of men" (McDowell 1990:176). This means that God utilized the culture and conventions of his penman's milieu, a milieu that God controls in His sovereign providence. Thus history must be treated as history, poetry as poetry, hyperbole and metaphor as hyperbole and metaphor, generalization and approximation as what they are, and so forth. Differences between literary conventions in Bible times and in ours must also be observed: Since, for instance, nonchronological narration and imprecise citation were conventional and acceptable and violated no expectations in those days, we must not regard these things as faults when we find them in Bible writers. When total precision of a particular kind was not expected nor aimed at, it is no error not to have achieved it. Scripture is inerrant, not in the sense of being absolutely precise by modern standards, but in the sense of making good its claims and achieving that measure of focused truth at which its authors aimed.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The truthfulness of Scripture is not negated by the appearance in it of irregularities of grammar or spelling, phenomenal descriptions of nature, reports of false statements (for example, the lies of Satan), or seeming discrepancies between one passage and another. It is not right to set the so-called 'phenomena' of Scripture against the teaching of Scripture about itself. Apparent inconsistencies should not be ignored. Solution of them, where this can be convincingly achieved (as we have attempted in this paper), will encourage our faith. However, where for the present no convincing solution is at hand we shall significantly honor God by trusting His assurance that His Word is true, despite these appearances, and by maintaining our confidence that one day they will be seen to have been illusions.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is not a blind hope. For instance, a century ago there were about 100 parts of the body whose function were mysterious to doctors, and people would say "This is proof of evolution as these are left over parts which we don't need anymore". However, because of on-going and diligent research we are now left with only one organ in the body which appears to be redundant. In time, perhaps we will find a use for that organ as well. This principle can also be[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]seen with the Bible. So many 'discrepancies' have also been cleared up due to greater research and understanding. Had Shabbir been around a century or even 25 years ago his list could easily have been 1001 contradictions. As new data is uncovered, we are continually finding answers to many of the historical mysteries. Therefore we have every reason to believe that, in God's time, the rest will be solved as well.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We are fully aware that the Christian criteria for revelation is not acceptable to Muslims, as it is in seeming conflict with their own. Yet, by simply measuring the Bible against the nazil or Tanzil ('sent down') concept which they claim for their Qur'an, Muslims condemn themselves of duplicity, since they demand of the New Testament that which they do not demand of the previous revelations, the Taurat and Zabuur, though both are revered as equally inspired revelations by all Muslims. Muslims believe that Moses wrote the Taurat and David the Zabuur. However, neither claimed to have received their revelations by a means of a nazil ('sent down') transmission. So why insist on such for the New Testament, especially since the document makes no such claim itself?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The underlying reason perhaps lies in the belief by Muslims that the Qur'an, because it is the only revelation which came "unfettered" by human intervention, is thus the truest and clearest statement of Allah's word, and therefore supersedes all previous revelations, even annulling those revelations, as they have supposedly been corrupted by the limitations of their human authors.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Left unsaid is the glaring irony that the claim for a nazil revelation for the Qur'an comes from one source alone, the man to which it was supposedly revealed, Muhammad. Yet there are no external witnesses both before or at the time who can corroborate Muhammad's testimony. Not even miracles are provided to substantiate his claims, nor are there any known documents of such a Qur'an from the century in which it is claimed to have been revealed (see the paper on the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]historicity of the Qur'an versus the Bible[/FONT][FONT=&quot].)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Even if we were to disregard the historical problems for early Qur'ans, a further problem concerns the numerous Muslim traditions which speak of the many differing copies of Qur'anic codices which were prevalent during the collating of the Uthmanic recension of the Qur'an [/FONT]
 
Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

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mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]in the mid-seventh century, and that the conflicting copies were all destroyed, so that we cannot know today whether the Qur'an in our possession was even similar to that which was first revealed.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What Muslims must understand is that Christians have always maintained that the Word of God, the Bible, was indeed written by men, but that these men were always under the direct inspiration of the Holy Spirit (2 Peter 1:20-21).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Whereas the Qur'an is alleged to be free of any human element, God in the Bible deliberately chose to reveal His Word through individuals who were inspired prophets and apostles, so that His Word would not only be conveyed to humanity correctly, and comprehensively but would be communicated to their understanding and powers of comprehension as well. This the Qur'an cannot do if it has no human element, as is generally alleged.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are other problems with the contention maintained by Muslims that the Bible is full of contradictions. For instance, what then will Muslims do with the authority which their own Qur'an gives towards the Bible?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Qur'an gives authority to the Bible:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Qur'an, itself, the highest authority for all Muslims, gives authority to the Bible, assuming its authenticity at least up to the seventh-ninth Centuries. Consider the following Suras:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Sura Baqara 2:136 points out that there is no difference between the scriptures which preceded and those of the Qur'an, saying, "...the revelation given to us...and Jesus...we make no difference between one and another of them." Sura Al-I-Imran 3:2-3 continues, "Allah...He sent down the Law (of Moses) and the Gospel (of Jesus)...as a guide to mankind." Sura Nisaa 4:136 carries this farther by admonishing the Muslims to, "...Believe...and the scripture which He sent before him." In Sura Ma-ida 5:47,49,50,52 we find a direct call to Christians to believe in their scriptures: "...We sent Jesus, the son of Mary, confirming the Law that had come before him. We sent him the Gospel... Let the people of the Gospel judge by what Allah hath revealed therein, if any do fail to judge by the light of what Allah hath revealed, they are (no better than) those who rebel..." Again, in Sura Ma-ida 5:68 we find a similar call: "People of the Book!...Stand fast by the law, the Gospel, and all revelation that hath come to you from YOUR LORD. It is the revelation that has come to thee from THY LORD."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]To embolden this idea of the New and Old Testament's authority we find in Sura 10:94 that Muslims are advised to confer with these scriptures if in doubt about their own, saying: "If thou wert in doubt as to what We have revealed unto thee, then ask those who have been reading the Book from before thee. The truth had indeed come to thee from thy Lord." And as if to emphasize this point the advice is repeated in Sura 21:7, stating, "...the apostles We sent were but men, to whom We granted inspiration. If ye realize this not, Ask of those who possess the message."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Finally, in Sura Ankabut 29:46 Muslims are asked not to question the authority of the scriptures of the Christians, saying, "And dispute ye not with the people of the book but say: We believe in the revelation which has come down to us and that which came down to you."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If there is anything in these Suras which is clear, it is that the Qur'an emphatically endorses the Torah and the Gospel as authentic and authoritative revelations from God. This coincides with what Christians believe, as well.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In fact, nowhere is there any warning in the Qur'an that the former scriptures had been corrupted, nor that they were contradictory. If the Qur'an was indeed the final and complete revelation, if it was the seal of all former revelations the Muslims claim, than certainly the author of the Qur'an would have included a warning against that which had been corrupted in the earlier scriptures. But nowhere do we find even a hint that the Bible was contradictory, or indeed that it was corrupted.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are some Muslims, however, who contend that according to sura 2:140 the Jews and Christians had corrupted their scriptures. This aya says (referring to the Jews), "...who is more unjust than those who conceal the testimony they have from Allah...?" Yet, nowhere does this aya state that the Jews and Christians corrupted their scriptures. It merely mentions that certain Jews have concealed "the testimony they have from Allah." In other words the testimony is still there (thus the reason the afore-mentioned suras admonish Muslims to respect the former scriptures), though the adherents of that testimony have chosen to conceal it. If anything this aya is a ringing endorsement to the credibility of those former scriptures, as it assumes a testimony from Allah does exist amongst the Jewish community.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God does not change His Word[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Furthermore, both the Christian scriptures and the Muslim Qur'an hold to the premise that God does not change His word. He does not change His revelation (despite the law of abrogation found in the Qur'an). Sura Yunus 10:64 says, "No change can there be in the words of Allah." This is repeated in Sura Al An'am 6:34: "There is none that can alter the words of Allah," found also in Sura Qaf 50:28,29.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the Bible we, likewise, have a number of references which speak of the unchangeableness of God's word; such as, Deuteronomy 4:1-2; Isaiah 8:20; Matthew 5:17-18; 24:35; and Revelation 22:18-20.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If this is the recurring theme in both the Bible and the Qur'an, it is hardly likely that we would find a scripture with such a multiplicity of contradictions which Muslims claim are found in the Bible. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What then should we do with the contradictions which the Muslims claim are there?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Contradictions analyzed:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When we look at the contradictions which Muslims point out we find that many of these errors are not errors at all but either a misunderstanding of the context or nothing more then copyist mistakes. The former can easily be explained, while the latter need a little more attention. It is quite clear that the books of the Old Testament were written between the 17<sup>th</sup> and the 5<sup>th</sup> century BC on the only parchments available at that time, pieces of Papyrus, which decayed rather quickly, and so needed continual copying. We now know that much of the Old Testament was copied by hand for 3,000 years, while the New Testament was copied for another 1,400 years, in isolated communities in different lands and on different continents, yet they still remain basically unchanged.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Today many older manuscripts have been found which we can use to corroborate those earlier manuscripts. In fact we have an enormous collection of manuscripts available to which we can go to corroborate the textual credibility of our current document. Concerning the New Testament manuscripts (MSS) we have in our possession 5,300 Greek manuscripts or fragments thereof, 10,000 Latin Vulgate manuscripts and at least 9,300 other early translations. In all we now have more than 24,000 manuscript copies or portions of the New Testament from which to use! Obviously this gives us much more material with which to delineate any variant verses which may exist. Where there is a variant reading, these have been identified and expunged and noted as footnotes on the relevant pages of the texts. In no way does this imply any defects with our Bible (as found in the original autographs).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christians readily admit, however, that there have been 'scribal errors' in the copies of the Old and New Testament. It is beyond the capability of anyone to avoid any and every slip of the pen in copying page after page from any book, sacred or secular. Yet we may be sure that the original manuscript (better known as autograph) of each book of the Bible, being directly inspired by God, was free from all error. Those originals, however, because of the early date of their inception no longer exist.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The individuals responsible for the copying (scribes or copyists) were prone to making two types of scribal errors, well known and documented by those expert in the field of manuscript analysis. One concerned the spelling of proper names (especially unfamiliar foreign names), and the other had to do with numbers. The fact that it is mainly these type of errors in evidence gives credence to the argument for copyist errors. If indeed the originals were in contradiction, we would see evidence of this within the content of the stories themselves. (Archer 1982:221-222)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What is important to remember, however, is that no well-attested variation in the manuscript copies that have come down to us alter any doctrine of the Bible. To this extent, at least, the Holy Spirit has exercised a restraining influence in superintending the transmission of the text.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Since God has nowhere promised an inerrant transmission of Scripture, it is necessary to affirm that only the autographic text of the original documents were inspired. For that reason it is essential that we maintain an ongoing textual criticism as a means of detecting any slips that may have crept into the text in the course of its transmission. The verdict of this science, however, is that the Hebrew and Greek text appears to be amazingly well preserved, so that we are amply justified in affirming, with the Westminster Confession, a singular providence of God in this matter and in declaring that the authority of Scripture is in no way jeopardized by the fact that the copies we possess are not entirely error-free.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Similarly, no translation is or can be perfect, and all translations are an additional step away from the autograph. Yet the verdict of linguistic science is that English-speaking Christians, at least, are exceedingly well served in these days with a host of excellent translations and have no cause for hesitating to conclude that the true Word of God is within their reach. Indeed, in view of the frequent repetition in Scripture of the main matters with which it deals and also of the Holy Spirit's constant witness to and through the Word, no serious translation of Holy Scripture will so destroy its meaning as to render it unable to make its reader "wise for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus" (2 Tim. 3:15)"[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]With that in mind let's now take a look at the examples forwarded by Shabbir Ally in his pamphlet to better ascertain whether or not the scriptures can stand the test of authority espoused above?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While answering the below challenges it has proven obvious to the four of us that Shabbir made a number of errors in his reasoning which could easily have been rectified had he simply looked at the context. This may offer us an idea as to why Muslims in general seem so fond of looking for, and apparently finding "contradictions" in the Bible - most of which are very easily explained by appealing to the context. When we look at the Qur'an we are struck with the reverse situation, for the Qur'an has very little context as such to refer to. There is little narration, and passages interject other passages with themes which have no connection. A similar theme is picked up and repeated in another Sura, though with variations and even at times contradictory material (i.e. the differing stories of Abraham and the idols found in Suras 21:51-59 and 6:74-83; 19:41-49). It stands to reason, then, that Muslims fail to look in their Holy Book for other passages to derive a context. Is it no wonder that they decline to do the same with the Bible.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]On the second page of his booklet "101 Clear Contradictions in the Bible", Shabbir Ally states "Permission Granted! Please copy this booklet and spread the truth."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We, the authors of this paper, have been delighted to fulfil this request of Mr. Ally. Although we have not directly copied all his words, we have reproduced his alleged contradictions in this booklet and replied to them. Therefore, through these rebuttals we are doing what Shabbir has asked, spreading the truth! Showing the firm foundation of the Bible, which is the truth.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Please weigh the words of Mr. Ally against the rebuttals found herein.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]You will note that a number of the questions contain more then one answer. This is done to show that there are different ways to understand a seeming problem in the Biblical text.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1. Does God incite David to conduct the census of his people (2 Samuel 4:1), or does Satan (1 Chronicles 21:1)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood how God works in history)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This seems an apparent discrepancy unless of course both statements are true. It was towards the end of David's reign, and David was looking back over his brilliant conquests, which had brought the Canaanite, Syrian, and Phoenician kingdoms into a state of vassalage and dependency on <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>. He had an attitude of pride and self-admiration for his achievements, and was thinking more in terms of armaments and troops than in terms of the mercies of God.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Lord therefore decided that it was time that David be brought to his knees, where he would once again be cast back onto the mercy of God. So he let him go ahead with his census, in order to find out just how much good it would do him, as the only thing this census would accomplish would be to inflate the national ego (intimated in Joab's warning against carrying out the census in 1 Chronicles 21:3). As soon as the numbering was completed, God intended to chasten the nation with a disastrous plague which would bring about an enormous loss of life (in fact the lives of 70,000 Israelites according to 2 Samuel 24:15).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What about Satan? Why would he get himself involved in this affair (according to 1 Chronicles 21:1) if God had already prompted David to commit the folly he had in mind? It seems his reasons were entirely malicious, knowing that a census would displease the Lord (1 Chronicles 21:7-8), and so he also incited David to carry it through.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Yet this is nothing new, for there are a number of other occurrences in the Bible where both the Lord and Satan were involved in soul-searching testings and trials:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  1. [FONT=&quot]In the book of Job, chapters one and two we find a challenge to Satan from God allowing Satan to bring upon Job his calamities. God's purpose was to purify Job's faith, and to strengthen his character by means of discipline through adversity, whereas Satan's purpose was purely malicious, wishing Job as much harm as possible so that he would recant his faith in his God.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  2. [FONT=&quot]Similarly both God and Satan are involved in the sufferings of persecuted Christians according to 1 Peter 4:19 and 5:8. God's purpose is to strengthen their faith and to enable them to share in the sufferings of Christ in this life, that they may rejoice with Him in the glories of heaven to come (1 Peter 4:13-14), whereas Satan's purpose is to 'devour' them (1 Peter 5:8), or rather to draw them into self-pity and bitterness, and down to his level.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  3. [FONT=&quot]Both God and Satan allowed Jesus the three temptations during his ministry on earth. God's purpose for these temptations was for him to triumph completely over the very tempter who had lured the first Adam to his fall, whereas Satan's purpose was to deflect the saviour from his messianic mission.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  4. [FONT=&quot]In the case of Peter's three denials of Jesus in the court of the high priest, it was Jesus himself who points out the purposes of both parties involvement when he says in Luke 22:31-32, "Simon, Simon, Satan has asked to sift you as wheat. But I have prayed for you Simon, that your faith may not fail. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]And when you have turned back, strengthen your brothers.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]"<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  5. [FONT=&quot]And finally the crucifixion itself bears out yet another example where both God and Satan are involved. Satan exposed his purpose when he had the heart of Judas filled with treachery and hate (John 13:27), causing him to betray Jesus. The Lord's reasoning behind the crucifixion, however, was that Jesus, the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world should give his life as a ransom for many, so that once again sinful man could relish in the relationship lost at the very beginning, in the garden of Eden, and thereby enter into a relationship which is now eternal.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Thus we have five other examples where both the Lord and Satan were involved together though with entirely different motives. Satan's motive in all these examples, including the census by David was driven by malicious intent, while the Lord in all these cases showed an entirely different motive. His was a benevolent motive with a view to eventual victory, while simultaneously increasing the usefulness of the person tested. In every case Satan's success was limited and transient; while in the end God's purpose was well served furthering His cause substantially.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1982:186-188)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2. 2 Samuel 24:9 gives the total population for Israel as 800,000, whereas 1 Chronicles 21:5 says it was 1,100,000.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context or misunderstood the author's intent)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are a number of ways to understand not only this problem but the next challenge as well, since they both refer to the same passages and to the same census.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is possible that the differences between the two accounts are related to the unofficial and incomplete nature of the census (which will be discussed later), or that the book of Samuel presents rounded numbers, particularly for <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Judah</st1:place></st1:country-region>.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The more likely answer, however, is that one census includes categories of men that the other excludes. It is quite conceivable that the 1 Chronicles 21:5 figure included all the available men of fighting age, whether battle-seasoned or not, whereas the 2 Samuel 24:9 account is speaking only of those who were ready for battle. Joab's report in 2 Samuel 24 uses the word 'is hayil, which is translated as "mighty men", or battle-seasoned troops, and refers to them numbering 800,000 veterans. It is reasonable that there were an additional 300,000 men of military age kept in the reserves, but not yet involved in field combat. The two groups would therefore make up the 1,100,000 men in the 1 Chronicles 21 account which does not employ the Hebrew term 'is hayil to describe them.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1982:188-189 and Light of Life II 1992:189-190)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]3. 2 Samuel 24:9 gives the round figure Of 500,000 fighting men in Judah, which was 30,000 more than the corresponding item in 1 Chronicles 21:5.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Observe that 1 Chronicles 21:6 clearly states that Joab did not complete the numbering, as he had not yet taken a census of the tribe of Benjamin, nor that of Levi's either, due to the fact that David came under conviction about completing the census at all. Thus the different numbers indicate the inclusion or exclusion of particular unspecified groups in the nation. We find another reference to this in 1 Chronicles 27:23-24 where it states that David did not include those twenty years old and younger, and that since Joab did not finish the census the number was not recorded in King David's Chronicle.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The procedure for conducting the census had been to start with the trans-Jordanian tribes (2 Samuel 24:5) and then shift to the northern most tribe of Dan and work southward towards <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> (verse 7). The numbering of Benjamin, therefore, would have come last. Hence Benjamin would not be included with the total for <st1:country-region w:st="on">Israel</st1:country-region> or of that for <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Judah</st1:place></st1:country-region>, either. In the case of 2 Samuel 24, the figure for <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Judah</st1:place></st1:country-region> included the already known figure of 30,000 troops mustered by Benjamin. Hence the total of 500,000 included the Benjamite contingent.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Observe that after the division of the <st1:country-region w:st="on">United Kingdom</st1:country-region> into the North and the South following the death of Solomon in 930 BC, most of the Benjamites remained loyal to the dynasty of David and constituted (along with Simeon to the south) the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">kingdom</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Judah</st1:placename></st1:place>. Hence it was reasonable to include Benjamin with Judah and Simeon in the sub-total figure of 500,000, even though Joab may not have itemized it in the first report he gave to David (1 Chronicles 21:5). Therefore the completed grand total of fighting forces available to David for military service was 1,600,000 (1,100,000 of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>, 470,000 of Judah-Simeon, and 30,000 of Benjamin). [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1982:188-189 and Light of Life II 1992:189)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]4. 2 Samuel 24:13 mentions that there will be seven years of famine whereas 1 Chronicles 21:12 mentions only three.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the author's intent, and misunderstood the wording)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are two ways to look at this. The first is to assume that the author of 1 Chronicles emphasized the three-year period in which the famine was to be most intense, whereas the author of 2 Samuel includes the two years prior to and after this period, during which the famine worsened and lessened respectively.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Another solution can be noticed by observing the usage of words in each passage. When you compare the two passages you will note that the wording is significantly different in 1 Chronicles 21 from that found in a 2 Samuel <st1:metricconverter productid="24. In" w:st="on">24. In</st1:metricconverter> 2 Samuel 24:13 the question is "shell seven years of famine come to you?" In 1 Chronicles 21:12 we find an alternative imperative, "take for yourself either three years of famine..." From this we may reasonably conclude that 2 Samuel records the first approach of the prophet Gad to David, in which the alternative prospect was seven years; whereas the Chronicles account gives us the second and final approach of Nathan to the King, in which the Lord (doubtless in response to David's earnest entreaty in private prayer) reduced the severity of that grim alternative to three years rather than an entire span of seven. As it turned out, however, David opted for God's third preference, and thereby received three days of severe pestilence, resulting in the deaths of 70,000 men in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1982:189-190 and Light of Life II 1992:190)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]5. Was Ahaziah 22 (2 Kings 8:26) or 42 (2 Chronicles 22:2) when he began to rule over <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: copyist error)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Because we are dealing with accounts which were written thousands of years ago, we would not expect to have the originals in our possession today, as they would have disintegrated long ago. We are therefore dependent on the copies taken from copies of those originals, which were in turn continually copied out over a period of centuries. Those who did the copying were prone to making two types of scribal errors. One concerned the spelling of proper names, and the other had to do with numbers.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The two examples of numerical discrepancy here have to do with a decade in the number given. Ahaziah is said to have been <st1:metricconverter productid="22 in" w:st="on">22 in</st1:metricconverter> 2 Kings 8:26; while in 2 Chronicles 22:2 Ahaziah is said to have been 42. Fortunately there is enough additional information in the Biblical text to show that the correct number is 22. Earlier in 2 Kings 8:17 the author mentions that Ahaziah's father Joram ben Ahab was 32 when he became King, and he died eight years later, at the age of 40. Therefore Ahaziah could not have been 42 at the time of his father's death at age 40! Such scribal errors do not change Jewish or Christian beliefs in the least. In such a case, another portion of scripture often corrects the mistake (2 Kings 8:26 in this instance). We must also remember that the scribes who were responsible for the copies were meticulously honest in handling Biblical texts. They delivered them as they received them, without changing even obvious mistakes, which are few indeed.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Refer to the next question for a more in-depth presentation on how scribes could misconstrue numbers within manuscripts)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1982:206 and Light of Life II 1992:201)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]6. Was Jehoiachin 18 years old (2 Kings 24:8) or 8 years old (2 Chronicles 36:9) when he became king of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: copyist error)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Once again there is enough information in the context of these two passages to tell us that 8 is wrong and 18 right. The age of 8 is unusually young to assume governmental leadership. However, there are certain commentators who contend that this can be entirely possible. They maintain that when Jehoiachin was eight years old, his father made him co-regent, so that he could be trained in the responsibilities of leading a kingdom. Jehoiachin then became officially a king at the age of eighteen, upon his father's death.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A more likely scenario, however, is that this is yet another case of scribal error, evidenced commonly with numbers. It may be helpful to interject here that there were three known ways of writing numbers in Hebrew. The earliest, a series of notations used by the Jewish settlers in the 5th century BC Elephantine Papyri (described in more detail below) was followed by a system whereby alphabetical letters were used for numbers. A further system was introduced whereby the spelling out of the numbers in full was prescribed by the guild of so-perim. Fortunately we have a large file of documents in papyrus from these three sources to which we can refer.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As with many of these numerical discrepancies, it is the decade number that varies. It is instructive to observe that the number notations used by the Jewish settlers in the 5th century BC Elephantine Papyri, during the time of Ezra and Nehemiah, from which this passage comes, evidences the earlier form of numerical notation. This consisted of a horizontal stroke ending in a downward hook at its right end to represent the numbers in tens (thus two horizontal strokes one above the other would be 20). Vertical strokes were used to represent anything less than ten. Thus eight would be /III IIII, but eighteen would be /III IIII with the addition of a horizontal line and downward hook above it. Similarly twenty-two would be /I followed by two horizontal hooks, and forty-two would be /I followed by two sets of horizontal hooks (please forgive the deficiencies of my computer; it is not the scholar Dr. Archer is).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If, then, the primary manuscript from which a copy was being carried out was blurred or smudged, one or more of the decadal notations could be missed by the copyist. It is far less likely that the copyist would have mistakenly seen an extra ten stroke that was not present in his original then that he would have failed to observe one that had been smudged.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the New International Version (NIV) of the Bible, the corrections have been included in the texts. However, for clarity, footnotes at the bottom of the page mention that earlier Hebrew MSS include the scribal error, while the Septuagint MSS and Syriac as well as one Hebrew MSS include the correct numerals. It only makes sense to correct the numerals once the scribal error has been noted. This, however, in no way negates the authenticity nor the authority of the scriptures which we have.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Confirmation of this type of copyist error is found in various pagan writers as well. For example in the Behistun rock inscription set up by Darius 1, we find that number 38 gives the figure for the slain of the army of Frada as 55,243, with 6,572 prisoners, according to the Babylonian column. Copies of this inscription found in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Babylon</st1:place></st1:city> itself, records the number of prisoners as 6,973. However in the Aramaic translation of this inscription discovered at the Elephantine in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>, the number of prisoners was only 6,972.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Similarly in number 31 of the same inscription, the Babylonian column gives 2,045 as the number of slain in the rebellious army of Frawartish, along with 1,558 prisoners, whereas the Aramaic copy has over 1,575 as the prisoner count.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1982:206-207, 214-215, 222, 230; Nehls pg.17-18; Light of Life II 1992:204-205)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]7. Did king Jehoiachin rule over <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> for three months (2 Kings 24:8), or for three months and ten days (2 Chronicles 36:9)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the author's intent)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Here again, as we found in challenge number 2 and 4, the author of the Chronicles has been more specific with his numbering, whereas the author of Kings is simply rounding off the number of months, assuming that the additional ten days is not significant enough to mention.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]8. Did the chief of the mighty men of David lift up his spear and killed 800 men (2 Samuel 23:8) or only 300 men (1 Chronicles 11:11)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category:misunderstood the historical context or misunderstood the author's intent)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is quite possible that both authors may have described two different incidents, though by the same man, or one author may have only mentioned in part what the other author mentions in full.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Light of Life II 1992:187)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]9. Did David bring the Ark of the Covenant to <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> after defeating the Philistines (2 Samuel 5 and 6), or before (1 Chronicles chapters 13 and 14)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: didn't read the entire text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is not really a problem. Shabbir Ally should have continued reading on further to 1 Chronicles 15, as he would then have seen that David brought the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> after defeating the Philistines. The reason for this is that the Israelites moved the Ark of the covenant twice. The first time, they moved it from Baal, prior to the defeat of the Philistines, as we see in 2 Samuel 5 and 6 and in 1 Chronicles 15. Once the prophet Samuel narrates David's victory over the Philistines, he tells us about both times when the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> was moved. However in 1 Chronicles, the order is as follows: the <st1:state w:st="on">Ark</st1:state> was first moved from baal; then David defeated the Philistines; and finally, the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> was moved from the House of Obed-Edom.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Therefore the two accounts are not contradictory at all. What we have here is simply one prophet choosing to give us the complete history of the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> at once (rather than referring to it later) and another presenting the history in a different way. In both cases the timing of events is the same.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The same could be said of the Qur'an. In Sura 2 we are introduced to the fall of Adam, then God's mercy is shown to the Israelites, followed by Pharaoh's drowning, followed by Moses and the Golden calf, followed by the Israelites complaint about food and water, and then we are introduced to the account of the golden calf again. Following this, we read about Moses and Jesus, then we read about Moses and the golden calf, and then about Solomon and Abraham. If one wants to talk about chronology, what does Moses have to do with Jesus, or Solomon with Abraham? Chronologically the sura should have begun with Adam's fall, then moved to Cain and Abel, Enoch, Abraham, Lot, Isaac, Jacob and Esau, Joseph, the sons of Israel and Moses, in that order. If such a blatant chronological mix-up can be found in this sura of the Qur'an, then Shabbir would do well to explain it before criticizing what they deem to be an error in the Bible.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Light of Life II 1992:176)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]10. Was Noah supposed to bring 2 pairs of all living creatures (Genesis 6:19-20), or was he to bring 7 pairs of 'clean' animals (Genesis 7:2; see also Genesis 7:8,9)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misquoted the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This indeed is an odd question to raise. It is obvious that Shabbir Ally has misquoted the text in the 6<sup>th</sup> chapter of Genesis, which makes no mention of any 'clean' animals in its figure, while the 7<sup>th</sup> chapter specifically delineates between the clean and unclean animals. Genesis 7:2 says Noah was to bring in 7 pairs of 'clean' animals and 2 pairs of every kind of 'unclean' animal. Why did Shabbir not mention the second half of this verse which stipulates 2 pairs in his challenge? It is obvious that there is no discrepancy between the two accounts. The problem is the question itself.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Shabbir attempts to back his argument by mentioning that verses 8 and 9 of chapter 7 prove that only two pairs went into the ark. However, these verses say nothing about two pairs entering the ark. They simply say that it was pairs of clean and unclean animals or birds and creatures which entered the ark. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The reason for including seven of the clean species is perfectly evident: they were to be used for sacrificial worship after the flood had receded (as indeed they were, according to Genesis 8:20). Obviously if there had not been more than two of each of these clean species, they would have been rendered extinct by their being sacrificed on the altar. But in the case of the unclean animals and birds, a single pair would suffice, since they would not be needed for blood sacrifice.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1982:81-82)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]11. Did David capture 1,700 of King Zobah's horsemen (2 Samuel 8:4), or was it 7,000 (1 Chronicles 18:4)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: copyist error)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are two possible solutions to these differing figures. The first by Keil and Delitzsh (page 360) is a most convincing solution. They maintain that the word for chariotry (rekeb) was inadvertently omitted by the scribe in copying 2 Samuel 8:4, and that the second figure, 7,000 (for the parasim "cavalrymen"), was necessarily reduced to 700 from the 7,000 he saw in his Vorlage for the simple reason that no one would write 7,000 after he had written <st1:metricconverter productid="1,000 in" w:st="on">1,000 in</st1:metricconverter> the recording the one and the same figure. The omission of rekeb might have occurred with an earlier scribe, and a reduction from 7,000 to 700 would have then continued with the successive copies by later scribes. But in all probability the Chronicles figure is right and the Samuel numbers should be corrected to agree with that.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A second solution starts from the premise that the number had been reduced to 700 as it refers to 700 rows, each consisting of 10 horse men, making a total of 7,000.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1982:184: Keil & Delitzsch 1949:360; Light of Life II 1992:182)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]12. Did Solomon have 40,000 stalls for his horses (1 Kings 4:26), or 4,000 stalls (2 Chronicles 9:25)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: copyist error, or misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are a number of ways to answer these puzzling differences. The most plausible is analogous to what we found earlier in challenge numbers five and six above, where the decadal number has been rubbed out or distorted due to constant use.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Others believe that the stalls mentioned in 2 Chronicles were large ones that housed 10 horses each (that is, a row of ten stalls). Therefore 4,000 of these large stalls would be equivalent to 40,000 small ones.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Another commentator maintains that the number of stalls recorded in 1 Kings was the number at the beginning of Solomon's reign, whereas the number recorded in 2 Chronicles was the number of stalls at the end of his reign. We know that Solomon reigned for 40 years; no doubt, many changes occurred during this period. It is quite likely that he reduced the size of the military machine his father David had left him.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Light of Life II 1992:191)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]13. According to the author, did Baasha, the king of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> die in the 26<sup>th</sup> year of king Asa's reign (1 Kings 15:33), or was he still alive in the 36<sup>th</sup> year ( 2 Chronicles 16:1)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context, or copyist error)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are two possible solutions to this problem. To begin with, scholars who have looked at these passages have concluded that the 36th year of Asa should be calculated from the withdrawal of the 10 tribes from Judah and Benjamin which brought about the division of the country into <st1:country-region w:st="on">Judah</st1:country-region> and <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>. If we look at it from this perspective, the 36th year of the divided monarchy would be in the 16th year of Asa. This is supported by the Book of the Kings of <st1:country-region w:st="on">Judah</st1:country-region> and <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>, as well as contemporary records, which follow this convention. (note: for a fuller explanation of this theory, see Archer, page 225-116).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Keil and Delitzsch (pp. 366-367) preferred to regard the number <st1:metricconverter productid="36 in" w:st="on">36 in</st1:metricconverter> 2 Chronicles 16:1 and the number <st1:metricconverter productid="35 in" w:st="on">35 in</st1:metricconverter> 15:19 as a copyist's error for 16 and 15, respectively. This problem is similar to question numbers five and six above. In this case, however, the numbers were written using Hebrew alphabetical type (rather than the Egyptian multiple stroke type used in the Elephantine Papyri, referred to in questions 5 and 6). It is therefore quite possible that the number 16 could quite easily be confused with 36. The reason for this is that up through the seventh century BC the letter yod (10) greatly resembled the letter lamed (30), except for two tiny strokes attached to the left of the main vertical strokes. It required only a smudge from excessive wear on this scroll-column to result in making the yod look like a lamed. It is possible that this error occurred first in the earlier passage, in 2 Chronicles 15:19 (with its 35 wrongly copied from an original 15); then to make it consistent in 16:1, the same scribe (or perhaps a later one) concluded that 16 must be an error for 36 and changed it accordingly on his copy.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1982:226: Keil & Delitzsch 1949:366-367; Light of Life II 1992:194)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]14. Did Solomon appoint 3,600 overseers (2 Chronicles 2:2) for the work of building the temple, or was it only 3,300 (1 Kings 5:16)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the author's intent)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is not too great a problem. The most likely solution is that the author of 2 Chronicles included the 300 men who were selected as reservists to take the place of any supervisors who would become ill or who had died, while the author of the 1 Kings 5:16 passage includes only the supervisory force. With the group as large as the 3,300, sickness and death certainly did occur, requiring reserves who would be called up as the need arose.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Light of Life II 1992:192)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]15. Did Solomon build a facility containing 2,000 baths (1 Kings 7:26), or over 3,000 baths (2 Chronicles 4:5)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the author's intent, or copyist error)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Hebrew verb rendered "contained" and "held" is different from that translated "received"; and the meaning may be that the sea ordinarily contained 2,000 baths. But when filled to its utmost capacity it received and held 3,000 baths. Thus the chronicler simply mentions the amount of water that would make the sea like a flowing spring rather than a still pool. This informs us that <st1:metricconverter productid="3,000 gallons" w:st="on">3,000 gallons</st1:metricconverter> of water were required to completely fill the sea which usually held <st1:metricconverter productid="2,000 gallons" w:st="on">2,000 gallons</st1:metricconverter>.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Another solution follows a theme mentioned earlier, that the number in Hebrew lettering for 2000 has been confounded by the scribe with a similar alphabetical number for the number 3,000.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It should be noted that Shabbir (in his debate on 25<sup>th</sup> February 1998 against Jay Smith in Birmingham, UK) quoted this "contradiction" and added to it saying that if the bath had a diameter of 10 cubits it cannot possibly have had a circumference of 30 cubits as the text says (since 'pi' dictates that it would have a circumference of 31.416 or a 9.549 diameter). [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Shabbir made the humorous comment "Find me a bath like that and I will get baptized in it!" But Shabbir did not read the text properly or was just going for a cheap, displaced laugh. Why? Because the text says that it was about 8cm thick and had a rim shaped like a lily. Therefore it depends on where you measure from. The top or bottom of the rim or the inside or outside for the vessel would all give a different diameter; and depending on whether you measure at the top of the rim or at the narrower point, you would get a different circumference. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In other words, Shabbir may well be getting baptized if someone can be bothered to make a replica![/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Haley pg. 382; Light of Life II 1992:192)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]16-21. Are the numbers of Israelites freed from Babylonian captivity correct in Ezra (Ezra 2:6, 8, 12, 15, 19, 28) or in Nehemiah (Nehemiah 7:11, 13, 17, 20, 22, 32)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](note: because numbers 16-21 deal with the same census, I have included them as one)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In chapter 2 of Ezra and in chapter 7 of Nehemiah there are about thirty-three family units that appear in both lists of Israelites returning from <st1:city w:st="on">Babylon</st1:city> to <st1:place w:st="on">Judea</st1:place>. Of these 33 family units listed in Ezra and Nehemiah, nineteen of the family units are identical, while fourteen show discrepancies in the number of members within the family units (though Shabbir only lists six of them). Two of the discrepancies differ by 1, one differs by 4, two by 6, two differ by 9, another differs by 11, another two by 100, another by 201, another differs by <st1:metricconverter productid="105, a" w:st="on">105, a</st1:metricconverter> further family differs by 300, and the largest difference is the figure for the sons of Azgad, a difference of 1,100 between the accounts of Ezra 2 and Nehemiah 7.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How, then, are we to account for the 14 discrepancies? The answer is quite simple, and Shabbir, had he done any study into the history of these two accounts would never have bothered to waste his time in asking these questions. The fact that there are both similarities and discrepancies side-by-side should have pointed him to the solution as well (as you who are reading this are probably even now concluding).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are two important factors to bear in mind when looking at these discrepancies between the two lists. The first is the probability that though members of the units or families had enrolled their names at first as intending to go; in the interval of preparation, some possibly died, others were prevented by sickness or other insurmountable obstacles, so that the final number who actually went was not the same as those who had intended to go. Anyone who has planned a school-coach trip to the beach can understand how typical a scenario this really is.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A second and more important factor are the different circumstances in which the two registers were taken, an important fact of which Shabbir seems to be acutely unaware. Ezra's register was made up while still in <st1:city w:st="on">Babylon</st1:city> (in the 450s BC), before the return to <st1:city w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:city> (Ezra 2:1-2), whereas Nehemiah's register was drawn up in Judea (around 445 BC), after the walls of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> had been rebuilt (Nehemiah 7:4-6). The lapse of so many years between the two lists (between 5-10 years) would certainly make a difference in the numbers of each family through death or by other causes.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Most scholars believe that Nehemiah recorded those people who actually arrived at <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> under the leadership of Zerubbabel and Jeshua in 537 or 536 BC (Nehemiah 7:7). Ezra, on the other hand, uses the earlier list of those who originally announced their intention to join the caravan of returning colonists back in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Babylon</st1:place></st1:city>, in the 450s BC.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The discrepancies between these two lists point to the fact that there were new factors which arose to change their minds. Some may have fallen into disagreement, others may have discovered business reasons to delay their departure until later, whereas in some cases there were certainly some illnesses or death, and in other cases there may have been some last-minute recruits from those who first decided to remain in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Babylon</st1:place></st1:city>. Only clans or city-group's came in with a shrunken numbers. All the rest picked up last-minute recruits varying from one to 1,100. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When we look at the names we find that certain names are mentioned in alternate forms. Among the Jews of that time (as well as those living in the East), a person had a name, title, and surname. Thus, the children of Hariph (Nehemiah 7:24) are the children of Jorah (Ezra 2:18), while the children of Sia (Nehemiah 7:47) are also the children of Siaha (Ezra 2:44).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When we take all these factors into consideration, the differences in totals that do appear in these two tallies should occasion no surprise whatsoever. The same sort of arbitration and attrition has featured every large migration in human history.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1982:229-230 and Light of Life II 1992:219-220)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]22. Both Ezra 2:64 and Nehemiah 7:66 agree that the totals for the whole assembly was 42,360, yet when the totals are added, Ezra - 29,818 and Nehemiah - 31,089?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: copyist error)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are possibly two answers to this seeming dilemma. The first is that this is most likely a copyist's error. The original texts must have had the correct totals, but somewhere along the line of transmission, a scribe made an error in one of the lists, and changed the total in the other so that they would match, without first totaling up the numbers for the families in each list. There is the suggestion that a later scribe upon copying out these lists purposely put down the totals for the whole assembly who were in Jerusalem at his time, which because it was later would have been larger.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The other possibility is forwarded by the learned Old Testament scholar R.K. Harrison, who suggests that at any rate the figure of 42,000 may be metaphorical, following "...the pattern of the Exodus and similar traditions, where the large numbers were employed as symbols of the magnitude of God, and in this particular instance indicating the triumphant deliverance that God achieved for His captive people" (Harrison 1970:1142-1143).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Such errors do not change the historicity of the account, since in such cases another portion of Scripture usually corrects the mistake (the added totals in this instance). As the well-known commentator, Matthew Henry once wrote, "Few books are not printed without mistakes; yet, authors do not disown them on account of this, nor are the errors by the press imputed to the author. The candid reader amends them by the context or by comparing them with some other part of the work."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Light of Life II 1992:201, 219)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]23. Did 200 singers (Ezra 2:65) or 245 singers (Nehemiah 7:67) accompany the assembly?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: copyist error)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As in question number 7, this is a copyist error, where a scribe copying the numbers in the Ezra account simply rounded off the figure of 245 to 200.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]24. Was King Abijah's mother's name Michaiah, daughter of Uriel of Gibeah (2 Chronicles 13:2) or Maachah, daughter of Absalom (2 Chronicles 11:20 & 2 Samuel 13:27)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Hebrew usage)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This apparent contradiction rests on the understanding of the Hebrew word bat, equivalent to the English daughter. Although usually used to denote a first generation female descendant, it can equally refer to more distant kinship. An example of this is 2 Samuel 1:24, which states: 'O daughters of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>, weep for Saul...' As this is approximately 900 years after <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> (also called Jacob) actually lived, it is clear that this refers to the Israelite women, his distant female descendants. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When seen in this light, the 'contradiction' vanishes. 2 Chronicles 13:2 correctly states that Michaiah is a daughter of Uriel. We can assume that Uriel married Tamar, Absalom's only immediate daughter. Together they had Michaiah who then married king Rehoboam and became the mother of Abijah. 2 Chronicles 11:20 and 1 Kings 15:2, in stating that Maachah was a daughter of Absalom, simply link her back to her more famous grandfather, instead of her lesser known father, to indicate her royal lineage. Abishalom is a variant of Absalom and Michaiah is a variant of Maachah. Therefore, the family tree looks like this:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] Absalom/Abishalom<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] |<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] Tamar-----Uriel<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] |<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Rehoboam-----Maachah/Michaiah<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] |<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] Abijah<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]25. Joshua and the Israelites did (Joshua 10:23,40) or did not (Joshua 15:63) capture <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The short answer is, not in this campaign. The verses given are in complete harmony and the confusion arises solely from misreading the passage concerned.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In Joshua 10, it is the king of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> that is killed: his city is not captured (verses 16-18 and 22-26). The five Amorite kings and their armies left their cities and went to attack <st1:place w:st="on">Gibeon</st1:place>. Joshua and the Israelites routed them and the five kings fled to the cave at Makkedah, from which Joshua's soldiers brought them to Joshua, who killed them all. Concerning their armies, verse 20 states: 'the few who were left reached their fortified cities', which clearly indicates that the cities were not captured. So it was the kings, not their cities, who were captured.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Joshua 10:28-42 records the rest of this particular military campaign. It states that several cities were captured and destroyed, these being: Makkedah, Libnah, <st1:city w:st="on">Lachish</st1:city>, Eglon, <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Hebron</st1:place></st1:city> and Debir. All of these cities are south-west of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>. The king of <st1:city w:st="on">Gezer</st1:city> and his army were defeated in the field whilst helping <st1:city w:st="on">Lachish</st1:city> (v.33) and in verse 30 comparison is made to the earlier capture of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jericho</st1:place></st1:city>, but neither of these last two cities were captured at this time. Verses 40 & 41 delineate the limits of this campaign, all of which took place to the south and west of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>. Importantly, Gibeon, the eastern limit of this campaign, is still approximately <st1:metricconverter productid="10 miles" w:st="on">10 miles</st1:metricconverter> to the north-west of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">[FONT=&quot]Jerusalem[/FONT]</st1:place></st1:city>[FONT=&quot] is, therefore, not stated as captured in Joshua 10. This agrees completely with Joshua 15:63, which states that <st1:country-region w:st="on">Judah</st1:country-region> could not dislodge the Jebusites in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]26. Was Jacob (Matthew 1:16) or Heli (Luke 3:23) the father of Joseph and husband of Mary?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Hebrew usage)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The answer to this is simple but requires some explanation. Most scholars today agree that Matthew gives the genealogy of Joseph and Luke gives that of Mary, making Jacob the father of Joseph and Heli the father of Mary.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is shown by the two narrations of the virgin birth. Matthew 1:18-25 tells the story only from Joseph's perspective, while Luke 1:26-56 is told wholly from Mary's point of view. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A logical question to ask is why Joseph is mentioned in both genealogies? The answer is again simple. Luke follows strict Hebrew tradition in mentioning only males. Therefore, in this case, Mary is designated by her husband's name.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This reasoning is clearly supported by two lines of evidence. In the first, every name in the Greek text of Luke's genealogy, with the one exception of Joseph, is preceded by the definite article (e.g. 'the' Heli, 'the' Matthat). Although not obvious in English translations, this would strike anyone reading the Greek, who would realize that it was tracing the line of Joseph's wife, even though his name was used.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The second line of evidence is the Jerusalem Talmud, a Jewish source. This recognizes the genealogy to be that of Mary, referring to her as the daughter of Heli (Hagigah 2:4).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Fruchtenbaum 1993:10-13)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]27. Did Jesus descend from Solomon (Matthew 1:6) or from Nathan (Luke 3:31), both of whom are sons of David?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Hebrew usage)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is directly linked to 'contradiction' 26. Having shown that Matthew gives Joseph's genealogy and Luke gives that of Mary, it is clear that Joseph was descended from David through Solomon and Mary through Nathan. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]28. Was Jechoniah (Matthew 1:12) or Neri (Luke 3:27) the father of Shealtiel?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Hebrew usage)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Once again, this problem disappears when it is understood that two different genealogies are given from David to Jesus, those of both Mary and Joseph (see #26). Two different genealogies mean two different men named Shealtiel, a common Hebrew name. Therefore, it is not surprising to recognize that they both had different fathers![/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
 
Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

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mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]29. Which son of Zerubbabel was an ancestor of Jesus Christ, Abiud (Matthew 1:13) or Rhesa (Luke 3:27), and what about Zerubbabel in (1 Chronicles 3:19-20)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Hebrew usage)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As with #28, two different Shealtiels necessitates two different Zerubbabels, so it is no problem that their sons had different names.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It should not surprise us that there was a Zerubbabel son of Shealtiel in both Mary's and Joseph's ancestry. Matthew tells us that Joseph's father was named Jacob. Of course, the Bible records another Joseph son of Jacob, who rose to become the second most powerful ruler in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> (Genesis 37-47). We see no need to suggest that these two men are one and the same, so we should have no problem with two men named Zerubbabel son of Shealtiel.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Zerubbabel mentioned in 1 Chronicles 3:19,20 could easily be a third. Again, this causes no problem: there are several Marys mentioned in the Gospels, because it was a common name. The same may be true here. This Zerubbabel would then be a cousin of the one mentioned in Matthew 1:12,13. A comparison of Matthew and 1 Chronicles gives the following possible family tree:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jehoiachin<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] |<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Shealtiel----Malkiram----Pedaiah----Shenazzar----Jekamiah----Hoshama----Nedabiah----...<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] | |<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Zerubbabel[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Zerubbabel----Shimei----...<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] | |<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] Abiud 7 sons<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] | (1 Ch. 3:19,20)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] |<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] Joseph<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]30. Was Joram (Matthew 1:8) or Amaziah (2 Chronicles 26:1) the father of Uzziah?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Hebrew usage)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This answer is of a similar nature to that in #24. Just as the Hebrew bat (daughter) can be used to denote a more distant descendant, so can the Hebrew ben (son). Jesus is referred to in Matthew 1:1 as the son of David, the son of Abraham. Both the genealogies trace Jesus' ancestry through both these men, illustrating the usage of 'son'. Although no Hebrew manuscripts of Matthew's gospel are extant today, it is clear that he was a Jew writing from a Hebrew perspective and therefore completely at home with the Hebrew concept of son ship.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]With this in mind, it can easily be shown that Amaziah was the immediate father of Uzziah (also called Azariah). Joram/Jehoram, on the other hand, was Uzziah's great-great-grandfather and a direct ascendant. The line goes Joram/Jehoram - Ahaziah - Joash - Amaziah - Azariah/Uzziah (2 Chronicles 21:4-26:1). [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew's telescoping of Joseph's genealogy is quite acceptable, as his purpose is simply to show the route of descent. He comments in 1:17 that there were three sets of fourteen generations. This reveals his fondness for numbers and links in directly with the designation of Jesus as the son of David. In the Hebrew language, each letter is given a value. The total value of the name David is fourteen and this is probably the reason why Matthew only records fourteen generations in each section, to underline Jesus' position as the son of David.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]31. Was Josiah (Matthew 1:11) or Jehoiakim (1 Chronicles 3:16) the father of Jechoniah?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Hebrew usage)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This question is essentially the same as #30. Jehoiakim was Jeconiah's father and Josiah his grandfather. This is quite acceptable and results from Matthew's aesthetic telescoping of the genealogy, not from any error.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]32. Were there fourteen (Matthew 1:17) or thirteen (Matthew 1:12-16) generations from the Babylonian exile until Christ?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Hebrew usage)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As Matthew clearly states (1:17), there were fourteen. In the first section there are fourteen names, in the second fifteen and in the third, fourteen. Perhaps the simplest way of resolving the problem is to suggest that in the first and third sections, the first and last person is included as a generation, whereas not in the second. In any case, as Matthew has clearly telescoped his genealogy with good reason, a mistake on his part is by no means shown conclusively. If by some chance another name or two has been lost from the list in the originals, by scribal error, we cannot know. Whatever the real situation, a simple explanation can be afforded, as above.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]33. Who was the father of Shelah; Cainan (Luke 3:35-36) or Arphaxad (Genesis 11:12)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Hebrew usage)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Although a conclusive answer is not possible, plausible explanations can be found. The most probable answer to this is that the genealogy in the Masoretic text of Genesis telescopes the generations as does Matthew in his list. When we look at the Septuagint (LXX), we find the name of Cainan included as the father of Shelah, echoing what we find in Luke. Luke, writing in Greek, would have used the Septuagint as his authority.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]On that same note, if we refer to the Septuagint, when we look at Genesis 11:12 we find that Apharxad was 135 years old, rather than 35 (which would allow more time for him to be Shelah's grandfather).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]34. John the Baptist was (Matthew 11:14; 17:10-13) or was not Elijah to come (John 1:19-21)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew records Jesus saying that John the Baptist was the Elijah who was to come, while John seems to record John the Baptist denying it. The reason for this apparent inconsistency is a lack of contextualization by readers.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The priests and Levites came to John the Baptist and asked him if he was Elijah. Quite a funny question to ask someone, unless you know the Jewish Scriptures. For God says through the prophet Malachi that He will send Elijah to the people of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> before a certain time. Therefore as the Jewish people were expecting Elijah, the question is quite logical.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John was about 30 years when he was asked this question. His parents were already dead; he was the only son of Zechariah from the tribe of Levi. So when asked if he was Elijah who ascended up into heaven about 878 years earlier, the answer was obviously "No, I am not Elijah." [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus also testifies, albeit indirectly, to John not being Elijah in Matthew 11:11 where he says that John is greater than all people who have ever been born. Moses was greater than Elijah, but John was greater than them both.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So what did Jesus mean when he says of John "he is the Elijah who was to come"? The angel Gabriel (Jibril in Arabic) speaks to Zechariah of his son, John, who was not yet born, saying "he will go on before the Lord, in the spirit and power of Elijah, to turn the hearts of the fathers to their children and the disobedient to the wisdom of the righteous - to make ready a people prepared for the Lord." (Luke 1:17)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Angel refers to two prophecies, Isaiah 40:3-5 (see Luke 3:4-6 to see this applied again to John the Baptist) and Malachi 4:5-6 mentioned above, which says "See, I will send you the prophet Elijah before the great and dreadful day of the Lord comes. He will turn the hearts of the fathers to their children, and the hearts of the children to their fathers".Gabriel unmistakably says that John is the "Elijah" whom God foretold through Malachi the prophet.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So, was John Elijah? No. But had the priests and Levites asked him, "Are you the one the prophet Malachi speaks of as 'Elijah'?" John would have responded affirmatively. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus in Matthew 17:11-13 says that the prophecy of Malachi is true, but Elijah had already come. He says that this "Elijah" suffered, like he, Jesus will suffer; "the disciples understood that he was talking to them about John the Baptist". Therefore, once we understand the context it is clear; John was not the literal Elijah, but he was the Elijah that the prophecy spoke of, the one who was to (and did) prepare the way for the Messiah, Jesus, "the Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world", John 1:29.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]35. Jesus would (Luke 1:32) or would not (Matthew 1:11; 1 Chronicles 3:16 & Jeremiah 36:30) inherit David's throne?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Hebrew usage)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This answer follows on directly from that to #26. Having shown that Matthew's genealogy is that of Joseph, it is obvious from Jeremiah 36:30 that none of Joseph's physical descendants were qualified to sit on David's throne as he himself was descended from Jeconiah. However, as Matthew makes clear, Jesus was not a physical descendant of Joseph. After having listed Joseph's genealogy with the problem of his descendance from Jeconiah, Matthew narrates the story of the virgin birth. Thus he proves how Jesus avoids the Jeconiah problem and remains able to sit on David's throne. Luke, on the other hand, shows that Jesus' true physical descendance was from David apart from Jeconiah, thus fully qualifying him to inherit the throne of his father David. The announcement of the angel in Luke 1:32 completes the picture: 'the Lord God will give him the throne of his father David'. This divine appointment, together with his physical descendance, make him the only rightful heir to David's throne.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Fruchtenbaum 1993:12)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]36. Jesus rode into <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> on one colt (Mark 11:7; cf. Luke 19:35), or a colt and an ass (Matthew 21:7)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text & misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The accusation is that the Gospels contradict about how many donkeys Jesus rode into <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> on. This accusation is based on not reading the text of Matthew properly and ignoring his full point about this event.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It first should be noted that all four Gospel writers refer to this event, the missing reference above being John 12:14-15. Mark, Luke and John are all in agreement that Jesus sat on the colt. Logic shows that there is no "contradiction" as Jesus cannot ride on two animals at once! So, why does Matthew mention two animals? The reason is clear.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Even by looking at Matthew in isolation, we can see from the text that Jesus did not ride on two animals, but only on the colt. For in the two verses preceding the quote in point (b) above by Shabbir, we read Matthew quoting two prophecies from the Old Testament (Isaiah 62:11 and Zechariah 9:9) together. Matthew says:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Say to the Daughter of Zion, 'See, your king comes to you, gently and riding on a donkey, on a colt, the foal of a donkey'."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 21:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]By saying "a donkey" and then "on a colt, the foal of a donkey" Zechariah is using classic Hebrew sentence structure and poetic language known as "parallelism", simply repeating the same thing again in another way, as a parallel statement. This is very common in the Bible (i.e. Psalm 119:105 mentions, "Your word is a lamp to my feet and a light to my path," yet says the same thing twice in succession). It is clear that there is only one animal referred to. Therefore Matthew clearly says Jesus rode only on a colt, in agreement with the other three Gospel writers.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So why does Matthew say that the colt and its mother were brought along in verse seven? The reason is simple. Matthew, who was an eyewitness (where as Mark and Luke were quite possibly not) emphasizes the immaturity of the colt, too young to be separated from its mother. As the colt had never been ridden the probability was that it was still dependent on its mother. It would have made the entry to <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> easier if the mother donkey were led along down the road, as the foal would naturally follow her, even though he had never before carried a rider and had not yet been trained to follow a roadway.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Here again we see that there is no contradiction between the synoptic accounts, but only added detail on the part of Matthew as one who viewed the event while it was happening.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is just one of many of the prophecies that Jesus fulfilled. He fulfilled ones that were in his control as well as ones which he could not manipulate, such as the time and place of his birth (Daniel 9:24-26, Micah 5:1-2, Matthew 2:1-6), and his resurrection (Psalm 16:10, Acts 2:24-32) to name but two. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Some Muslims believe that in the Taurat there is reference to the prophecy which the Qur'an speaks of in Sura 7:157 and 61:6 concerning Muhammad. However, these Muslims yet have to come up with one, while Jesus is predicted time and time again.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]37. Simon Peter finds out that Jesus was the Christ by a revelation from heaven (Matthew 16:17), or by His brother Andrew (John 1:41)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: too literalistic an interpretation)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The emphasis of Matthew 16:17 is that Simon did not just hear it from someone else: God had made it clear to him. That does not preclude him being told by other people. Jesus' point is that he was not simply repeating what someone else had said. He had lived and worked with Jesus and he was now clear in his mind that Jesus was none other than the Christ (Messiah), the Son of the Living God.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus did not ask, "Who have you heard that I am?" but, "Who do you say I am?" There is all the difference in the world between these two questions, and Peter was no longer in any doubt.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]38. Jesus first met Simon Peter and Andrew by the Sea of Galilee (Matthew 4:18-22), or on the banks of the river <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jordan</st1:place></st1:country-region> (John 1:42-43)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The accusation is that one Gospel records Jesus meeting Simon Peter and Andrew by the sea of Galilee, while the other says he met them by the river <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jordan</st1:place></st1:country-region>. However this accusation falls flat on its face as the different writers pick up the story in different places. Both are true.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John 1:35 onwards says Jesus met them by the river <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jordan</st1:place></st1:country-region> and that they spent time with him there. Andrew (and probably Peter too) were disciples of John the Baptist. They left this area and went to Galilee, in which region was the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">village</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Cana</st1:placename></st1:place> where Jesus then performed his first recorded miracle. "After this he went down to <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Capernaum</st1:place></st1:city> with his mothers and brothers and disciples. There they stayed for a few days." John 2:12. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Peter and Andrew were originally from a town named <st1:city w:st="on">Bethsaida</st1:city> (John 2:44) but now lived in <st1:city w:st="on">Capernaum</st1:city> (Matthew 8:14-15, Mark 1:30-31, Luke 4:38-39), a few miles from <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Bethsaida</st1:place></st1:city>. They were fishermen by trade, so it was perfectly normal for them to fish when they were home during these few days (for at this time Jesus was only just beginning public teaching or healing).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is where Matthew picks up the story. As Peter and Andrew fish in the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Lake</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Galilee</st1:placename></st1:place>, Jesus calls them to follow him - to leave all they have behind and become his permanent disciples. Before this took place, he had not asked them, but they had followed him because of John the Baptist's testimony of him (John 1:35-39). Now, because of this testimony, plus the miracle in Cana, as well as the things Jesus said (John 1:47-51), as well as the time spent with the wisest and only perfect man who ever lived etc., it is perfectly understandable for them to leave everything and follow him. It would not be understandable for them to just drop their known lives and follow a stranger who appeared and asked them to, like children after the pied piper! Jesus did not enchant anyone - they followed as they realized who he was - the one all the prophets spoke of, the Messiah the son of God.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]39. When Jesus met Jairus, his daughter 'had just died' (Matthew 9:18), or was 'at the point of death' (Mark 5:23)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: too literalistic an interpretation)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When Jairus left his home, his daughter was very sick, and at the point of death, or he wouldn't have gone to look for Jesus. When he met Jesus he certainly was not sure whether his daughter had already succumbed. Therefore, he could have uttered both statements; Matthew mentioning her death, while Mark speaking about her sickness. However, it must be underlined that this is not a detail of any importance to the story, or to us. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]The crucial points are clear:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

    • [FONT=&quot]Jairus's daughter had a fatal illness.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
    • [FONT=&quot]All that could have been done would already have been: she was as good as dead if not already dead.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
    • [FONT=&quot]Jairus knew that Jesus could both heal her and bring her back from the dead. As far as he was concerned, there was no difference.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Therefore it is really of no significance whether the girl was actually dead or at the point of death when Jairus reached Jesus.'[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]40. Jesus allowed (Mark 6:8), or did not allow (Matthew 10:9; Luke 9:3) his disciples to keep a staff on their journey?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Greek usage)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is alleged that the Gospel writers contradict each other concerning whether Jesus allowed his disciples to take a staff on their journey or not. The problem is one of translation.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In Matthew we read the English translation of the Greek word "[/FONT][FONT=&quot][/FONT][FONT=&quot]", which is rendered in the King James (Authorized) translation as "Provide neither gold, nor silver nor yet staves". According to a Greek dictionary this word means "to get for oneself, to acquire, to procure, by purchase or otherwise" (Robinson, Lexicon of the New Testament). Therefore in Matthew Jesus is saying "Do not procure anything in addition to what you already have. Just go as you are." [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 10 and Mark 6 agree that Jesus directed his disciples to take along no extra equipment. Luke 9:3 agrees in part with the wording of Mark 6:8, using the verb in Greek, ("take"); but then, like Matthew adds "no staff, no bag, no bread, no money". But Matthew 10:10 includes what was apparently a further clarification: they were not to acquire a staff as part of their special equipment for the tour. Mark 6:8 seems to indicate that this did not necessarily involve discarding any staff they already had as they traveled the country with Jesus. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]However, this is not a definitive answer, only a possible explanation. This trivial difference does not effect the substantial agreement of the Gospels. We would not be troubled if this were, or is, a contradiction, for we do not have the same view of these Gospels as a Muslim is taught about the Qur'an. And if this is the pinnacle of Biblical contradictions when the Bible is said to be "full of contradictions" and "totally corrupted", then such people are obviously deluded. If indeed Christian scribes and translators had wished to alter the original Gospels, this "contradiction" would not have been here. It is a sign of the authenticity of the text as a human account of what took place, and is a clear sign that it has not been deliberately corrupted.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]41. Herod did (Matthew 14:2; Mark 6:16) or did not (Luke 9:9) think that Jesus was John the Baptist?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There is no contradiction here. In Luke 9:9, Herod asks who this incredible person could be, as John was now dead. In Matthew 14:2 and Mark 6:16 he gives his answer: after considering who Jesus could be, he concluded that he must be John the Baptist, raised from the dead. By the time Herod actually met Jesus, at his trial, he may not have still thought that it was John (Luke 23:8-11). If that were the case, he had most probably heard more about him and understood John's claims about preparing for one who was to come (John 1:15-34). He may well have heard that Jesus had been baptised by John, obviously ruling out the possibility that they were the same person.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]42. John the Baptist did (Matthew 3:13-14) or did not (John 1:32-33) recognize Jesus before his baptism?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the author's intent)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John's statement in John 1:33 that he would not have known Jesus except for seeing the Holy Spirit alight on him and remain, can be understood to mean that John would not have known for sure without this definite sign. John was filled with the Holy Spirit from before his birth (Luke 1:15) and we have record of an amazing recognition of Jesus even while John was in his mother's womb. Luke 1:41-44 relates that when Mary visited John's mother, the sound of her greeting prompted John, then still in the womb, to leap in recognition of Mary's presence, as the mother of the Lord. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]From this passage we can also see that John's mother had some knowledge about who Jesus would be. It is very likely that she told John something of this as he was growing up (even though it seems that she died while he was young). [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the light of this prior knowledge and the witness of the Holy Spirit within John, it is most likely that this sign of the Holy Spirit resting on Jesus was simply a sure confirmation of what he already thought. God removed any doubt so that he could be sure that it was not his imagination or someone else's mistake.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]43. John the Baptist did (John 1:32-33) or did not (Matthew 11:2) recognize Jesus after his baptism?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the passage of John 1:29-36 it is abundantly clear that John recognised Jesus. We should have no doubt at all about this.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 11:2 takes place later on, and many things have happened in the interum. John's original knowledge of Jesus was limited and it seems that subsequent events had disillusioned him somewhat. He did not know exactly what form Jesus' ministry would take. We are told from Matthew 3:11,12 some of what John knew: "He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire. His winnowing fork is in his hand, and he will clear his threshing-floor, gathering his wheat into the barn and burning up the chaff with unquenchable fire." This is the classic portrayal of the Messiah as the conquering king who would bring God's judgement on all those who reject him, bringing peace and justice to those who follow him. John obviously understood this. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]However, the Messiah was also portrayed in the scriptures as a suffering servant who would suffer on behalf of God's people. This is shown clearly in Isaiah 53, especially verse 12: "For he bore the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors". John also understood this, as shown by his statement in John 1:29: "Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!"[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What was sometimes not so well understood was how the two portrayals of the Messiah interacted. Many thought that the Messiah would bring his terrible judgement as soon as he came. In fact, this will occur when he returns again (his return is alluded to in Acts 1:11, for example). Some were confused, therefore, by Jesus' reluctance to act as a military leader and release the nation of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> from Roman oppression at that time.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This confusion is illustrated by Luke 24:13-33, where Jesus spoke with two of his followers on the road to Emmaus after his resurrection. They were initially kept from recognising him (v.16). They told him how they "had hoped that he was the one who was going to redeem <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>" (v.21). They were correct in this hope, but failed to understand the first stage in God's redemptive process. Jesus corrected their misunderstanding in v. 25,26: "How foolish you are, and how slow of heart to believe all that the prophets have spoken! Did not the Christ have to suffer these things and then enter his glory?" (emphasis added) [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is most likely that a similar misunderstanding prompted John's question in Matthew 11:2. Despite having been so sure of Jesus' identity as the Messiah of Israel, further events had clouded his certainty. After expecting Jesus to oust the Romans and restore the kingdom of Israel as in the days of king David, instead he had seen Jesus 'teach and preach in the towns of Galilee' (Matthew 11:1), with no mention of a military campaign. John surely wondered what had gone wrong: had he misunderstood the Messiah's role, or perhaps he had made a bigger mistake in thinking Jesus was the Messiah. Jesus' answer in Matthew 11:4-6 makes it clear:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Go back and report to John what you hear and see: The blind receive sight, the lame walk, those who have leprosy are cured, the deaf hear, the dead are raised, and the good news is preached to the poor. Blessed is the man who does not fall away on account of me."<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]These activities were Messianic prerogatives, as foretold by Isaiah 29:18; 35:5,6; 61:1-3. Although John's disillusionment was a natural human reaction, he had been right the first time. Jesus ended his reply with an exhortation to John not to give up hope. The Messiah was here without a doubt and all would be revealed in its proper time.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]44. When Jesus bears witness to himself, is his testimony not true (John 5:31) or is his testimony true (John 8:14)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"If I testify about myself, my testimony is not valid" (John 5:31) compared with "Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid" (John 8:14). It appears to be a contradiction, but only if the context is ignored.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In John 5 Jesus is speaking about how he cannot claim on his own to be the Messiah nor the Son of God, unless he is in line with God's revealed word. That is, without fulfilling the prophecies spoken in the Old Testament. But as Jesus did fulfil them and was proclaimed to be the Messiah by John the Baptist who the prophets also spoke of as heralding the way for the Messiah (see #34), then Jesus was indeed who he claimed to be, the Son of God. Jesus says of the Jewish scriptures which his listeners studied diligently, "These are the Scriptures that testify about me".[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We read of a somewhat different setting however in John 8. Jesus has just once again claimed to be the Messiah by quoting Old Testament Messianic prophecies and applying them to himself (John 8:12, Isaiah 9:2, Malachi 4:2). "Then some Pharisees challenged him, 'Here you are, appearing as your own witness; your testimony is not valid'." Verse 13. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is to this statement that Jesus responds "Yes it is". Why? Because the Pharisees were using a law from Deuteronomy 19:15 which says "One witness is not enough to convict a man accused of any crime or offense he may have committed. A matter must be established by the testimony of two or three witnesses. If a malicious witness takes the stand."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Therefore they broadened the law to mean more that it does actually say. Indeed, the testimony of one man was valid - however not enough to convict, but enough when used in defense to bring an acquittal. This law is not speaking about anyone making a claim about himself, only in a court when accused of a crime.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So when Jesus says in reply to them "Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid" he is right to do so as what the law referred to did not directly apply. He also says that he knew exactly who he was, whereas they did not. He was not lying to them; he was the sinless Messiah of God. Therefore his word could be trusted.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]However, it is a good principle not to believe just anyone who claims to be the Messiah. Any claimant must have proof. Therefore the second thing Jesus goes on to state in John 8 is that he has these witnesses too, the witnesses that the Pharisees were asking for. "I am one who testifies for myself; my other witness is the Father who sent me." Verse 18. The same proclamation as in John 5 that he was fulfilling the prophecies that they knew (see just before this incident in John 7:42 for further proof of this point).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There is no contradiction, simply clarity and great depth which can be seen when Jesus' is viewed in context, in his fertile Jewish culture and setting.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]45. When Jesus entered <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> he cleansed (Matthew 21:12) or did not cleanse (Mark 11:1-17) the temple that same day, but the next day?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the author's intent)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The key to understanding may be found in Matthew's use of narrative. At times he can be seen to arrange his material in topical order rather than strict chronological sequence. See the next question (#46) for more details.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]With this in mind, it is probable that Matthew relates the cleansing of the temple along with the triumphal entry, even though the cleansing occurred the next day. Verse 12 states that 'Jesus entered the temple' but does not say clearly that it was immediately following the entry into <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>.. Verse 17 informs us that he left <st1:city w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:city> and went to <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Bethany</st1:place></st1:city>, where he spent the night. Mark 11:11 also has him going out to <st1:city w:st="on">Bethany</st1:city> for the night, but this is something that he did each night of that week in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 21:23 states: "Jesus entered the temple courts" in a similar fashion to verse 12, yet Luke 20:1 says that the following incident occurred "one day", indicating that it may not have been immediately after the fig tree incident.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]According to this possible interpretation, Jesus entered the temple on the day of his triumphal entry, looked around and retired to <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Bethany</st1:place></st1:city>. The next morning he cursed the fig tree on the way to <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> (at which time it started to wither) and cleansed the temple when he got there. Returning to <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Bethany</st1:place></st1:city> that evening, probably as it was getting dark, the withered fig tree may not have been noticed by the disciples. It was only the following morning in the full light of day that they saw what had happened to it.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1994:334.335)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]46. Matthew 21:19 says that the tree which Jesus cursed withered at once, whereas Mark 11:20 maintains that it withered overnight.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the author's intent)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The differences found between the accounts of Matthew and Mark concerning the fig tree have much to do with the order both Matthew and Mark used in arranging their material. When we study the narrative technique of Matthew in general, we find (as was noted in #45 above) that he sometimes arranges his material in a topical order rather than in the strictly chronological order that is more often characteristic of Mark and Luke.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]For instance, if we look at chapters 5-7 of Matthew which deal with the sermon on the Mount, it is quite conceivable that portions of the sermon on the Mount teachings are found some times in other settings, such as in the sermon on the plain in Luke (6:20-49). Matthew's tendency was to group his material in themes according to a logical sequence. We find another example of this exhibited in a series of parables of the kingdom of heaven that make up chapter 13. Once a theme has been broached, Matthew prefers to carry it through to its completion, as a general rule.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When we see it from this perspective it is to Mark that we look to when trying to ascertain the chronology of an event. In Mark's account we find that Jesus went to the temple on both Palm Sunday and the following Monday. But in Mark 11:11-19 it is clearly stated that Jesus did not expel the tradesmen from the temple until Monday, after he had cursed the barren fig tree (verses 12 to 14).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]To conclude then, Matthew felt it suited his topical approach more effectively to include the Monday afternoon action with the Sunday afternoon initial observation, whereas Mark preferred to follow a strict chronological sequence. These differences are not contradictory, but show merely a different style in arrangement by each author.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1982:334-335 and Light of Life III 1992:96-97)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<st1:metricconverter productid="47. In" w:st="on">[FONT=&quot]47. In[/FONT]</st1:metricconverter>[FONT=&quot] Matthew 26:48-50 Judas came up and kissed Jesus, whereas in John 18:3-12 Judas could not get close enough to Jesus to kiss him.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misquoted the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is rather an odd seeming discrepancy by Shabbir, for nowhere in the John account does it say (as Shabbir forthrightly maintains) that Judas could not get close enough to Jesus to kiss him. Not being able to get close to him had nothing, therefore, to do with whether he kissed him or not. It seems that Shabbir imagines this to be the problem and so imposes it onto the text. The fact that John does not mention a kiss does not mean Judas did not use a kiss. Many times we have seen where one of the gospel writers includes a piece of information which another leaves out. That does not imply that either one is wrong, only that, as witnesses, they view an event by different means, and so include into their testimony only that which they deem to be important.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Light of Life III 1992:107)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]48. Did Peter deny Christ three times before the cock crowed (John 13:38), or three times before the cock crowed twice (Mark 14:30, 72)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: discovery of earlier manuscripts)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This accusation is that Jesus says to Peter "the cock will not crow till you have denied me three times" (John 13:38) and also "Before the cock crows twice you will deny me three times" (Mark 14:30). However, as the King James translation has it the cock crowed prior to Peter's third denial in Mark, while the prediction in John failed. This problem is one of manuscript evidence. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 26:33-35, 74-75 "before the cock crows you will disown me three times"[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke 22:31-34, 60-62 "before the cock crows today, you will deny three times that you know me"[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John 13:38 "before the cock crows, you will disown me three times"[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mark is therefore the odd one out. This is probably due to the second crow being a later addition to the original Gospel for some unknown reason. Some early manuscripts of Mark do not have the words "a second time" and "twice" in 14:72, nor the word "twice" in 14:30, or the cock crowing a first time in verse 14:68 as in the King James translation. Therefore an erroneous addition is spotted by the clarity of having 4 accounts of the event and many early manuscripts of the Gospel of Mark.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]However, another explanation is plausible if the first crow verse (<st1:metricconverter productid="68 in" w:st="on">68 in</st1:metricconverter> the King James) was not in the original but the others ("twice" in 30 and 72) were, as in the New International translation. For as a cock can (and often does) crow more than once in a row, there would be no contradiction (the first and second crows being together, with Peter remembering Jesus' prediction on the second crow), for since we may be very sure that if a rooster crows twice, he has at least crowed once. Mark therefore just included more information in his account than the other gospel writers.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Although I am not an expert on the manuscripts used for the King James translation and do not know a great deal about why later, more accurate translators had enough manuscript evidence to omit verse 68 but not the others, I think that the first reason is more likely. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]49. Jesus did (John 19:17) or did not (Matthew 27:31-32) bear his own cross?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text or the texts are compatible with a little thought)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John 19:17 states that he went out carrying his own cross to the place of the skull. Matthew 27:31,32 tells us that he was led out to be crucified and that it was only as they were going out to <st1:place w:st="on">Golgotha</st1:place> that Simon was forced to carry the cross. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mark 15:20,21 agrees with Matthew and gives us the additional information that Jesus started out from inside the palace (Praetorium). As Simon was on his way in from the country, it is clear that he was passing by in the street. This implies that Jesus carried his cross for some distance, from the palace into the street. Weak from his floggings and torture, it is likely that he either collapsed under the weight of the cross or was going very slowly. In any case, the soldiers forced Simon to carry the cross for him. Luke 23:26 is in agreement, stating that Simon was seized as they led Jesus away.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Thus the contradiction vanishes. Jesus started out carrying the cross and Simon took over at some point during the journey.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]50. Did Jesus die before (Matthew 27:50-51; Mark 15:37-38), or after (Luke 23:45-46) the curtain of the temple was torn?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]After reading the three passages Matthew 27:50-51, Mark 15:37-38 and Luke 23:45-46, it is not clear where the apparent contradictions are that Shabbir has pointed out. All three passages point to the fact that at the time of Jesus' death the curtain in the temple was torn. It does not stand to reason that because both Matthew and Mark mention the event of Christ's death before mentioning the curtain tearing, while Luke mentions it in reverse order, that they are therefore in contradiction, as Matthew states that the two events happened, 'At that moment', and the other two passages nowhere deny this.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]They all agree that these two events happened simultaneously for a very good reason; for the curtain was there as a barrier between God and man. Its destruction coincides with the death of the Messiah, thereby allowing man the opportunity for the first time since Adam's expulsion from God's presence at the garden of Eden, to once again be reunited with Him.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]51. Did Jesus say everything openly (John 18:20) or did he speak secretly to his disciples (Mark 4:34, Matthew 13:10-11)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The reason people say that Jesus contradicts himself about saying things secretly or not, especially in relation to parables, is due to a lack of textual and cultural contextualising.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This answer requires significant background information, some of which I hope to give briefly here. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Firstly, what is a parable? It is a story given in order to clarify, emphasize or illustrate a teaching, not a teaching within itself. Jesus was a Jewish Rabbi. In Rabbinical literature there are approximately 4000 parables recorded. It was thought by Rabbis to be good practice to divide their instruction of the people into three parts, the latter third typically being two parables representative to the first two thirds. Jesus carries on in this tradition with just over one third of his recorded instruction being in the form of parables. He drew upon a wealth of images that the Israelis of his day knew, using common motifs such as plants, animals etc. Therefore the point of each of Jesus' parables was clear to all the listeners, which can be seen from the Gospels too. Parables were so rich and also so subtle that not only could they drive home a clear and simple point to the ordinary listener, but the scholars could turn them over and over in their mind, deriving greater and greater meaning from them. So, Jesus often expanded on the meaning of a parable to his disciples, his close students, in response to their inquiry or to instruct them further as any Jewish Rabbi would.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This can be seen from reading Mark 4:34 in context. For it says, "With many similar parables Jesus spoke the word to them [the crowds], as much as they could understand. He did not say anything to them without using a parable [to clarify, emphasize or illustrate the teaching]. But when he was alone with his own disciples he explained everything [taught them more, for they could understand more than the crowds]."Mark 4:33-34.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Therefore parables were not secret teachings. They are not esoteric knowledge given only to the initiated. It makes no sense (nor has any historical basis) to say that Jesus went around confusing people. He went around in order to teach and instruct people. So when Jesus was asked while on trial in court (John 18:20) about his teaching, he says something to the words of "I taught publicly - everyone heard my words. You know I taught. I did not teach in secret." He was right.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As all this is true, what are these "secrets of the kingdom of heaven" which Jesus speaks of? The only 'secret' ("the mystery hidden for long ages past, but now revealed and made known through the prophetic writing by the command of the eternal God, so that the nations might believe and obey him" (Romans 16:25-26) is that Jesus is Lord![/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This secret was that Jesus' mission was foretold by the prophets, that he was the fulfillment of these prophecies and the greatest revelation that would ever be given to mankind. His words were not only for the saving of people, but also for the judging of people because they were "ever hearing but never understanding, ever seeing but never perceiving" (Matthew 13:14) as many of the hearers of the parables were unwilling to repent and submit to God.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Many people enjoyed Jesus' teaching, came for the nice moral discourses and the excellent parables, but not many followed him as the cost was too great (see Luke 9:57-61, 14:25-27, 33). But it was these things his disciples were beginning to understand because they truly followed Jesus. The secrets of the kingdom of heaven is what he said to his disciples following (and explaining) Matthew 13:10-11: [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"But blessed are your eyes because they see, and your ears because they hear [/FONT][FONT=&quot][unlike the crowds]. For I tell you the truth, many prophets and righteous men longed to see what you see but did not see it, and to hear what you hear but did not hear it" [as they did not live during the lifetime of Jesus - all the prophets were before him]. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The secret is Jesus is Lord, Jesus is king, Jesus is Messiah, Jesus is the one all the prophets spoke of, the salvation of mankind, God's greatest revelation, the Alpha and the Omega (Revelation 21:6-8, 22:12-16), the only way to be right with God (John 3:36, Romans 6:23).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]52. Was Jesus on the cross (Mark 15:23) or in Pilate's court (John 19:14) at the sixth hour on the day of the crucifixion?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The simple answer to this is that the synoptic writers (Matthew, Mark and Luke) employed a different system of numbering the hours of day to that used by John. The synoptics use the traditional Hebrew system, where the hours were numbered from sunrise (approximately 6:00am in modern reckoning), making the crucifixion about 9:00am, the third hour by this system..[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John, on the other hand, uses the Roman civil day. This reckoned the day from midnight to midnight, as we do today. Pliny the Elder (Natural History 2.77)and Macrobius (Saturnalia 1.3) both tell us as much. Thus, by the Roman system employed by John, Jesus' trial by night was in its end stages by the sixth hour (6:00am), which was the first hour of the Hebrew reckoning used in the synoptics. Between this point and the crucifixion, Jesus underwent a brutal flogging and was repeatedly mocked and beaten by the soldiers in the Praetorium (Mark 15:16-20). The crucifixion itself occurred at the third hour in the Hebrew reckoning, which is the ninth in the Roman, or 9:00am by our modern thinking. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is not just a neat twist to escape a problem, as there is every reason to suppose that John used the Roman system, even though he was just as Jewish as Matthew, Mark and Luke. John's gospel was written after the other three, around AD90, while he was living in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ephesus</st1:place></st1:city>. This was the capital of the Roman province of <st1:place w:st="on">Asia</st1:place>, so John would have become used to reckoning the day according to the Roman usage. Further evidence of him doing so is found in John 21:19: 'On the evening of that first day of the week'. This was Sunday evening, which in Hebrew thinking was actually part of the second day, each day beginning at sunset. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1994:363-364) [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]53. The two thieves crucified with Jesus either did (Mark 15:32) or did not (Luke 23:43) mock Jesus?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: too literalistic an interpretation)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This apparent contradiction asks did both thieves crucified with Jesus mock him or just one. Mark 15:23 says both did. Luke 23:43 says one mocked and one defended Jesus. It isn't too difficult to see what it going on here. The obvious conclusion is that both thieves mocked Jesus initially. However after Jesus had said, "Father, forgive them, for they do not know what they are doing," one of the robbers seems to have had a change of heart and repented on the cross, while the other continued in his mocking.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There is a lesson here which shouldn't be overlooked; that the Lord allows us at any time to repent, no matter what crime or sin we have committed. These two thieves are symptomatic of all of us. Some of us when faced with the reality of Christ continue to reject him and mock him, while others accept our sinfulness and ask for forgiveness. The good news is that like the thief on the cross, we can be exonerated from that sin at any time, even while 'looking at death in the face'.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]54. Did Jesus ascend to <st1:place w:st="on">Paradise</st1:place> the same day of the crucifixion (Luke 23:43), or two days later (John 20:17)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood how God works in history)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The idea that Jesus contradicts himself (or the Gospels contradict themselves) concerning whether he had ascended to Paradise or not after his death on the cross is due to assumptions about <st1:place w:st="on">Paradise</st1:place> as well as the need to contextualize. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
 
Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

<meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"><meta name="ProgId" content="Word.Document"><meta name="Generator" content="Microsoft Word 11"><meta name="Originator" content="Microsoft Word 11"><link rel="File-List" href="file:///C:%5CDOCUME%7E1%5CADMINI%7E1%5CCONFIG%7E1%5CTemp%5Cmsohtml1%5C12%5Cclip_filelist.xml"><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="PlaceName"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="PlaceType"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="City"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="country-region"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="place"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="metricconverter"></o:smarttagtype><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:WordDocument> <w:View>Normal</w:View> <w:Zoom>0</w:Zoom> <w:HyphenationZone>21</w:HyphenationZone> <w:punctuationKerning/> <w:ValidateAgainstSchemas/> <w:SaveIfXMLInvalid>false</w:SaveIfXMLInvalid> <w:IgnoreMixedContent>false</w:IgnoreMixedContent> <w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText>false</w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText> <w:Compatibility> <w:BreakWrappedTables/> <w:SnapToGridInCell/> <w:WrapTextWithPunct/> <w:UseAsianBreakRules/> <w:DontGrowAutofit/> </w:Compatibility> <w:BrowserLevel>MicrosoftInternetExplorer4</w:BrowserLevel> </w:WordDocument> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:LatentStyles DefLockedState="false" LatentStyleCount="156"> </w:LatentStyles> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if !mso]><object classid="clsid:38481807-CA0E-42D2-BF39-B33AF135CC4D" id=ieooui></object> <style> st1\:*{behavior:url(#ieooui) } </style> <![endif]--><style> <!-- /* Font Definitions */ @font-face {font-family:Calibri; panose-1:2 15 5 2 2 2 4 3 2 4; mso-font-charset:0; mso-generic-font-family:swiss; mso-font-pitch:variable; mso-font-signature:-1610611985 1073750139 0 0 159 0;} @font-face {font-family:"Agency FB"; panose-1:2 11 5 3 2 2 2 2 2 4; mso-font-charset:0; mso-generic-font-family:swiss; mso-font-pitch:variable; mso-font-signature:3 0 0 0 1 0;} /* Style Definitions */ p.MsoNormal, li.MsoNormal, div.MsoNormal {mso-style-parent:""; margin-top:0cm; margin-right:0cm; margin-bottom:10.0pt; margin-left:0cm; line-height:115%; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:11.0pt; font-family:Calibri; mso-fareast-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-bidi-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-fareast-language:EN-US;} @page Section1 {size:612.0pt 792.0pt; margin:70.85pt 3.0cm 70.85pt 3.0cm; mso-header-margin:36.0pt; mso-footer-margin:36.0pt; mso-paper-source:0;} div.Section1 {page:Section1;} --> </style><!--[if gte mso 10]> <style> /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Tabla normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0cm 5.4pt 0cm 5.4pt; mso-para-margin:0cm; mso-para-margin-bottom:.0001pt; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:10.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]Jesus says to the thief on the cross "Today you will be with me in <st1:place w:st="on">Paradise</st1:place>". This was indeed true. For the thief was to die that same day on earth; but in paradise "today" is any day in this world, as Heaven is outside of time. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus says to Mary Magdalene, according to the rendering of the King James translation, that he had not yet "ascended" to his Father. However, this could also be rendered "returned" to his Father.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus was with God, and was God, before the beginning of the world (John 1 and Philippians 2:6-11). He left all his glory and became fully God, fully man. Later, God did exalt Jesus to the highest place once more, to the right hand of Himself (see Acts 7:56). This had not yet taken place in John 20:17. Jesus saying "for I have not yet returned to the Father" does not rule out the possibility that he was in heaven between his death and resurrection in "our time" (although Heaven is outside of time). By way of parallel (albeit an imperfect one), I do go to my original home and the area where I grew up without returning there. Returning as in myself being restored to what was.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]However, a more likely understanding of the text has to do with the context. Another way to say, "Do not hold on to me, for I have not ascended to my Father. Go instead to my brothers...", would be, "Do not hang on to me Mary - I have not left you all yet. You will see me again. But now, I want you to go and tell my disciples that I am going to my Father soon, but not yet".[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Both Islam and Christianity believe in the resurrection of the body, and both believe in the intermediate state. In Luke, Jesus dies, and his spirit ascended to <st1:place w:st="on">Paradise</st1:place> (see vs. 46). In John, Jesus has been bodily resurrected, and in that state, he had not yet ascended to the Father.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The time factor makes this somewhat paradoxical but the texts are not mutually exclusive. There is no contradiction.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]55. When Paul was on the road to <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Damascus</st1:place></st1:city> he saw a light and heard a voice. Did those who were with him hear the voice (Acts 9:7), or did they not (Acts 22:9)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Greek usage or the text is compatible with a little thought)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Although the same Greek word is used in both accounts (akouo), it has two distinct meanings: to perceive sound and to understand. Therefore, the explanation is clear: they heard something but did not understand what it was saying. Paul, on the other hand, heard and understood. There is no contradiction.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Haley p.359)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]56. When Paul saw the light and fell to the ground, did his traveling companions fall (Acts 26:14) or did they not fall (Acts 9:7) to the ground?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Greek usage or the text is compatible with a little thought)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are two possible explanations of this point. The word rendered 'stood' also means to be fixed, to be rooted to the spot. This is something that can be experienced whether standing up or lying down.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]An alternative explanation is this: Acts 26:14 states that the initial falling to the ground occurred when the light flashed around, before the voice was heard. Acts 9:7 says that the men 'stood speechless' after the voice had spoken. There would be ample time for them to stand up whilst the voice was speaking to Saul, especially as it had no significance or meaning to them. Saul, on the other hand, understood the voice and was no doubt transfixed with fear as he suddenly realized that for so long he had been persecuting and killing those who were following God. He had in effect been working against the God whom he thought he was serving. This terrible realization evidently kept him on the ground longer than his companions. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Haley p.359)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]57. Did the voice tell Paul what he was to do on the spot (Acts 26:16-18), or was he commanded to go to <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Damascus</st1:place></st1:city> to be told what to do (Acts 9:7; 22:10)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Paul was told his duties in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Damascus</st1:place></st1:city> as can be seen from Acts 9 and 22. However in Acts 26 the context is different. In this chapter Paul doesn't worry about the chronological or geographical order of events because he is talking to people who have already heard his story.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In Acts 9:1-31 Luke, the author of Acts, narrates the conversion of Saul. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In Acts 22:1-21 Luke narrates Paul speaking to Jews, who knew who Paul was and had actually caused him to be arrested and kept in the Roman Army barracks in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>. He speaks to the Jews from the steps of the barracks and starts off by giving his credentials as a Jew, before launching into a detailed account of his meeting with the Lord Jesus Christ and his conversion.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In Acts 26:2-23 Luke, however, narrates the speech given by Paul, (who was imprisoned for at least two years after his arrest in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> and his speech in Acts 22,). This was given to the Roman Governor Festus and King Herod Agrippa, both of whom were already familiar with the case. (Read the preceding Chapters). Therefore they did not require a full blown explanation of Paul's case, but a summary. Which is exactly what Paul gives them. This is further highlighted by Paul reminding them of his Jewish credentials in one part of a sentence, "I lived as a Pharisee," as opposed to two sentences in Acts 22:3. Paul also later in the Chapter is aware that King Agrippa is aware of the things that have happened in verses 25-27.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]58. Did 24,000 Israelites die in the plague in 'Shittim' (Numbers 25:1, 9), or was it only 23,000 Israelites who died (1 Corinthians 10:8)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: confused this incident with another)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This apparent contradiction asks how many people died from the plague that occurred in Shittim (which incidentally is misspelt 'Shittin' in Shabbir's pamphlet). Numbers 25:1-9 and 1 Corinthians 10:8 are contrasted. Shabbir is referring to the wrong plague here.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If he had looked at the context of 1 Corinthians 10, he would have noted that Paul was referring to the plague in Exodus 32:28, which takes place at Mt. Sinai and not to that found in Numbers 25, which takes place in Shittim, amongst the Moabites. If there is any doubt refer to verse 7 of 1 Corinthians 10, which quotes almost exactly from Exodus 32:6, "Afterwards they sat down to eat and drink and got up to indulge in revelry."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Now there are those who may say that the number killed in the Exodus 32 account were 3,000 (Exodus 32:28) another seeming contradiction, but one which is easily rectified once you read the rest of the text. The 3,000 killed in verse 28 account for only those killed by men with swords. This is followed by a plague which the Lord brings against those who had sinned against him in verse 35, which says, "And the Lord struck the people with a plague because of what they did with the calf Aaron had made." It is to this plague which Paul refers to in 1 Corinthians 10:8. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Geisler/Howe 1992:458-459)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]59. Did 70 members of the house of Jacob come to <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> (Genesis 46:27), or was it 75 members (Acts 7:14)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This apparent contradiction asks how many members of the house of Jacob went to <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>. The two passages contrasted are Genesis 46:27 and Acts 7:14. However both passages are correct. In the Genesis 46:1-27 the total number of direct descendants that traveled to <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> with Jacob were <st1:metricconverter productid="66 in" w:st="on">66 in</st1:metricconverter> number according to verse 26. This is because <st1:country-region w:st="on">Judah</st1:country-region> was sent on ahead in verse 28 of Chapter 46 and because Joseph and his two sons were already in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>. However in verse 27 all the members of the family are included, including Joseph and his sons and Judah making a total number of 70, referring to the total number of Jacob's family that ended up in <st1:country-region w:st="on">Egypt</st1:country-region> not just those that traveled with him to <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the older Septuagint and Dead Sea Scroll manuscripts the number given in verse 27 is 75. This is because they also include Joseph's three grandsons and two great grandsons listed in Numbers 26:28-37, and in at least the Septuagint version their names are listed in Genesis 46:20. Therefore the Acts 7:14 quotation of Stephen's speech before his martyrdom is correct because he was quoting from the Septuagint.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]60. Did Judas buy a field (Acts 1:18) with his blood-money for betraying Jesus, or did he throw it into the temple (Matthew 27:5)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the author's intent)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This apparent contradiction asks, 'What did Judas do with the blood money he received for betraying Jesus?' In Acts 1:18 it is claimed that Judas bought a field. In Matthew 27:5 it was thrown into the <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Temple</st1:place></st1:city> from where the priests used it to buy a field. However, upon closer scrutiny it appears one passage is just a summary of the other.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 27:1-10 describes in detail the events that happened in regard to Judas betrayal of Jesus, and their significance in terms of the fulfillment of the Scriptures. In particular he quotes from the prophet Zechariah 11:12-13 which many think are clarifications of the prophecies found in Jeremiah 19:1-13 and 32:6-9.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the Acts 1:18-19 passage however, Luke is making a short resume of something that people already knew, as a point of clarification to the speech of Peter, among the believers (the same situation as we found in question number 57 earlier). This is illustrated by the fact that in verse 19 he says, "Everyone in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> heard about this". Also it is more than probable that the Gospel record was already being circulated amongst the believers at the time of Luke's writing. Luke, therefore, was not required to go into detail about the facts of Judas' death.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]61. Did Judas die by hanging himself (Matthew 27:5) or by falling headlong and bursting open with all his bowels gushing out (Acts 1:18)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: the texts are compatible with a little thought)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This alleged contradiction is related to the fact that Matthew in his Gospel speaks of Judas hanging himself but in Acts 1:18 Luke speaks about Judas falling headlong and his innards gushing out. However both of these statements are true.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 27:1-10 mentioned the fact that Judas died by hanging himself in order to be strictly factual. Luke, however in his report in Acts1:18-19 wants to cause the feeling of revulsion among his readers, for the field spoken about and for Judas, and nowhere denies that Judas died by hanging. According to tradition, it would seem that Judas hanged himself on the edge of a cliff, above the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Valley</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Hinnom</st1:placename></st1:place>. Eventually the rope snapped, was cut or untied and Judas fell upon the field below as described by Luke.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]62. Is the field called the 'field of blood' because the priest bought it with blood money (Matthew 27:8), or because of Judas's bloody death (Acts 1:19)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the wording)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Once again, looking at the same two passages as the last two apparent contradictions Shabbir asks why the field where Judas was buried called the Field of Blood? Matthew 27:8 says that it is because it was bought with blood-money, while, according to Shabbir Acts 1:19 says that it was because of the bloody death of Judas.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]However both passages agree that it was due to it being bought by blood-money. Acts 1:18-19 starts by saying, "With the reward he got for his wickedness, Judas bought a field". So it begins with the assumption that the field was bought by the blood-money, and then the author intending to cause revulsion for what had happened describes Judas bloody end on that piece of real estate. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]63. How can the ransom which Christ gives for all, which is good (Mark 10:45; 1 Timothy 2:5-6), be the same as the ransom of the wicked (Proverbs 21:18)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood how God works in history)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This contradiction asks, 'Who is a ransom for whom?' Shabbir uses passages from Mark 10:45 and 1 Timothy 2:5-6 to show that it is Jesus that is a ransom for all. This is compared to Proverbs 21:18 which speaks of "The wicked become a ransom for the righteous, and the unfaithful for the upright."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There is no contradiction here as they are talking about two different types of ransom. A ransom is a payment by one party to another. It can be made by a good person for others, as we see Christ does for the world, or it can be made by evil people as payment for the evil they have done, as we see in the Proverbs passage.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The assumption being made by Shabbir in the Mark and 1 Timothy passages is that Jesus was good and could therefore not be a ransom for the unrighteous. In this premise he reflects the Islamic denial that someone can pay for the sins of another, or can be a ransom for another. He must not, however impose this interpretation on the Bible. Christ as a ransom for the many is clearly taught in the Bible. Galatians 3:13-14 and 1 Peter 2:23-25 speak of Jesus becoming a curse for us. Therefore Jesus has fulfilled even this proverb.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Again Shabbir's supposition relies upon quotations being taken out of their context. The Mark 10:45 passage starts off by quoting Jesus as saying, "For even the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many." This was spoken by Jesus because the disciples had been arguing over the fact that James and John had approached Jesus about sitting at his right and left side when Christ came into his glory. Here Jesus is again prophesying his death which is to come and the reason for that death, that he would be the ransom payment that would atone for all people's sin.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In 1 Timothy 2:5-6 Paul is here speaking, saying,[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, who gave himself as a ransom for all men-the testimony given in its proper time." [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This comes in the middle of a passage instructing the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placename w:st="on">Early</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">Church</st1:placetype></st1:place> on worshiping God. These two verses give the reason and the meaning of worshiping God. The redemptive ransom given by God, that through this mediator Jesus Christ's atoning work on the Cross, God may once again have that saving relationship with man.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Proverbs 21:18 passage speaks however of the ransom that God paid through Egypt in the Exodus of Israel from Egypt, as is highlighted in the book of Isaiah, but particularly in Chapter 43:3;[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"For I am the LORD, your God, the Holy One of <st1:country-region w:st="on">Israel</st1:country-region>, your Saviour; I give <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> for your ransom, Cush and Seba in your stead."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This picture is further heightened in verses 16 and 17 of the same Chapter. This also has some foundation from the book of Exodus 7:5; 8:19; 10:7; 12:33. Chapters 13 and 14 particularly point to this. As history records for us in the Bible it was through this action that the Old Covenant was established between God and the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Kingdom</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Israel</st1:placename></st1:place>. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]64. Is all scripture profitable (2 Timothy 3:16) or not profitable (Hebrews 7:18)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood how God works in history)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The accusation is that the Bible says all scripture is profitable as well as stating that a former commandment is weak and useless, and therein lies the contradiction. This is a contextual problem and arises through ignorance of what God promised to do speaking through the Prophets, concerning the two covenants which He instituted.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Due to space this wonderful issue cannot be looked at in depth here. However, some background information will have to be given in order for a reader, unfamiliar with the Bible, to understand what we are saying here. In order to illustrate I will draw a parallel from question #92 which speaks of the wealth behind many of the Hebrew words used in the Bible; in that particular case the ability we have to interpret the word 'niham' as either changing one's mind, repenting, or to be aggrieved (refer to the question for a further understanding of the context).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God's word obviously originates from Him alone, and is indeed useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training as 2 Timothy states. That is a general statement which refers to all that which comes from God.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hebrews chapter 7 speaks of a particular commandment given to a particular people at a specific time; the sacrificial system in the Tabernacle and later the <st1:city w:st="on">Temple</st1:city> in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>. God established in His covenant with His people Israel a system where they would offer sacrifices, animals to be killed, in order for God to forgive them of their sins; particularly what God calls in Leviticus chapters 4 to 6, the "sin offering" and the "guilt offering". [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This concept of substitutional death is foreign to Islam, but is fundamental to Biblical Judaism and Christianity. Atonement must take place for sin. The penalty of sin is death, and someone has to pay that price. There is no forgiveness for sin without the shedding of blood, for God demands justice. He cannot just ignore it for that would not be just.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God indeed established this system of atonement as the Old Testament shows by referring to the need for atonement 79 times! However, it also records God saying "The time is coming, declares the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of <st1:country-region w:st="on">Israel</st1:country-region> and with the house of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Judah</st1:place></st1:country-region>. It will not be like the covenant I made with their forefathers when I took them by the hand and led them out of Egypt" [i.e. at Mount Sinai where He gave the first covenant to the people of Israel just after God saved them from Egypt] (Jeremiah 31:31-33). The reason God gives is that the people did not remain faithful to it. Thus the new covenant will be different as God says, "I will put my laws in their minds and write them on their hearts" (vs. 33). He says also that this new covenant will necessitate a once-for-all payment for their sins, unlike the previous covenant (Jeremiah 31:34, Daniel 9:24-25).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God also speaks in the Old Testament of the Messiah who would bring this about. A Messiah not from the Levitical priesthood, but a perfect man from the tribe of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Judah</st1:place></st1:country-region> who would be a priest unto God. He, the Messiah would be the sacrifice that would pay for all sin in one go, and approach God not on the merit of his ancestry (as with the Levitical priests), but on his own merit, being like God, perfect. If people follow this Messiah and accept his payment of the penalty for sin for them, then God will write the law on their minds and hearts, and God can be merciful to them as His justice has been satisfied. Then they too can draw near to God, for God wants to be in relationship with His creation (Genesis 3:8-11) and it is only sin which stops that.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Obviously this is quite involved and only a comprehensive reading of the Old Testament will explain it adequately. All scripture is profitable, including that concerning the sacrificial system. However, God also promised in the Bible to make a renewed covenant with His people. In this the original system was replaced with the perfect sacrifice of the Messiah, Jesus.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Many scriptures describe this Messiah who would bring about this new covenant. In this God "makes his life a guilt offering" and we are told "Surely he took up our infirmities [sins] and carried our sorrows, he was pierced for our transgressions, he was crushed for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us peace [with God] was upon him." See Isaiah chapter 53.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]You can pay the price for your sin if you wish - it will cost you your life eternally. You will die for your own sin and go to hell. Or, because of the love of God, the Messiah can pay that price for you, and be "pierced" in substitution for you, which will bring you peace with God. Then God will permit you to enter heaven for eternity as His justice is satisfied. For as John the Baptist when seeing Jesus mentioned, "Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sins of the word!" He also said, "Whoever believes in the Son [Jesus] has eternal life, but whoever rejects the Son will not see life, for God's wrath remains on him." John 1:29, 3:36.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God teaches that He will do this. It was fulfilled in the death and resurrection of the Messiah, Jesus, EXACTLY as the Old Testament said it would happen, and the new covenant was established. Sin was paid for once for all by the "Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world" as John the Baptist announced upon seeing Jesus (see #34 and #44). He is the one God promised. So through his death the old system of sacrifices, offering animals over and over again, became unnecessary. God's alternative, which is vastly superior and comprehensive, rendered by God himself the previous system useless (Hebrews 8:7-13). [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So, like clarification #92, God did not change His mind on His plan for enabling people to be right with Him. God is not a man that He should change His mind. It was His intention and plan all along to bring in this new covenant as a fulfilment of the old, as the Old Testament shows. A further point needs to be addressed a here. These ceremonial laws were required of the Israelites alone, as they were the ones who operating within the stipulations, ordinances and decrees of the Mosaic covenant. Any Gentile, or non-Israelite, who wished to convert to Judaism, was obligated to observe these covenantal ordinances as well. But Christians are not converts to Judaism. They are believers in Jesus, God's Messiah, the Savior. They operate within the context of a "new covenant," the one established in Jesus' blood by his atoning sacrifice, not the old covenant which God made with <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> at Sinai. Within this new covenant, Christians too have commandments, and in one manner or another they all relate to what was written in the Old Testament, but now in an entirely new context, that of fulfilment. So there is a clear line of continuity, revelation and renewal between the covenants, new and old - because both <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> and Christianity have the Messiah in common, and it was the Hebrew Scriptures that he fulfilled. Therefore all those Scriptures are profitable for studying, to know where we have come from, and where we are going. But not every commandment, ordinance or decree in the Old Testament is applicable to Christians in the same way it was (or is) to <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>. Though we have much in common, we have distinct covenants, a new covenant, which present Jews need to read about and acquiesce to, as it fulfills all that they look for and continue to hope for.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Note: a parallel to this, although an imperfect one, can be draw for the Muslim from the Qur'an. Sura 3:49-50. Jesus comes and says to the people of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> "I have come to you to affirm the Law which was before me. And to make lawful to you what was before forbidden to you", or "to make halal what was haram". According to this he came and confirmed the law which God had given to them, but he made some things permissible for them which God had previously prohibited. This is not true according to the Bible in the context of this "contradiction" and cannot be said for Judaism and Christianity. It is just a parallel to show that the Qur'an testifies of such things too.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]65. Was the exact wording on the cross, as ( Matthew 27:37, Mark 15:26, Luke 23:38, and John 19:19) all seem to have different wordings?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This seeming contradiction takes on the question, 'What was the exact wording on the cross?' It is argued that Matthew 27:37, Mark 15:26, Luke 23:38, and John 19:19 all use different words posted above Jesus's head while hanging on the cross. This can be better understood by looking at John 19:20 which says;[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Many of the Jews read this sign, for the place where Jesus was crucified was near the city, and the sign was written in Aramaic, Latin and Greek."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is interesting that Pilate is said to have written the sign and may have written different things in each of the languages according to Pilate's proficiency in each of the languages. The key charge brought against Jesus in all of the Gospels is that he claimed to be 'King of the Jews'. If this had been missing from any of the accounts then there may have been a possible concern for a contradiction here; but this is not the case. For a further explanation of this see Archer's explanation.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1982:345-346). [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]66. Did Herod want to kill John the Baptist (Matthew 14:5), or was it his wife Herodias (Mark 6:20)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the author's intent)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The supposed contradiction pointed out by Shabbir is, 'Did Herod want to kill John the Baptist?' The passages used by Shabbir to promote his conjecture are Matthew 14:5 where it appears to say that Herod did and Mark 6:20 where Shabbir suggests that Herod did not want to kill him. However the passages in question are complimentary passages. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When we look at the whole story we see that Matthew 14:1-11 and Mark 6:14-29, as far as I have been able to see nowhere contradict each other. This seems to be a similarly weak attempt to find a contradiction within the Bible to that of contradiction <st1:metricconverter productid="50. In" w:st="on">50. In</st1:metricconverter> both passages Herod has John imprisoned because of his wife Herodias. Therefore it is the underlying influence of Herodias on Herod that is the important factor in John's beheading. Mark's account is more detailed than Matthew's, whose Gospel is thought to have been written later, because Matthew does not want to waste time trampling old ground when it is already contained within Mark's Gospel. Notice also that Mark does not anywhere state that Herod did not want to kill John, but does say that Herod was afraid of him, because of John's righteousness and holiness, and, as Matthew adds, the factor of John's influence over the people. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]67. Was the tenth disciple of Jesus in the list of twelve Thaddaeus (Matthew 10:1-4; Mark 3:13-19) or Judas, son of James (Luke 6:12-16)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Both can be correct. It was not unusual for people of this time to use more than one name. Simon, or Cephas was also called Peter (Mark 3:16), and Saul was also called Paul (Acts 13:9). In neither case is there a suggestion that either was used exclusively before changing to the other. Their two names were interchangeable.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]68. Was the man Jesus saw sitting at the tax collector's office whom he called to be his disciple named Matthew (Matthew 9:9) or Levi (Mark 2:14; Luke 5:27)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The answer to this question is exactly the same as the previous one in that both scriptures are correct. Matthew was also called Levi, as the scriptures here attest.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is somewhat amusing to hear Mr Ally drawing so much attention to this legitimate custom. In the run-up to a debate in <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:city w:st="on">Birmingham</st1:city>, <st1:country-region w:st="on">England</st1:country-region></st1:place> in February 1998, he felt free to masquerade under an alternative name (Abdul Abu Saffiyah, meaning 'Abdul, the father of Saffiyah', his daughter's name) in order to gain an unfair advantage over Mr Smith, his opponent. By disguising his identity he denied Mr Smith the preparation to which he was entitled. Now here he finds it a contradictory when persons in the 1<sup>st</sup> century <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Palestine</st1:place></st1:city> either use one or the other of their names, a practice which is neither illegal nor duplicitous.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are perfectly legitimate reasons for using an alternative name. However, in the light of Mr Ally's unfair and deceitful practice outlined above, there is a ring of hypocrisy to these last two questions raised by him.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]69. Was Jesus crucified on the daytime after the Passover meal (Mark 14:12-17) or the daytime before the Passover meal ( John 13:1, 30, 29; 18:28; 19:14)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus was crucified on the daytime before the Passover meal. The reason why Mark seems to say it was after is one of culture and contextualising. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The evidence from the Gospels that Jesus died on the eve of the Passover, when the Passover meal would be eaten after sunset, is very solid. Before we delve (albeit briefly) into this issue, it is worth noting that Mark 14 records that Jesus does not eat the Passover with his disciples. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke 14:12 says it was "the Feast of Unleavened Bread", which is also called "Passover". As the name suggest states, part of the Passover meal was to eat bread without yeast. It is a commandment which Jewish people keep even today for the meal, for God makes it extremely clear, "eat bread without yeast And whoever eats bread with yeast in it must be cut off from the[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]community of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>. Eat nothing made with yeast. Wherever you live, you must eat unleavened bread ". See also Exodus 12:1-20.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Greek word for "unleavened bread" is 'azymos'. This is the word used by Mark in "the Feast of Unleavened Bread", chapter 14 verse 12. The Greek word for normal bread (with yeast) is 'artos'. All the Gospel writers, including Mark, agree that in this last meal with his disciples the bread they ate was artos, in other words a bread with yeast. "While they were eating, Jesus took bread [artos], gave thanks and broke it, and gave it to his disciples, saying Take it; this is my body." Mark 14:22. It is highly probably therefore that this meal was not a Passover meal. The use of the different words in the same passage strongly suggests this. For it would be unthinkable to them to eat something that God had commanded them not to eat (bread with yeast - artos), and not to eat something that they were commanded to eat (unleavened[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]bread - azymos).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Therefore, as this is true, what does Mark mean in verses 12-17? Firstly, we read, "when it was customary to sacrifice the Passover lamb". Exodus 20:1-8 says that this must happen on the 14th day of the Jewish month of Nisan. However, there was dispute as to when this day was, due to the debate on separate calendars which were used for calculating feast-days. It is possible that separate traditions were in vogue in Jesus life. So, indeed it may have been "customary" to sacrifice the lamb on that day for some, although many, probably most, recognized the Passover as being the next evening. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Secondly, the disciples ask Jesus "Where do you want us to go and make preparations for you to eat the Passover?" They had no idea that Jesus was going to give his life for the sins of the world like the Passover lamb of Exodus 20 did to save the Israelites from God's wrath upon <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>. Jesus had explained to them, but they did not grasp it for many reasons, including the hailing of Jesus by the people as Messiah in the Triumphal Entry, which was still 'ringing in their ears'. He does not state that he would eat it with them. He wanted to, but he knew he would not. There is no room for any dogmatic statement that the Passover must be eaten on the same day the room was hired or prepared. Indeed, Jewish people, because of Exodus 12, thoroughly prepared their houses for the Feast of Unleavened Bread.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Thirdly, in some ways the Gospels couch the last supper in terms of fulfillment. i.e. Luke 22 records Jesus saying that he had longed to eat "this" Passover meal with them. So, does Luke say it was the Passover meal? It is doubtful, due to the same use of artos and azymos, amongst other reasons. Jesus did make this last supper a sort of Passover meal (but not the real one). He wanted to have this special fellowship with his disciples, his friends, being painfully aware of the agony he would go through, only a few hours later. He also wanted to show his disciples that the Passover spoke of him; that he was the sacrifice that would bring in the New Covenant God promised (see questions #64 and #34) just like the lambs that was killed 1500 years earlier to save the people if Israel from God's wrath. He illustrated through the meal that he is the "Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world" as John the Baptist called Jesus (John 1:29). He wanted to eat it with them for he says, "I will not eat it again until it finds fulfillment in the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Kingdom</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">God</st1:placename></st1:place>" (Luke 22:16). His coming death was its fulfillment, "For Christ, our Passover Lamb, has been sacrificed" (1 Corinthians 5:7).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If this understanding is correct (one of two feasible explanations I opted for due to my current research), then there is no contradiction. Jesus died before the Passover meal.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]70. Did Jesus both pray (Matthew 26:39; Mark 14:36; Luke 22:42) or not pray (John 12:27) to the Father to prevent the crucifixion?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This apparent contradiction asks: 'Did Jesus pray to the Father to prevent the crucifixion?' Matthew 26:39; Mark 14:36 and Luke 22:42 are supposed to imply that he does. John 12:27, however, seems to say that he doesn't.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is a rather weak attempt at a contradiction and again wholly relies upon the ignorance of the reader for it's strength. Matthew 26:39, Mark 14:36, and Luke 22:42 are parallel passages which take place in the Garden of Gethsemane just before the arrest of Jesus. In all of these passages Jesus never asks for the Crucifixion to be prevented but does express his fears of the difficulties, pain and suffering that he is going to encounter over the next few hours, in the form of his trials, beatings, whippings, loneliness and alienation from people and God on the Cross, the ordeal of crucifixion itself and the upcoming triumph over Satan. He does, however, more importantly ask for God's will to be carried out over the next few hours knowing that this is the means by which he will die and rise again, and by doing so atone for all the sins of the world.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John 12:27 is from a totally different situation, one which takes place before the circumstances described above. It is said while Jesus is speaking to a crowd of people during the Passover Festival at the <st1:city w:st="on">Temple</st1:city> in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> (in fact even before the gathering of the Twelve with Jesus at the Upper Room). On this occasion Jesus again says something very similar to the other passages above;[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Now my heart is troubled, and what shall I say? 'Father save me from this hour'? No it was for this very reason that I came to this hour. Father, glorify your name!"[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Again we are reminded that he is feeling troubled. He knows events are fast unfolding around him. Yet, this statement is said in reply to some Greeks who have just asked something of Jesus through his disciples. Were they there to offer him a way out of his upcoming troubles? Perhaps, but Jesus does not go to meet them and indeed replies to their request to meet him in this way. Is it really conceivable that this man wants to prevent the crucifixion from taking place! I think not! [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]71. Did Jesus move away three times (Matthew 26:36-46; Mark 14:32-42) or once (Luke 22:39-46) from his disciples to pray?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: the texts are compatible with a little thought)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Shabbir asks how many times Jesus left the disciples to pray alone at the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Garden</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Gethsemane</st1:placename></st1:place> on the night of his arrest. Matthew 26:36-46 and Mark 14:32-42, show three but Luke 22:39-46 only speaks of one. However once again there is no contradiction once you realize that the three passages are complementary.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Note that the Luke passage nowhere states that Jesus did not leave the disciples three times to go and pray. Because he does not mention all three times does not imply that Jesus did not do so. Obviously Luke did not consider that fact to be relevant to his account. We must remember that Luke's Gospel is thought of as the third Gospel to have been put to paper chronologically, therefore it would make sense for him not to regurgitate information found in the other two gospels.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]72. When Jesus went away to pray, were the words in his two prayers the same (Mark 14:39) or different (Matthew 26:42)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: imposes his own agenda)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This apparent contradiction comparing Matthew 26:36-46 with Mark 14:32-42, and in particular verses 42 and 39 respectively, is not a contradiction at all. Shabbir asks the question: 'What were the words of the second prayer?' at the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Garden</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Gethsemane</st1:placename></st1:place>. It relies heavily once again upon the reader of Shabbir's book being ignorant of the texts mentioned, and his wording of the supposed contradiction as contrived and misleading.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Shabbir maintains that in the passage in Mark, "that the words were the same as the first prayer (Mark 14:39)." Let's see what Mark does say of the second prayer in 14:39;[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Once more he went away and prayed the same thing."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Nowhere in this verse does Mark say that Jesus prayed the same words as the previous prayer, but what he does imply by the words used in the sentence is that the gist of the prayer is the same as before, as the passage in Matthew shows. When we compare the first two prayers in Matthew (vss. 39 and 42) we see that they are essentially the same prayer, though not exactly the same wording. Then in verse 44 Matthew says that Christ prayed yet again "saying the same thing!" Yet according to Shabbir's thinking the two prayers were different; so how could Jesus then be saying the same thing the third time?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It seems that Shabbir is simply imposing a Muslim formula of prayer on the passages above which he simply cannot do. You would expect this to be the case if this was a rigidly formulated prayer that had to be repeated daily, as we find in Islam. But these prayers were prayers of the heart that were spoken by Jesus because of the enormity of the situation before him. Ultimately that situation was secondary to the gravity, power, and loving bond that Jesus had with the Father. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]73. Did the centurion say that Jesus was innocent (Luke 23:47), or that he was the Son of God (Mark 15:39)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: the texts are compatible with a little thought)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The question being forwarded is what the centurion at the cross said when Jesus died. The two passages quoted are Mark 15:39 and Luke 23:47. However as has been said before with other apparent contradictions these passages are not contradictory but complementary.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 27:54 and Mark 15:39 agree that the centurion exclaimed that Jesus, "was the Son of God!". Luke 23:47 however mentions that the centurion refers to Jesus as, "a righteous man." Is it so hard to believe that the centurion said both? Nowhere in any of the Gospel narratives do the writers claim that was all that the centurion had to say. Therefore, let's not impose on the writers what we would have the centurion say.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew and Mark were more interested by the declaration of divinity used by the centurion, whereas Luke is interested in the humanity of Jesus, one of the main themes of his Gospel. Thus he refers to the corresponding statement made by the centurion.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1982:346-347).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]74. Did Jesus say "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" in Hebrew (Matthew 27:46) or in Aramaic (Mark 15:34)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Hebrew usage)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The question of whether Jesus spoke Hebrew or Aramaic on the cross is answerable. However, the reason for Matthew and Mark recording it differently is probably due to the way the event was spoken of in Aramaic after it happened, and due to the recipients of the Gospel. However, the whole issue is not a valid criticism of the Bible.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mark 15:34 is probably the most quoted Aramaism in the New Testament, being "Eloi, Eloi, lama sabakthani." However, it is doubtful that Jesus spoke in the language that Mark records them in. The reason is simple; the people hearing Jesus' words thought he was calling Elijah (Matthew 27:47 and Mark 15:35-36). In order for the onlookers to have made this mistake, Jesus would have to have cried "Eli, Eli," not "Eloi, Eloi." Why? Because in Hebrew Eli can be either "My God" or the shortened form of Eliyahu which is Hebrew for Elijah. However, in Aramaic Eloi can be only "My God." [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is also worth noting that lama ("why") is the same word in both languages, and sabak is a verb which is found not only in Aramaic, but also in Mishnaic Hebrew. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Therefore Jesus probably spoke it in Hebrew. Why therefore is it recorded in Aramaic as well? Jesus was part of a multilingual society. He most probably spoke Greek (the common language of <st1:country-region w:st="on">Greece</st1:country-region> and <st1:city w:st="on">Rome</st1:city>), Aramaic (the common language of the Ancient Near East) and Hebrew, the sacred tongue of Judaism, which had been revived in the form of Mishnaic Hebrew in <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placename w:st="on">Second</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">Temple</st1:placetype></st1:place> times. Hebrew and Aramaic are closely related Semitic languages. That Hebrew and Aramaic terms show up in the Gospels is, therefore, not at all surprising. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]That one Gospel writer records it in Hebrew and another in extremely similar Aramaic is no problem to Christians, nor is it a criticism of the Bible. The simple reason for the difference is probably that when one of them remembered and discussed the happening of Jesus' life, death and resurrection, this phrase may well have been repeated in their conversation as Aramaic, which would be perfectly normal. So he wrote it down as such. Secondly, Mark may have written it in Aramaic due to the fact that he was the original recipients of the Gospel.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]However, both these reasons are simply speculation. If Mark recorded his words in Arabic, then we would worry![/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Bivin/Blizzard 1994:10)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]75. Were the last words that Jesus spook "Father into thy hands I commit my spirit" (Luke 23:46), or "It is finished" (John 19:30)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: the texts are compatible with a little thought)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]'What were the last words of Jesus before he died?' is the question asked by Shabbir in this supposed contradiction. This does not show a contradiction any more than two witnesses to an accident at an intersection will come up with two different scenarios of that accident, depending on where they stood. Neither witness would be incorrect, as they describe the event from a different perspective. Luke was not a witness to the event, and so is dependent on those who were there. John was a witness. What they are both relating, however, is that at the end Jesus gave himself up to death.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It could be said that Luke used the last words that he felt were necessary for his gospel account, which concentrated on the humanity of Christ (noted in the earlier question), while John, as well as quoting the last words of Jesus, was interested in the fulfilment of the salvific message, and so quoted the last phrase "it is finished".[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John 17:4 records Jesus' prayer to the Father in the light of Christ's forthcoming crucifixion, stating that He had completed the work of revelation (John 1:18), and since revelation is a particular stress of the Gospel of John, and the cross is the consummation of that commission (John 3:16), it is natural that this Gospel should centre on [/FONT][FONT=&quot][/FONT][FONT=&quot]. At any rate, if Jesus said 'It is finished; Father into your hands I commit my spirit' or vice versa, it would be quite in order to record either clause of this sentence, his last words. Luke-Acts reaches its conclusion without any climax, because the continuing ministry of the exalted Christ through the Holy Spirit and the Church has no ending prior to the Parousia, and to record [/FONT][FONT=&quot][/FONT][FONT=&quot] might have undermined this emphasis, or it could have been taken the wrong way. At any rate, no contradiction is involved; purely a distinction of emphasis.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]76. Did the <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Capernaum</st1:place></st1:city> centurion come personally to ask Jesus to heal his slave (Matthew 8:5), or did he send elders of the Jews and his friends (Luke 7:3,6)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: the text is compatible with a little thought & misunderstood the author's intent)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is not a contradiction but rather a misunderstanding of sequence, as well as a misunderstanding of what the authors intended. The centurion initially delivered his message to Jesus via the elders of the Jews. It is also possible that he came personally to Jesus after he had sent the elders to Jesus. Matthew mentions the centurion because he was the one in need, while Luke mentions the efforts of the Jewish elders because they were the ones who made the initial contact.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We know of other instances where the deed which a person tells others to do is in actuality done through him. A good example is the baptism done by the disciple's of Jesus, yet it was said that Jesus baptized (John 4:1-2).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We can also understand why each author chose to relate it differently by understanding the reason they wrote the event. Matthew's main reason for relating this story is not the factual occurrence but to relate the fact of the importance of all nations to Christ. This is why Matthew speaks of the centurion rather than the messengers of the centurion. It is also the reason why Matthew spends less time relating the actual story and more on the parable of the kingdom of heaven. Matthew wants to show that Jesus relates to all people.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke in his telling of the story does not even relate the parable that Jesus told the people, but concentrates on telling the story in more detail, thereby concentrating more on the humanity of Jesus by listening to the messengers, the fact that he is impressed by the faith of the centurion and the reason why he is so impressed; because the centurion does not even consider himself 'worthy' to come before Jesus. Ultimately this leads to the compassion shown by Jesus in healing the centurion's servant without actually going to the home of the centurion. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]77. Did Adam die the same day (Genesis 2:17) or did he continue to live to the age of 930 years (Genesis 5:5)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood how God works in history)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Scriptures describe death in three ways; 1) Physical death which ends our life on earth, 2) spiritual death which is separation from God, and 3) eternal death in hell. The death spoken of in Genesis 2:17 is the second death mentioned in our list, [/FONT]
 
Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

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mso-level-number-format:arabic; mso-level-numbering:continue; mso-level-text:"%2\."; mso-level-tab-stop:none; mso-level-number-position:left; margin-left:0cm; text-indent:0cm; mso-bidi-font-family:"Times New Roman";} ol {margin-bottom:0cm;} ul {margin-bottom:0cm;} --> </style><!--[if gte mso 10]> <style> /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Tabla normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0cm 5.4pt 0cm 5.4pt; mso-para-margin:0cm; mso-para-margin-bottom:.0001pt; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:10.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]that of complete separation from God, while the death mentioned in Genesis 5:5 is the first death, a physical death which ends our present life.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]For obvious reasons Shabbir will see this as a contradiction because he does not understand the significance of spiritual death which is a complete separation from God, since he will not admit that Adam had any relationship with God to begin with in the garden of Eden. The spiritual separation (and thus spiritual death) is shown visibly in Genesis chapter 3 where Adam was thrown out of the Garden of Eden and away from God's presence.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Ironically Adam being thrown out of the garden of Eden is also mentioned in the Qur'an (Sura 2:36), though there is no reason for this to happen, if (as Muslims believe) Adam had been forgiven for his sin. Here is an example of the Qur'an borrowing a story from the earlier scriptures without understanding its meaning or significance, and therein lies the assumption behind the supposed contradiction.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](for a clearer understanding of the significance of spiritual death and how that impinges on nearly every area of disagreement Christians have with Islam, read the paper entitled [/FONT][FONT=&quot]"The Hermeneutical Key"[/FONT][FONT=&quot] by Jay Smith.)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]78. Did God decide that the lifespan of humans was to be only 120 years (Genesis 6:3), or longer (Genesis 11:12-16)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In Genesis 6:3 we read:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Then the LORD said, 'My Spirit will not contend with man forever, for he is mortal; his days will be a hundred and twenty years.'"[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is contrasted with ages of people who lived longer than 120 years in Genesis 11:12-16. However this is based, I presume on a misreading or misunderstanding of the text.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The hundred and twenty years spoken of by God in Genesis 6:3 cannot mean the life span of human beings as you do find people older than that mentioned more or less straight away a few Chapters on into the book of Genesis (including Noah himself). The more likely meaning is that the Flood that God had warned Noah about doesn't happen until 120 years after the initial warning to Noah. This is brought out further in 1Peter 3:20 where we read, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Therefore looking at the context of the Genesis 6:3 passage it would agree with what we find in chapter 11 of the same book.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Geisler/Howe 1992:41)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]79. Apart from Jesus there was no-one else (John 3:13) or there were others (2 Kings 2:11) who ascended to heaven?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the wording)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There were others who went to heaven without dying, such as Elijah and Enoch (Genesis 5:24). In John 3:13 Jesus is setting forth his superior knowledge of heavenly things. Essentially what he is saying, "no other human being can speak from first hand knowledge about these things, as I can, since I came down from heaven." he is claiming that no one has ascended to heaven to bring down the message that he brought. In no way is he denying that anyone else is in heaven, such as Elijah and Enoch. Rather, Jesus is simply claiming that no one on earth has gone to heaven and returned with a message such as he offered to them.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]80. Was the high priest Abiathar (Mark 2:26), or Ahimelech (1 Samuel 21:1; 22:20) when David went into the house of God and ate the consecrated bread?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Hebrew usage & misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus states that the event happened 'in the days of Abiathar the high priest' and yet we know from 1 Samuel that Abiathar was not actually the high priest at that time; it was his father, Ahimelech. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If we were to introduce an anecdote by saying, 'When king David was a shepherd-boy...', it would not be incorrect, even though David was not king at that time. In the same way, Abiathar was soon to be high priest and this is what he is most remembered for, hence he is designated by this title. Moreover, the event certainly did happen 'in the days of Abiathar', as he was alive and present during the incident. We know from 1 Samuel 22:20 that he narrowly escaped when his father's whole family and their town was destroyed by Saul's men. Therefore, Jesus' statement is quite acceptable.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1994:362)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]81. Was Jesus' body wrapped in spices before burial in accordance with Jewish burial customs (John 19:39-40), or did the women come and administer the spices later (Mark 16:1)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: the texts are compatible with a little thought)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John 19:39,40 clearly states that Joseph and Nicodemus wrapped the body in <st1:metricconverter productid="75 pounds" w:st="on">75 pounds</st1:metricconverter> of myrrh and aloes, along with strips of linen. We also know from the synoptic writers that the body was placed in a large shroud. There need be no contradiction here. The fact that the synoptics do not mention the spices during the burial does not mean that they were not used. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If Mark 16:1 is taken to mean that the women were hoping to do the whole burial process themselves, they would need the strips of linen as well, which are not mentioned. It is likely that they simply wished to perform their last act of devotion to their master by adding extra spices to those used by Joseph.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As Jesus died around the ninth hour (Mark 15:34-37), there would have been time (almost three hours) for Joseph and Nicodemus to perform the burial process quickly before the Sabbath began. We need not suppose that there was only time for them to wrap his body in a shroud and deposit it in the tomb.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]82. Did the women buy the spices after (Mark 16:1) or before the Sabbath (Luke 23:55 to 24:1)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: the texts are compatible with a little thought)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Several details in the accounts of the resurrection suggest that there were in fact two groups of women on their way to the tomb, planning to meet each other there. See question 86 for more details of these two groups.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Now it becomes clear that Mary Magdalene and her group bought their spices after the Sabbath, as recorded by Mark 16:1. On the other hand, Joanna and her group bought their spices before the Sabbath, as recorded by Luke 23:56. It is significant that Joanna is mentioned only by Luke, thereby strengthening the proposition that it was her group mentioned by him in the resurrection account. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]83. Did the women visit the tomb "toward the dawn" (Matthew 28:1), or "When the sun had risen" (Mark 16:2)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: the texts are compatible with a little thought)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A brief look at the four passages concerned will clear up any misunderstanding.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

    • [FONT=&quot]Matthew 28:1: 'At dawn...went to look at the tomb'.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
    • [FONT=&quot]Mark 16:2 'Very early...just after sunrise, they were on their way to the tomb'.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
    • [FONT=&quot]Luke 24:1: 'Very early in the morning...went to the tomb'.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
    • [FONT=&quot]John 20:1: 'Early...while it was still dark...went to the tomb'.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Thus we see that the four accounts are easily compatible in this respect. It is not even necessary for this point to remember that there were two groups of women, as the harmony is quite simple. From Luke we understand that it was very early when the women set off for the tomb. From Matthew we see that the sun was just dawning, yet John makes it clear that it had not yet done so fully: The darkness was on its way out but had not yet gone. Mark's statement that the sun had risen comes later, when they were on their way. It is perfectly reasonable to assume that the sun had time to rise during their journey across <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]84. Did the women go to the tomb to anoint Jesus' body with spices (Mark 16:1; Luke 23:55-24:1), or to see the tomb (Matthew 28:1), or for no reason (John 20:1)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: the texts are compatible with a little thought)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This answer links in with number 81 above. We know that they went to the tomb in order to put further spices on Jesus' body, as Luke and Mark tell us. The fact that Matthew and John do not give a specific reason does not mean that there was not one. They were going to put on spices, whether or not the gospel authors all mention it. We would not expect every detail to be included in all the accounts, otherwise there would be no need for four of them![/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]85. When the women arrived at the tomb, was the stone "rolled back" (Mark 16:4), "rolled away" (Luke 24:2), "taken away" (John 20:1), or did they see an angel do it (Matthew 28:1-6)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew does not say that the women saw the angel roll the stone back. This accusation is indeed trivial. After documenting the women setting off for the tomb, Matthew relates the earthquake, which happened while they were still on their way. Verse 2 begins by saying, 'There was a violent earthquake', the Greek of which carries the sense of, 'now there had been a violent earthquake'. When the women speak to the angel in verse 5, we understand from Mark 16:5 that they had approached the tomb and gone inside, where he was sitting on the ledge where Jesus' body had been. Therefore, the answer to this question is that the stone was rolled away when they arrived: there is no contradiction.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<st1:metricconverter productid="86. In" w:st="on">[FONT=&quot]86. In[/FONT]</st1:metricconverter>[FONT=&quot] (Matthew 16:2; 28:7; Mark 16:5-6; Luke 24:4-5; 23), the women were told what happened to Jesus' body, while in (John 20:2) Mary was not told.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: the texts are compatible with a little thought)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The angels told the women that Jesus had risen from the dead. Matthew, Mark and Luke are all clear on this. The apparent discrepancy regarding the number of angels is cleared up when we realize that there were two groups of women. Mary Magdalene and her group probably set out from the house of John Mark, where the Last Supper had been held. Joanna and some other unnamed women, on the other hand, probably set out from Herod's residence, in a different part of the city. Joanna was the wife of Cuza, the manager of Herod's household (Luke 8:3) and it is therefore highly probable that she and her companions set out from the royal residence.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]With this in mind, it is clear that the first angel (who rolled away the stone and told Mary and Salome where Jesus was) had disappeared by the time Joanna and her companions arrived. When they got there (Luke 24:3-8), two angels appeared and told them the good news, after which they hurried off to tell the apostles. In Luke 24:10, all the women are mentioned together, as they all went to the apostles in the end. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We are now in a position to see why Mary Magdalene did not see the angels. John 20:1 tells us that Mary came to the tomb and we know from the other accounts that Salome and another Mary were with her. As soon as she saw the stone rolled away, she ran to tell the apostles, assuming that Jesus had been taken away. The other Mary and Salome, on the other hand, satisfied their curiosity by looking inside the tomb, where they found the angel who told them what had happened. So we see that the angels did inform the women, but that Mary Magdalene ran back before she had chance to meet them.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]87. Did Mary Magdalene first meet the resurrected Jesus during her first visit (Matthew 28:9) or on her second visit (John 20:11-17)? And how did she react?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: the texts are compatible with a little thought)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We have established in the last answer that Mary Magdalene ran back to the apostles as soon as she saw the stone had been rolled away. Therefore, when Matthew 28:9 records Jesus meeting them, she was not there. In fact, we understand from Mark 16:9 that Jesus appeared first to Mary Magdalene, which was after she, Peter and John had returned to the tomb the first time (John 20:1-18). Here, we see that Peter and John saw the tomb and went home, leaving Mary weeping by the entrance. From here, she saw the two angels inside the tomb and then met Jesus himself. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As all this happened before Jesus appeared to the other women, it appears that there was some delay in them reaching the apostles. We may understand what happened by comparing the complementary accounts. Matthew 28:8 tells us that the women (Mary the mother of James and Salome) ran away 'afraid yet filled with joy...to tell his disciples'. It appears that their fear initially got the better of them, for they 'said nothing to anyone' (Mark 16:8). It was at this time that Jesus suddenly met them (Matthew 28:9,10). Here, he calmed their fears and told them once more to go and tell the apostles. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are several apparent problems in the harmonization of the resurrection accounts, a few of which have been touched on here. It has not been appropriate to attempt a full harmonization in this short paper, as we have been answering specific points. A complete harmonization has been commendably attempted by John Wenham in 'Easter Enigma' (most recent edition 1996, Paternoster Press). Anyone with further questions is invited to go this book.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It must be admitted that we have in certain places followed explanations or interpretations that are not specifically stated in the text. This is entirely permissible, as the explanations must merely be plausible. It is clear that the gospel authors are writing from different points of view, adding and leaving out different details. This is entirely to be expected from four authors writing independently. Far from casting doubt on their accounts, it gives added credibility, as those details which at first appear to be in conflict can be resolved with some thought, yet are free from the hallmarks of obvious collusion, either by the original authors or any subsequent editors.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]88. Did Jesus instruct his disciples to wait for him in <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place> (Matthew 28:10), or that he was ascending to his Father and God (John 20:17)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This apparent contradiction asks, 'What was Jesus' instruction for his disciples?' Shabbir uses Matthew 28:10 and John20:17 to demonstrate this apparent contradiction. However the two passages occur at different times on the same day and there is no reason to believe that Jesus would give his disciples only one instruction. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is another contradiction which depends upon the reader of Shabbir's book being ignorant of the biblical passages and the events surrounding that Sunday morning resurrection. (I say Sunday because it is the first day of the week) The two passages, in fact, are complementary not contradictory. This is because the two passages do not refer to the same point in time. Matthew 28:10 speaks of the group of women encountering the risen Jesus on their way back to tell the disciples of what they had found. An empty tomb!? And then receiving the first set of instructions from him to tell the disciples.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The second passage from John 20:17 occurs some time after the first passage, (to understand the time framework read from the beginning of this Chapter) and takes place when Mary is by herself at the tomb grieving out of bewilderment, due to the events unraveling around about her. She sees Jesus and he gives her another set of instructions to pass on to the disciples.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]89. Upon Jesus' instructions, did the disciples return to <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place> immediately (Matthew 28:17), or after at least 40 days (Luke 24:33, 49; Acts 1:3-4)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: didn't read the entire text and misquoted the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This supposed contradiction asks when the disciples returned to <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place> after the crucifixion. It is argued from Matthew 28:17 that they returned immediately, and from Luke 24:33 and 49, and Acts 1:4 that it was after at least 40 days. However both of these assumptions are wrong.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It would appear that Jesus appeared to them many times; sometimes individually, sometimes in groups, and as the whole group gathered together, and also at least to Paul and Stephen after the Ascension (see 1 Corinthians 15:5-8, and Acts 7:55-56). He appeared in Galilee and <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> and other places. Matthew 28:16-20 is a summary of all the appearances of Christ, and it is for this reason that it is not advisable to overstress chronology in this account, as Shabbir seems to have done.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The second argument in this seeming contradiction is an even weaker argument than the one I have responded to above. This is because Shabbir has not fully quoted Acts 1:4 which says;[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]'On one occasion, while he was eating with them, he gave them this command: "Do not leave <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>, but wait for the gift my Father promised, which you have heard me speak about."'[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Now the author of Acts, Luke in this passage does not specify when Jesus said this. However in his gospel he does the same thing as Matthew and groups together all the appearances so again it would be unwise to read too much chronologically into the passage of Luke 24:36-49. However it is apparent from the Gospels of Matthew and John that some of the disciples at least did go to Galilee and encounter Jesus there; presumably after the first encounter in Jerusalem and certainly before the end of the forty day period before Christ's Ascension into Heaven.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]90. Did the Midianites sell Joseph "to the Ishmaelites" (Genesis 37:28), or to Potiphar, an officer of Pharoah (Geneis 37:36)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This apparent contradiction is a very strange one because it shows a clear misunderstanding of the text in Genesis 37:25-36. The question is asked, 'To whom did the Midianites sell Joseph?' Verse 28 is used to say the Ishmaelites, and verse 36 Potiphar.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The traveling merchants were comprised of Ishmaelite and Midianite merchants who bought Joseph from his brothers, and they in turn sold him to Potiphar in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>. The words Ishmaelite and Midianite are used interchangeably. This would seem obvious once you read verses 27 and 28 together. A clearer usage for these two names can also be found in Judges 8:24.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]91. Did the Ishmaelites bring Joseph to <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> (Genesis 37:28), or was it the Midianites (Genesis 37:36), or was it Joseph's brothers (Genesis 45:4)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This supposed contradiction follows on from the last one and again lights up Shabbir's problem with the historical situation, as well as his inability to understand what the text is saying This time the question asked is, 'Who brought Joseph to Egypt?' From the last question we know that both the Ishmaelites and the Midianites were responsible for physically taking him there (as they are one and the same people), while the brother's of Joseph are just as responsible, as it was they who sold him to the merchants, and thus are being blamed for this very thing by Joseph in Genesis 45:4. Consequently, as we saw in the previous question all three parties had a part to play in bringing Joseph to <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]92. Does God change his mind (Genesis 6:7; Exodus 32:14; 1 Samuel 15:10-11, 35), or does he not change his mind (1 Samuel 15:29)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood how God works in history & misunderstood the Hebrew usage)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This "contradiction" generally appears only in older English translations of the Biblical manuscripts. The accusation arises from translation difficulties and is solved by looking at the context of the event.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God knew that Saul would fail in his duty as King of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>. Nevertheless, God allowed Saul to be king and used him greatly to do His will. Saul was highly effective as leader of <st1:country-region w:st="on">Israel</st1:country-region>, in stirring his people to have courage and take pride in their nation, and in coping with <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>'s enemies during times of war. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]However, God made it clear long before this time (Genesis 49:8-10) that he would establish the kings that would reign over <st1:country-region w:st="on">Israel</st1:country-region>, from the tribe of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Judah</st1:place></st1:country-region>. Saul was from the tribe of Benjamin. Therefore there was no doubt that Saul or his descendants were not God's permanent choice to sit on the throne of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>. His successor David, however, was from the tribe of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Judah</st1:place></st1:country-region>, and his line was to continue. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Therefore God, who knows all things, did not 'change his mind' about Saul, for he knew Saul would turn away from Him and that the throne would be given to another.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The word in Hebrew that is used to express what God thought and how God felt concerning the turning of Saul from Him is "niham" which is rendered "repent" in the above. However, as is common in languages, it can mean more than one thing. For example, English has only one word for "love." Greek has at least 4 and Hebrew has more. A Hebrew or Greek word for love cannot always simply be translated "love" in English if more of the original meaning is to be retained. This is a problem that translators have.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Those who translated the Bible under the order of King James (hence the King James translation, which Shabbir quotes from) translated this word niham 41 times as "repent," out of the 108 occurrences of the different forms of niham in the Hebrew manuscripts. These translators were dependent on far fewer manuscripts than were available to the more recent translators; the latter also having access to far older manuscripts as well as a greater understanding of the Biblical Hebrew words contained within. Therefore, the more recent translators have rendered niham far more accurately into English by conveying more of its Hebrew meaning (such as relent, grieve, console, comfort, change His mind, etc. as the context of the Hebrew text communicates).[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]With that in mind, a more accurate rendering of the Hebrew would be that God was "grieved" that he had made Saul king. God does not lie or change his mind; for he is not a man that he should change his mind. God was grieved that he had made Saul king. God shows in the Bible that He has real emotions. He has compassion on people's pain and listens to people's pleas for help. His anger and wrath are roused when He sees the suffering of people from others' deeds. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As a result of Saul's disobedience pain was caused to God and to the people of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>. But also, God had it in His plan from the beginning that Saul's family, though not being from the tribe of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Judah</st1:place></st1:country-region>, would not stay on the throne. Therefore when Saul begs the prophet Samuel in verses 24 to 25 to be put right with God and not be dethroned, Samuel replies that God has said it will be this way - He is not going to change His mind. It was spoken that it would be this way hundreds of years before Saul was king. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There is no contradiction here. The question was "Does God change his mind?" The answer is, "No." But He does respond to peoples situations and conduct, in compassion and in wrath, and therefore can be grieved when they do evil.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Archer 1994)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]93. How could the Egyptian magicians convert water into blood (Exodus 7:22), if all the available water had been already converted by Moses and Aaron (Exodus 7:20-21)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: didn't read the entire text & Imposes his own agenda)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is a rather foolish question. To begin with Moses and Aaron did not convert all available water to blood, as Shabbir quotes, but only the water of the Nile (see verse 20). There was plenty of other water for the magicians of Pharaoh to use. We know this because just a few verses later (verse 24) we are told,[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"And all the Egyptians dug along the <st1:place w:st="on">Nile</st1:place> to get drinking water, because they could not drink the water of the river."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So where is the difficulty for the magicians to demonstrate that they could also do this? Not only has Shabbir not read the entire text, he has imposed on the text he has read that which simply is not there. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]94. Did David (1 Samuel 17:23, 50) or Elhanan (2 Samuel 21:19) kill Goliath?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: copyist error)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The discrepancy as to who killed Goliath (David or Elhanan) was caused by copyist or scribal error, which can be seen clearly.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The text of 2 Samuel 21:19 reads as follows:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"In another battle with the Philistines at Gob, Elhanan son of Jaare-Oregim the Bethlehemite killed Goliath the Gittite, who had a spear with a shaft like a weaver's rod."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As this stands in the Hebrew Masoretic text, this is a certainly a clear contradiction to 1 Samuel and its account of David's slaying of Goliath. However, there is a very simple and apparent reason for this contradiction, as in the parallel passage of 1 Chronicles 20:5 shows. It describes the episode as follows:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"In another battle with the Philistines, Elhanan son of Jair killed Lahmi the brother of Goliath the Gittite, who had a spear with a shaft like a weaver's rod."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When the Hebrew for these sentences is examined, the reason for the contradiction becomes quite obvious and the latter 1 Chronicles is seen to be the true and correct reading. This is not simply because we know David killed Goliath, but also because of the language.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When the scribe was duplicating the earlier manuscript, it must have been blurred or damaged at this particular verse in 2 Samuel. The result was that he made two or three mistakes (see Gleason L. Archer, Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties, page 179):[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]5. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]The sign of the direct object in 1 Chronicals was '-t which comes just before "Lahmi" in the sentence order. The scribe mistook it for b-t or b-y-t ("Beth") and thus got BJt hal-Lahmi ("the Bethlehemite") out of it.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]6. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]He misread the word for "brother" ('-h , the h having a dot underneath it) as the sign of the direct object ('-t) right before g-l-y-t ("Goliath"). Therefore he made "Goliath" the object of "killed" instead of "brother" of Goliath, as in 1 Chronicles.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]7. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]The copyist misplaced the word for "weavers" ('-r-g-ym) so as to put it right after "Elhanan" as his family name (ben Y-'-r-y'-r--g-ym, ben ya'<sup>a</sup>rey 'or<sup>e</sup>-gim, "the son of the forest of weavers", a most improbable name for anyone's father). In Chronicles the or<sup>e</sup>-gim ("weavers") comes straight after m<sup>e</sup>n\r ("a beam of") - thus making perfectly good sense.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]To conclude: the 2 Samuel passage is an entirely traceable error on the part of the copyist in the original wording, which has been preserved in 1 Chronicles 20:5. David killed Goliath. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This testifies to the honesty and openness of the scribes and translators (both Jewish and Christian). Although it would be easy to change this recognized error, this has not been done in favour of remaining true to the manuscripts. Although it leaves the passage open to shallow criticism as Shabbir Ally has shown, it is criticism which we are not afraid of. An excellent example of human copying error resulting from the degeneration of papyrus.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]95. Did Saul take his own sword and fall upon it (1 Samuel 31:4-6), or did an Amalekite kill him (2 Samuel 1:1-16)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It should be noted that the writer of 1 & 2 Samuel does not place any value on the Amalekite's story. Thus, in all reality it was Saul who killed himself, though it was the Amalekite who took credit for the killing. The writer relates how Saul died and then narrates what the Amalekite said. The Amalekite's statement that he 'happened to be on <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Mount</st1:placetype> <st1:placename w:st="on">Gilboa</st1:placename></st1:place>' (2 Samuel 1:6) may not be an innocent one. He had quite possibly come to loot the dead bodies. In any case, he certainly got there before the Philistines, who did not find Saul's body until the next day (1 Samuel 31:8). We have David's own testimony that the Amalekite thought he was bringing good news of Saul's death (2 Samuel 4:10). It is likely, therefore, that he came upon Saul's dead body, took his crown and bracelet and made up the story of Saul's death in order that David might reward him for defeating his enemy. The Amalekite's evil plan, however, backfired dramatically on him.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]96. Is it that everyone sins (1 Kings 8:46; 2 Chronicles 6:36; Proverbs 20:9; Ecclesiastes 7:20; 1 John 1:8-10), or do some not sin (1 John 3:1, 8-9; 4:7; 5:1)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the Greek usage & Imposes his own agenda)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This apparent contradiction asks: 'Does every man sin?' Then a number of Old Testament passages that declare this are listed followed by one New Testament passage from 1 John 1:8-10:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. If we claim we have not sinned, we make him out to be a liar and his word has no place in our lives."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]After this it is claimed by Shabbir that: 'True Christians cannot possibly sin, because they are children of God.' This is followed by a number of passages from the First Epistle of John showing that Christians are children of God. Shabbir is here imposing his view on the text, assuming that those who are children of God, somehow suddenly have no sin. It is true that a person who is born of God should not habitually practice sin (James 2:14ff), but that is not to say that they will not occasionally fall into sin, as we live in a sinful world and impinged by it.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The last of the verses quoted is from 1 John 3:9 which says:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"No-one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God's seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Shabbir in his quote uses an older translation for 1 John 3:9 and so states, "No one born of God commits sin...and he cannot sin...," which is not a true translation of the Greek. In the newer translations, such as the NIV they translate correctly using the present continuous in this verse, as it is written that way in the Greek. Thus those born of God will not continue to sin, as they cannot go on sinning..., the idea being that this life of sinning will die out now that he has the help of the Holy Spirit in him or her.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is interesting how Shabbir jumps around to make his point. He begins with 1 John 1, then moves to 1 John 3-5, then returns to the 1 John 1 passage at the beginning of the Epistle and re-quotes verse 8, which speaks of all men sinning, with the hope of highlighting the seeming contradiction. There is no contradiction in this as Shabbir obviously hasn't understood the apostle's letter or grasped the fact that the letter develops its theme as it goes on. Therefore quoting from the beginning of the letter, then moving to the middle of the letter, and finally returning to the beginning of the letter is not the way to read a letter. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Scriptures clearly teach that all men have sinned except for one, the Lord Jesus Christ, therefore we have no quarrel with Shabbir on this point. As to Shabbir's second point I am glad he has come to realize that Christians are children of God therefore we have no quarrel with him on this subject.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is Shabbir's third point, however, which is a contentious one because it does not take on board the development of the themes of the letter, of which the one pointed out here is the call to holiness and righteousness because of the forgiveness of sins by Jesus Christ's atoning death. It is for that reason that we are called not to continue in our sinful ways but to be changed into Christ's sinless likeness. In his attempt to show an apparent contradiction Shabbir has mischievously rearranged the order in which the verses were intended to be read in order to force a contradiction, which doesn't exist.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]97. Are we to bear one another's burdens (Galatians 6:2), or are we to bear only our own burdens (Galatians 6:5)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The question is asked: 'Who will bear whose burden?' Galatians 6:2 and 6:5 are compared, one says each other's, while the other says your own.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There is no contradiction here at all. This is not a case of 'either/or' but of 'both/and'. When you read Galatians 6:1-5 properly you will notice that believers are asked to help each other in times of need, difficulty or temptation; but they are also called to account for their own actions. There is no difficulty or contradiction in this, as the two are mutually inclusive.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]98. Did Jesus appear to twelve disciples after his resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:5), or was it to eleven (Matthew 27:3-5; 28:16; Mark 16:14; Luke 24:9,33; Acts 1:9-26)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There is no contradiction once you notice how the words are being used. In all the references given for eleven disciples, the point of the narrative account is to be accurate at that particular moment of time being spoken of. After the death of Judas there were only eleven disciples, and this remained so until Matthias was chosen to take Judas' place.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In 1 Corinthians 15:5 the generic term 'the Twelve' is therefore used for the disciples because Matthias is also counted within the Twelve, since he also witnessed the Death and Resurrection of Jesus Christ, as the passage pointed out by Shabbir records in Acts 1:21-22.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]99. Did Jesus go immediately to the desert after his baptism (Mark 1:12-13), or did he first go to <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place>, see disciples, and attend a wedding (John 1:35, 43; 2:1-11)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misread the text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This apparent contradiction asks: 'Where was Jesus three days after his baptism?' Mark 1:12-13 says he went to the wilderness for forty days. But John 'appears' to have Jesus the next day at <st1:city w:st="on">Bethany</st1:city>, the second day at Galilee and the third at <st1:place w:st="on">Cana</st1:place> (John 1:35; 1:43; 2:1-11), unless you go back and read the entire text starting from John 1:19. The explanation about the baptism of Jesus in John's Gospel is given by John the Baptist himself. It was "John's testimony when the Jews of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> sent priests and Levites to ask him who he was" (vs. 19). It is he who is referring to the event of the baptism in the past. If there is any doubt look at the past tense used by John when he sees Jesus coming towards him in verses 29-30 and 32. While watching Jesus he relates to those who were listening the event of the baptism and its significance. There is no reason to believe that the baptism was actually taking place at the time John was speaking, and therefore no reason to imply that this passage contradicts that of Mark's Gospel.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]100. Did Joseph flee with the baby Jesus to <st1:country-region w:st="on">Egypt</st1:country-region> (Matthew 2:13-23), or did he calmly present him at the temple in <st1:city w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:city> and return to <st1:place w:st="on">Galilee</st1:place> (Luke 2:21-40)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: misunderstood the historical context)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This supposed contradiction asks: 'Was baby Jesus's life threatened in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>?' Matthew 2:13-23 says yes. Luke 2:21-40 appears to say no.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]These are complementary accounts of Jesus' early life, and not contradictory at all. It is clear that it would take some time for Herod to realize that he had been outsmarted by the magi. Matthew's Gospel says that he killed all the baby boys that were two years old and under in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Bethlehem</st1:place></st1:city> and its vicinity. That would be enough time to allow Joseph and Mary the opportunity to do their rituals at the temple in Jerusalem and then return to Nazareth in Galilee, from where they went to Egypt, and then returned after the death of Herod[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]101. When Jesus walked on the water, did his disciples worship him (Matthew 14:33), or were they utterly astounded due to their hardened hearts (Mark 6:51-52)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Category: didn't read the entire text)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This seeming contradiction asks: 'When Jesus walked on water how did the disciples respond?' Matthew 14:33 says they worshiped him. Mark 6:51-52 says that they were astounded and hadn't understood from the previous miracle he had done when he fed the 5000.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This again is not a contradiction but two complementary passages. If Shabbir had read the entire passage in Matthew he would have seen that both the Matthew account (verses 26-28) and the Mark account mention that the disciples had initially been astounded, thinking he was a ghost. This was because they had not understood from the previous miracle who he was. But after the initial shock had warn off the Matthew account then explains that they worshiped him.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Conclusion:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In conclusion, once we have weighed the evidence, many if not all of the seeming contradictions posed by Shabbir Ally can be adequately explained.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When we look over the 101 supposed contradictions we find that they fall into 15 broad categories or genres of errors. Listed below are those categories, each explaining in one sentence the errors behind Shabbir's contradictions. Alongside each category is a number informing us how many times he could be blamed for each category. You will note that when you add up the totals they are larger than 101. The reason is that, as you may have already noticed, Shabbir many times makes more than one error in a given question.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Categories of the errors evidenced by Shabbir in his pamphlet:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]-he misunderstood the historical context - 25 times
-he misread the text - 15 times
-he misunderstood the Hebrew usage - 13 times
-the texts are compatible with a little thought - 13 times
-he misunderstood the author's intent - 12 times
-these were merely copyist error - 9 times
-he misunderstood how God works in history - 6 times
-he misunderstood the Greek usage - 4 times
-he didn't read the entire text - 4 times
-he misquoted the text - 4 times
-he misunderstood the wording - 3 times
-he had too literalistic an interpretation - 3 times
-he imposed his own agenda - 3 times
-he confused an incident with another - 1 time
-we now have discovered an earlier manuscript - 1 time[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It must be admitted that we have in certain places followed explanations or interpretations that are not specifically stated in the text. This is entirely permissible, as the explanations must merely be plausible. It is clear that the gospel authors are writing from different points of view, adding and leaving out different details. This is entirely to be expected when four authors write independently. Far from casting doubt on their accounts, it gives added credibility, as those details which at first appear to be in conflict can be resolved with some thought, yet are free from the hallmarks of obvious collusion, either by the original authors or any subsequent editors.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This testifies to the honesty and openness of the scribes and translators (both Jewish and Christian). Although it would be easy to change this recognized error, this has not been done in favour of remaining true to the manuscripts. Although it leaves the passage open to shallow criticism as Shabbir Ally has shown, it is criticism which we are not afraid of.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In Shabbir's booklet, he puts two verses on the bottom of each page. It would seem appropriate that we give an answer to these quotes, which are:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]8. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]"God is not the author of confusion..." [/FONT][FONT=&quot](1 Corinthians 14:33)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]True, God is not the author of confusion. There is very little that is confusing in the Bible. When we understand all the original readings and the context behind them, the confusion virtually[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]disappears. Of course we need scholarship to understand everything in there, as we are 2,000 - 3,500 years and a translation removed from the original hearers.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But this is no different to the Qur'an. On first (and tenth) readings of the Qur'an there are many things which are not apparent. Take the mysterious letters at the beginning of the suras. It seems that after 1,400 years of scholarship, people can only take a good guess at what on earth they might be there for. Or take the many historical Biblical characters whose stories do not parallel the Bible but seem to originate in second century Talmudic apocryphal writings. This is indeed confusing. However, it is because we can go to the historical context of those writings that we now know that they could not have been authored by God, but were created by men, centuries after the authentic revelation of God had been canonized.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]9. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]"...A house divided against itself falls" (Luke 11:17)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Bible is not divided against itself. Jesus was talking about a major division, i.e. Satan destroying his own demons. This is far removed from the Bible. A book four times the size of the Qur'an, with the remaining problems able to be counted on your fingers and toes, a 99.999% agreement! That indeed is remarkable![/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We conclude with two quotes of our own:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The first to present his case seems right... till another comes forward and questions him" (Proverbs 18:17)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"...our dear brother Paul also wrote to you with the wisdom that God gave him....His letters contain some things that are hard to understand which ignorant and unstable people distort, as they do the other Scriptures, to their own destruction" (2 Peter 3:15-16)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Bibliography:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Archer, Gleason, L., Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties, 1994 Revised Edition, 1982, Zondervan Publishing House
Bivin, David, & Blizzard, Roy, Jr., Understanding the Difficult Words of Jesus, Revised Edition, Destiny Image Publishers, 1994
Blomberg, Craig, The Historical Reliability of the Gospels, IVP, Leicester, 1987
France, R.T., Matthew, Tyndale IVP, 1985
Fruchtenbaum, A. 'The Genealogy of the Messiah'. The Vineyard, November 1993, pp.10-13.
Geisler, Norman & Howe, Thomas, When Critics Ask, Victor Books, Wheaton, Illinois, 1992
Haley, John, W., Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible, Whitaker House, Pennsylvania
Harrison, R.K., Old Testament Introduction, Tyndale Press, London, 1970
Keil, C.F., and Delitzsch, F., Biblical Commentary on the Old Testament, 20 vols. Reprint, Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1949
McDowell, Josh, Christianity; A Ready Defence, Harpendon, Scripture Press Foundation, 1990
Morris, Leon, Luke, Tyndale Press, 1974 (1986 reprint)
The True Guidance, Part Two, ('False Charges against the Old Testament'), Light of Life, Austria, 1992
The True Guidance, Part Three, ('False Charges against the New Testament'), Light of Life, Austria, 1992[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
 
Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

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[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Answered Objections[/FONT][FONT=&quot] to Christianity<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hell<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Article outline: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Theology: What is hell?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Type of punishment[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Degrees of punishment[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Alternative doctrines[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]How can hell be just punisment?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is hell infinite punishment?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is unending punishment unjust?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Further objections[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Wouldn't everyone repent when faced with hell?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]If hell doesn't reform anyone, it must be sadistic[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Why doesn't God save everyone?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Why doesn't God simply annihilate the wicked?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Further reading[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Theology: What is hell?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The devil, who deceived them, was thrown into the lake of burning sulfur, where the beast and the false prophet had been thrown. They will be tormented day and night for ever and ever. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Then I saw a great white throne and him who was seated on it. Earth and sky fled from his presence, and there was no place for them. And I saw the dead, great and small, standing before the throne, and books were opened. Another book was opened, which is the book of life. The dead were judged according to what they had done as recorded in the books. The sea gave up the dead that were in it, and death and Hades gave up the dead that were in them, and each person was judged according to what he had done. Then death and Hades were thrown into the lake of fire. The lake of fire is the second death. If anyone's name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rev 20:10-15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
"Then he will say to those on his left, 'Depart from me, you who are cursed, into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels.' ...Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life." ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 25:41, 46[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hell is a place of eternal, conscious suffering that serves as punishment for sinners. Everyone deserves to go to hell for their sins; the only way we can be saved from it is by accepting God's forgiveness as provided through Christ's sacrificial death. (That is, people have to truly repent and accept Christ as their Lord and Savior in order to be saved; mouthing words without truly believing in and loving God doesn't qualify as repentance.) God desires for everyone to repent and be saved: "'As surely as I live,' declares the Sovereign Lord, 'I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from their ways and live'" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezekiel 33:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; see also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 18:32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Yet not everyone will repent, so hell is necessary. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Type of punishment[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While hell is often depicted as a place of unquenchable fire, this is not necessarily a literal depiction, for it's also described as a place of "darkness, where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 25:30[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Thus at least one, if not both, of these images is figurative. Consequently, one cannot say whether the punishment of hell consists of both physical and mental anguish or mental anguish alone. (Personally, I suspect the latter, since we won't have the same physical bodies that we do now - see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 22:30[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 15:42-54[/FONT][FONT=&quot].) It's generally believed that the anguish of those in hell is at least partly caused by their separation from the perfectly good and loving God. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Degrees of punishment[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Many people don't realize that there are degrees of punishment in hell, just as there are degrees of reward in heaven. That there are degrees of punishment is made evident by the following passages: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"That servant who knows his master's will and does not get ready or does not do what his master wants will be beaten with many blows. But the one who does not know and does things deserving punishment will be beaten with few blows." ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 12:47-48[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Woe to you, Korazin! Woe to you, <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Bethsaida</st1:place></st1:city>! If the miracles that were performed in you had been performed in <st1:city w:st="on">Tyre</st1:city> and <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sidon</st1:place></st1:city>, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. But I tell you, it will be more bearable for <st1:city w:st="on">Tyre</st1:city> and <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sidon</st1:place></st1:city> on the day of judgment than for you. And you, <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Capernaum</st1:place></st1:city>, will you be lifted up to the skies? No, you will go down to the depths. If the miracles that were performed in you had been performed in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sodom</st1:place></st1:city>, it would have remained to this day. But I tell you that it will be more bearable for <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sodom</st1:place></st1:city> on the day of judgment than for you." ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 11:21-24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]According to the above passages (and also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 9:41[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]15:22, 24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), those with greater knowledge of morality and/or greater knowledge of God (via exposure to the Gospel, witnessing of miracles, etc.) will be held more accountable and consequently receive greater punishment than those who are ignorant through no fault of their own. Allowance is also made for children too young to be held responsible for their actions ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 1:27-28, 34-39[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It's not directly stated that one's degree of punishment is also based on the severity of one's sins, but this is implied in several places, such as [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 16:27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. It's also implied by the different degrees of punishment given for different sins in the Mosaic Law. One could argue that every sin is sin against God and all sins therefore deserve severe punishment or death, and explain the differing punishments in the Law as God's leniency towards people's hardened hearts (e.g. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 19:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Yet the notion that all sins merit the exact same punishment goes against humanity's instincts; therefore it's something we would need to be taught to us by God. One would think that God would therefore have taught this lesson in the Law by decreeing that all sins receive the same punishment (e.g. exile, or a large fine or sacrifice). Yet not only are there degrees of punishment that precisely match the crime (e.g. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 21:23-25[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), there is a command about not punishing those who deserved to be whipped with more lashes than is right ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 25:2-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Alternative doctrines[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Christians and non-Christians alike have put forward two alternative doctrines of hell: annihilationism and universalism. Annihilationism holds that the unsaved will be annihilated, either immediately after death or after experiencing a finite time of punishment. Annihilation after death is easy to rule out as it contradicts Jesus' teaching that there will be degrees of punishment, for immediate annihilation doesn't allow for any difference in fates. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Annihilation after a period of punishment (e.g. interpreting the "second death" in Revelation as a literal death) seems to be suggested by passages such as the following: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]The Isaiah passage is quoted by Jesus in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 9:48[/FONT][FONT=&quot], but in the greater context of [/FONT][FONT=&quot]verses 42-48[/FONT][FONT=&quot] it would seem to refer to eternal punishment, as the part he quotes is "their worm does not die, and the fire is not quenched", and as v. 43b says, "It is better for you to enter life maimed than with two hands to go into hell, where the fire never goes out." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Greek word translated as "destruction" in both Php 3:19 and 2 Peter 3:7 is the same word used in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Revelation 17:8, 11[/FONT][FONT=&quot] concerning the beast, who will definitely experience eternal punishment ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rev 20:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As for Revelation, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rev 20:10-15[/FONT][FONT=&quot] tells us that everyone who is condemned will end up in the lake of fire, which is a place of conscious, eternal torment at least for the devil, the beast and the false prophet. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rev 14:9-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot] tells us that explicitly that some humans will suffer conscious, eternal punishment. Therefore it makes the most sense to assume that everyone else in the lake of fire will also remain conscious. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Finally, annihilationism contradicts passages like [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 25:46[/FONT][FONT=&quot] which speak of hell as eternal punishment, in direct contrast to eternal life in heaven. (For more on annihilationism, see "Evangelicals and the Annihilation of Hell" by Alan Gomes, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Part One[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Part Two[/FONT][FONT=&quot].) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Universalism teaches that everyone will eventually repent and accept Christ. It fares even worse than annihilationism when compared to the Bible, for if no humans would ever be sent to hell, there would be no need for Christ and others to continually warn people about it. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 5:29-30[/FONT][FONT=&quot] particularly comes to mind: "If your right eye causes you to sin, gouge it out and throw it away. It is better for you to lose one part of your body than for your whole body to be thrown into hell." [/FONT][FONT=&quot](For more, see the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]article on universalism[/FONT][FONT=&quot].) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]How can hell be just punisment?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Is hell infinite punishment?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The first thing to note about hell is that while it is unending punishment, it is not the maximum possible amount of punishment. First, there are [/FONT][FONT=&quot]degrees of punishment[/FONT][FONT=&quot], so the suffering an individual experiences is in proportion to their guilt and not the maximum amount they could experience. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Second, is eternal punishment truly infinite punishment? I started thinking about this after reading a commentary by Gregory Koukl, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]No Eternal Punishment[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Koukl isn't arguing that hell is not everlasting; rather, he tries to make a distinction between "eternal," or infinite time, and "everlasting," or time without end. This sounds rather odd, but his point is that infinity is really an abstraction, not something that can actually be experienced. In the afterlife, people will never reach a point where they can be said to have lived for eternity, or an infinite amount of time - at any given moment, they will have lived a finite amount. Consequently, the amount of punishment or joy they experience is not infinite either. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If you're into math, think of it like this: We would normally compute the amount of suffering a person experiences over time as [/FONT][FONT=&quot]st[/FONT][FONT=&quot] where [/FONT][FONT=&quot]s[/FONT][FONT=&quot] is the rate of suffering and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]t[/FONT][FONT=&quot] is the amount of time. We say that as [/FONT][FONT=&quot]t[/FONT][FONT=&quot] goes to infinity, so does [/FONT][FONT=&quot]st[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. This holds whether [/FONT][FONT=&quot]s[/FONT][FONT=&quot] is large (the rate of suffering of a person in hell) or small (the rate of suffering of a person on earth). Yet we would hardly say that living for an eternity on earth is the same as spending an eternity in hell, or that experiencing a slight pain every day for eternity is equivalent to experiencing acute pain for the same amount of time. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It's worth pointing out that this assumes that time as we know it continues to pass after the final judgment, which is not necessarily the case. There may simply be an eternal moment, where time does not pass or where we no longer experience it as we do now. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Is unending punishment unjust?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Even given that hell is not infinite punishment, it is still unending punishment, something that many people don't think anyone deserves. The argument is often put forth that people are finite beings, who live a finite amount of time on Earth and are only capable of finite moral understanding and finite actions; therefore any sins they commit are finite and any just punishment must also be finite, including temporally finite. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Yet are our sins finite in all ways? The first claim is that we have a finite understanding of right and wrong. This is already taken into account, as those with less knowledge receive less punishment (see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Degrees of punishment[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The second claim is that we have finite abilities and finite lives and can only do a finite amount of wrong. This is generally true in the physical sense of causing harm (though one can imagine a scenario in which a person's action knowingly triggers a series of events that causes the maximum possible harm to the universe), but not necessarily true in the spiritual sense. Our souls are not temporally finite but continue to exist after death, so we are not completely finite. Sin negatively affects our relationship with God by distancing us from him, and if we never repent and follow God, that negative effect continues as long as both we and God exist, i.e. forever. Since the sinner and the results of the sin continue forever, it makes sense that the sinner's punishment also continues forever. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There is a third infinite aspect to our sin, which is that it is rebellion against an infinitely righteous and deserving God. God is perfectly good and loving and has provided us with all we need; he has even gone to the extent of experiencing our life on Earth (as God the Son, Jesus Christ) and suffering and dying - for our wrongs against him! - so that he can offer us forgiveness and eternal happiness. God deserves our love and obedience to the utmost. When we sin against him, we deny him what is his infinite due, and we spit in the face of the person who has loved us the most. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the opening chapters of Les Miserables, an ex-convict who has been refused lodging everywhere else is welcomed into the home of a bishop, treated with courtesy and respect, and given a meal, expensive wine and a room to sleep in free of charge. The ex-convict's response to this kindness is to sneak out in the middle of the night with the bishop's silver. To steal from anyone, even from a cruel person, is wrong; yet it is particularly wrong for a thief to steal from someone who has been kind and generous to him. This is the aggravated wrong we are dealing with when we consider our sins against God. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]And what is sin against God? We think of morality as an abstraction: when we break a law, we may or may not be causing harm to someone, but we are still doing wrong - we are going against what is moral and just. Since God is the embodiment of justice and morality, what this really means is that we've sinned against God. God isn't physically or materially injured by our sin, but since he is righteous, he is upset when we do wrong, just as we ourselves are upset when we hear news reports of someone being murdered or an innocent person having been wrongfully imprisoned. Thus God is not exacting revenge on people by punishing them, or punishing them based on the suffering their actions caused to other humans, but punishing the inherent wrongness of their actions - which include rebelling against God and rejecting his perfect standards of right and wrong. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Further objections and proposed alternatives to hell[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Wouldn't everyone repent when faced with hell?
Would God let out people who repented?[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One argument against hell is this: No person in his right mind would choose eternal punishment in hell over heaven. Therefore everyone would repent when sent to hell. If God lets the repentant leave, hell will be empty (and therefore can be disregarded). If God doesn't let the repentant leave, God is unjust for continuing to punish them after they've repented. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The trouble with this line of reasoning is that repentance is not simply a matter of one saying, "Okay, I'll say whatever you want me to, just get me out of here!" Repentance involves acknowledging one's guilt, feeling remorse and the desire to change one's behavior, accepting Christ's sacrifice as substitutionary punishment for one's wrongs and agreeing to love and obey God (including Christ as God the Son). This includes by definition acceptance of eternal punishment in hell as just punishment for one's sins; while the skeptic may still object that continued punishment of the repentant is unjust, the repentant will respond that their continued punishment is deserved and could only end through God's mercy. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]However, in reality people in hell won't repent, in particular not any skeptic who makes the above argument. If one thinks God is unjust for punishing people in hell, actually going there isn't going to make one suddenly decide that God is just and deserves one's love and worship after all. People are given their entire lives on Earth as an opportunity to repent and accept God; if they refuse each day of their lives to repent and believe they're justified in doing so, it's hardly conceivable that punishment in hell would change their minds. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Since hell is comprised of those who would never repent, the second question is only a hypothetical one; it could be argued either way. In practice, someone who would repent in hell would be given the opportunity to repent on Earth and would presumably repent before they died, not after. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If hell doesn't reform anyone, what good is it? Isn't God simply being sadistic and vengeful?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The purpose of hell is not to reform people; it's punishment for those who will never repent of their wrongdoing. Wrongdoing deserves punishment. Most people would say that it would be unfair for someone who lived a completely good life and was kind and generous to everyone to be punished severely. In the same way, it would be unfair for a cruel, evil person to be rewarded in the afterlife. God would not be just nor righteous if he looked the other way whenever someone was cruel or evil and didn't condemn that action by assigning it the punishment it deserves. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Since God is perfectly just, omniscient and omnipotent, he is able to determine the precise punishment that an individual deserves. While he experiences righteous anger against wrongdoing, he is not prone to the evil desires that cause us humans to overpunish or act sadisticly to those who have hurt us. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why doesn't God save everyone?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If people can't earn heaven but are only saved by God's grace, why doesn't God extend his grace to everyone and admit everyone to heaven? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It's true that we can't earn heaven as a reward for our good behavior. We would have to be perfectly good, which requires not only not doing any wrong, but doing all the good that we can possibly do; thus there's no room for error, and no way to earn "extra credit" to make up for our mistakes. Therefore when people are allowed into heaven, it's an act of God's grace and mercy. Yet we do still have to do one thing before this can happen - we have to choose to accept God's grace, which means choosing to love God and accept him as our Lord. If we refuse to do this, how can we be allowed to live in the direct presence of God? Evil cannot live in the presence of God ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 5:4-5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Someone who refused to accept God as Lord would still be in a state of active rebellion against God. Even with their sins on earth forgiven, they would be committing new ones since they would continue to disobey God and do wrong. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why doesn't God annihilate the wicked instead of punishing them forever?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Annihilation of all those who don't repent and accept God doesn't allow for degrees of punishment. Would it be fair to give the same punishment of nonexistence to someone who had little exposure to moral teaching and whose worst sins were lying and cheating, and to someone who was deliberately cruel and tortured and killed others? Furthermore, annihilation is too lenient to be just, for the wicked can hardly be aware they're being punished or come to feel any guilt if they cease to exist. One might even say that it would be worth it to enjoy the immediate benefits of sin now and simply give up life after death, especially since many people already believe annihilation awaits them when they die. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why won't good works get us into heaven?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]or, Why does God condemn "good people" who simply don't believe in Jesus?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
In order to get into heaven - which means living in the presence of a morally perfect God who abhors evil - one must be perfectly righteous. Most people understand this to mean not doing anything bad, but righteousness is more than not doing what is obviously wrong. A perfectly righteous person not only doesn't do wrong, they don't want to do wrong. Not only does a righteous person avoid hurting people in anger or having affairs, they avoid fantasizing about these things ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 5:21-22, 27-28[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Skeptics often respond that these are "thought crimes," i.e. that this standard condemns us for our emotional reactions and stray thoughts which are out of our control. This is not correct: what is at issue is what we choose to think about or fantasize about. Something may cause us to feel angry, but nothing forces us to fixate on that cause until we become bitter and hateful. The thought of doing something evil may occur to us, but nothing prevents us from choosing to ignore that thought and focus on better things. (See also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]How can God require us to love him?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Others object that thoughts cannot be considered wrong, for they are merely thoughts - "harmless fantasies" - and not actions. Yet actions begin with thoughts; an action is simply a thought carried out. Even if one never intends to do the things one fantasizes about, thinking about them will make one more likely to do them if the opportunity arises. If a married person secretly fantasizes about a co-worker, they're much less likely to resist if the co-worker makes advances towards them. If a person is angry and imagines making cutting remarks, those remarks are more likely to slip into their speech when they next speak to the person they're angry with (and they're more likely to be in a negative, emotional state for having focused on whatever made them angry). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Perfect righteousness additionally includes doing as much good as one is capable of. In other words, if one could have done good by giving to the needy, visiting the sick and elderly, etc. but didn't, one has committed a sin of omission by failing to do good (cf. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Sam 12:23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If one commits even a single wrong, one can never obtain perfect righteousness. Not only has one fallen short of the standard of perfection, one can never do enough good to make up for the wrong. The wrong action can't be undone; hurtful words can't be unsaid, nor can physically or emotionally painful experiences be removed from a person's memory. There are no extra acts of kindness or goodness that can be performed for extra credit, for the perfectly righteous person would have been doing those acts all along. The time spent committing the wrong action could have been spent doing good instead, but now that it's past that time can't be retrieved and used for something else. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is the problem of sin. Everyone has done wrong, so none of us are able to stand before God on our own merits. But God loves us enough that he took it upon himself to solve this problem: in the person of Jesus Christ, he bore the punishment for all our sins, enabling him to offer us forgiveness. And God's forgiveness removes the sins of comission and omission that prevented us from being perfectly righteous, so that we may enter heaven and be in the presence of God. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Thus, even someone that we would call a "good person" can't enter heaven on their own merits, but only by accepting God's grace offered through Christ. Those who reject Christ are rejecting God's forgiveness for their sins, so their sin still prevents them from entering heaven and still merits punishment. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Genocide in the Old Testament<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Will you sweep away the righteous with the wicked? What if there are fifty righteous people in the city? Will you really sweep it away and not spare the place for the sake of the fifty righteous people in it? Far be it from you to do such a thing - to kill the righteous with the wicked, treating the righteous and wicked alike. Far be it from you! Will not the Judge of all the earth do right?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]- Abraham ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 18:23-25[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why were the cities destroyed?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]What about innocent adults?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]What about the children?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Couldn't the children have died painlessly?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Were the Israelites right to obey God's orders?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]How did the Israelites know it was God's command?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Were the Israelites merely justifying their aggression/xenophobia?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Can genocide be justified today?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Why were the cities destroyed?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The primary reason was punishment for wrongdoing. The populations of the destroyed cities had long histories of grievous sins ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 15:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 25:17-19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), which often included sacrificing their children to false gods ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 12:29-31[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Their consciences should have told these people they were doing wrong. Had they listened and changed their ways, they would not have been destroyed. God has said that if any nation is about to be destroyed as punishment but repents, he will forgive them and not destroy them ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 18:7-8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). In fact, this occurred in the city of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ninevah</st1:place></st1:city> ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jonah 3:4-10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the cities that were given to the Israelites as their inheritance, there was a secondary reason: totally depraved cultures were destroyed so that they would not corrupt the Israelites into committing the same evil acts ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 7:1-4[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]20:16-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). This did in fact occur: when the Israelites didn't obey God and destroy cities, they too began practicing child sacrifice ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 106:34-40[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Additionally, the destruction of wicked nations served as an instructive warning to contemporaries ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Josh 2:1-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and future generations ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Cor 10:1-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
What about innocent adults? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Sadly, these were few and far between. If people grow up in a culture that accepts things like murder and rape, very few will listen to their conscience and go against what everyone else says. Children learn wrong things from their parents and the surrounding culture; as they mature, they become part of the culture and perpetuate it by participating in it and passing on its teachings to their children. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]However, those who were righteous were spared from the destruction. In the destruction of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jericho</st1:place></st1:city>, Rahab and her family were spared because she feared God and chose to help the Israelites ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Josh 2:1-21[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]6:22-25[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Before the Amalekites were destroyed, their righteous neighbors were warned to move away ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Sam 15:5-6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). God promised not to destroy <st1:city w:st="on">Sodom</st1:city> if there were but ten righteous people in the city ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 18:22-32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), and in a later judgment against <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>, promised to forgive the city if one righteous person was found in it ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 5:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
What about the children? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Small children did not share the guilt of their parents. The Bible describes small children as not knowing right from wrong ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is 7:15-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), and in some cases, this meant that they were spared the earthly punishment their elders received. For example, when the Israelites sinned during their wanderings in the desert, God forbid the adults from entering the promised land, but gave it to their children who were too young to be held responsible ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 1:34-39[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The Bible also clearly teaches that one person is not held guilty for another's sin ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Therefore, the children who were killed would not face the same punishment in the afterlife as their parents. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why were the children killed, if they weren't guilty? Apparently, they were considered as morally neutral, since they weren't yet old enough to be held accountable or to have done much right or wrong. While not as corrupt as their parents, they were part of the society that was judged, and shared its earthly (though not its eternal) fate. (Conversely, the family of a righteous person sometimes shared their relative's protection from earthly destruction; see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Josh 6:22-25[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 19:12-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot].) Often, when someone did something wrong and was punished while on earth, only the evildoer themselves was punished. However, when a person or a society committed massive evil, that evil was punished by the destruction of the entire family or city; in such cases, only those who had actively demonstrated their integrity could be saved ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]14:13-20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). See also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Does God punish children for their parents' sins?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Couldn't the children have died painlessly? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why didn't God translate the children into heaven instead of having them die by the sword? Since the children lived in a world affected by sin, they faced its earthly consequences ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 5:12-14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Only a few righteous people were translated into heaven, namely Enoch ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 5:24[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 11:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and Elijah ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 2:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). As noted above, since the children had not shown themselves to be righteous, they were not spared the common fate of death. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It's worth noting that being killed with a sword (perhaps beheaded) was at the time one of the quickest ways for the children to die (as opposed to suffocation/strangulation, starvation, disease or being torn apart by wild animals - see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 23:28-29[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Were the Israelites right to obey God's orders? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Israelites personally knew God to be just, righteous and wise. Aside from knowing God through prayer and individual devotions, many generations of Israelites personally witnessed God's miracles. The generation that fought against the Midianites was the generation that had miraculously escaped from <st1:country-region w:st="on">Egypt</st1:country-region>; the generation that fought the wars in the book of Joshua was only one generation later, and saw the parting of the <st1:place w:st="on">Jordan River</st1:place> ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Josh 3:7-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Both generations experienced God's provision for them during the Exodus ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 29:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; manna was provided until the time of Joshua - [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Josh 5:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Finally, Moses explicitly taught the Israelites that God "is the Rock, his works are perfect, and all his ways are just. A faithful God who does no wrong, upright and just is he" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 32:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). These things gave them reason to trust God even when he commanded them to do something they might otherwise refuse to do. Furthermore, they understood that God has the authority to destroy a city, and that the best thing for them to do was to trust someone whose judgment and wisdom are far superior to their own. For more on this, see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is it right to obey God?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]God's moral authority[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Some have argued that the Israelites should have decided that God's command was wrong and refused to carry it out. It is worth noting that God is unchanging ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mal 3:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), so the Israelites would have known that the just and righteous God they knew before was still just and righteous when he issued the command. However, let us suppose for the sake of argument that God could have issued an unjust command; for instance, ordering the Israelites to be sadistic by torturing babies and enjoying their pain. Sadism is inherently evil; there is no possible situation in which it could be right to take pleasure in torturing others. (The Israelites slew people with swords, which would have been one of the quickest ways at the time to kill someone, and were never told to enjoy killing; thus God's commanded genocide was not sadism.) Therefore the Israelites would have been justified in refusing to practice sadism. Killing a person, while often wrong, is not wrong in all situations; for example, it can be justified if necessary for self-defense. That is, it's not automatically wrong for God to issue an order to kill humans. Since the Israelites had good reason to believe in God's moral perfection, omniscience and omnipotence, the best choice for them would be to trust that God had a better understanding than they of the situation itself and the moral rules governing it. The only way for them to be justified in not obeying God's command would be if the command were inherently evil and impossible to justify (though it must be cautioned that humans with their imperfect understanding could incorrectly decide a command was inherently evil). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
How did the Israelites know it was God's command? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Some people have objected that the Israelites didn't directly receive a command from God, but were following their leader's orders, and thus they didn't know if God himself had commanded it or not. It's true that God gave the commands to the leaders of the Israelites, but in all the cases where the Israelites were told by a leader to destroy a population, they had plenty of prior evidence that the leader was in fact anointed by God and could be trusted to deliver God's commands. The three leaders who passed on these commands were Moses, Joshua, and Samuel. The Israelites literally saw for themselves that God spoke with Moses ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 33:7-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]34:29-35[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), plus they had seen all the miracles that he performed. Joshua was chosen to succeed Moses, and God performed the miracle of the crossing of the <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jordan</st1:place></st1:country-region> explictly so that the Israelites would know that God was with Joshua ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Josh 3:7-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). (After Joshua's death, God spoke to the Israelites directly - see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Judges 1:1-2[/FONT][FONT=&quot].) And as for Samuel, "all <st1:country-region w:st="on">Israel</st1:country-region> from Dan to <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Beersheba</st1:place></st1:city> recognized that Samuel was attested as a prophet of the Lord" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Sam 3:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Were the Israelites merely justifying their aggression/xenophobia? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When the Israelites destroyed a population, they were acting as God's tools, not taking matters into their own hands. God made it clear to them that he was the one behind their victories ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jdg 7:2-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Josh 5:13-14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). In many cases, the nations were defeated by miracles of God ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Josh 6[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]10:8-14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), and in all cases the Israelites were victorious only because they were following God, who gave them the victory ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Josh 10:42[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Furthermore, God told the Israelites in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 9:1-6[/FONT][FONT=&quot], "It is not because of your righteousness or your integrity that you are going in to take possession of their land; but on account of the wickedness of these nations." He had also given them several laws concerning treatment of Gentiles/foreigners, including, "When an alien lives with you in your land, do not mistreat him. The alien living with you must be treated as one of your native-born. Love him as yourself, for you were aliens in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 19:33-34[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). (For more on this, see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exclusion of Gentiles in the Old Testament[/FONT][FONT=&quot].) Only nations that were guilty of great wickedness were to be destroyed; the Israelites were instructed to first offer peaceful terms to other cities they attacked, and to only kill the men if they ended up going to war ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 20:10-15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God held the Israelites accountable for their sins also. When they sinned, they were unable to win any battles ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Josh 7:1-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). When they later fell into the same evil acts that the punished nations had committed, <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> was beseiged and its inhabitants died or were exiled (see the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]article on Jeremiah[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Can the genocide in the OT be used to justify genocide or mass destruction today? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Genocide, murder or any killing that is not necessary to defend another person's life is not justified. God alone has the right to take human life in cases other than defense. The only reason the Israelites were right to destroy cities in the OT is because they received a clear, direct command from God to do so. Any reason short of that, including humans deciding on their own that God wants them to kill others, is not enough to justify it. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Moses and the Midianites<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Numbers 31:7-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]They fought against Midian, as the LORD commanded Moses, and killed every man. Among their victims were Evi, Rekem, Zur, Hur and Reba - the five kings of Midian. They also killed Balaam son of Beor with the sword. The Israelites captured the Midianite women and children and took all the Midianite herds, flocks and goods as plunder. They burned all the towns where the Midianites had settled, as well as all their camps. They took all the plunder and spoils, including the people and animals, and brought the captives, spoils and plunder to Moses and Eleazar the priest and the Israelite assembly at their camp on the plains of <st1:country-region w:st="on">Moab</st1:country-region>, by the <st1:country-region w:st="on">Jordan</st1:country-region> across from <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jericho</st1:place></st1:city>. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Moses, Eleazar the priest and all the leaders of the community went to meet them outside the camp. Moses was angry with the officers of the army - the commanders of thousands and commanders of hundreds - who returned from the battle. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Have you allowed all the women to live?" he asked them. "They were the ones who followed Balaam's advice and were the means of turning the Israelites away from the LORD in what happened at Peor, so that a plague struck the LORD's people. Now kill all the boys. And kill every woman who has slept with a man, but save for yourselves every girl who has never slept with a man." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
Weren't the virgin women raped? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are two parts to this objection: did God instruct or permit the soldiers to rape the women, and did the soldiers actually rape them? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It's clear that God didn't intend for the soldiers to rape the women, but rather to take them captive. The law God had given to the Israelites condemned rape, in some cases punishing it with death ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 22:25-27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Also, immediately following the command to spare the virgin women, the soldiers were instructed to purify themselves and their captives ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]31:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), and rape (or consensual intercourse) would have violated this command ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 15:16-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). In the rest of the chapter, the women are usually referred to as people (using the masculine adam), not women or virgins, underscoring the notion that they were seen as captives rather than sexual objects.[/FONT]<sup>[FONT=&quot]1[/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It's theoretically possible that some of the soldiers raped the women, but given the circumstances it seems very unlikely. The soldiers would have known that rape was a violation of both the law and the instruction to purify themselves, as shown above; they had also seen God punish such violations with death during their travels in the desert. In fact, they had recently experienced a plague and executions resulting from their relations with Midianite women ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]25:1-9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), as Moses reminded them. At that time, all those who had sexual relations with the Midianites were killed. It's highly implausible that the soldiers would have wanted to have anything to do with the Midianite women given this context. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So what did happen to the women (and children)? God gave the Israelites permission to marry women they took captive, but they were to treat their wives with respect: the women were to have time to mourn their families first, and were not to be mistreated ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 21:10-14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Those who didn't marry would have become servants, but there were rules against mistreating them as well ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 21:26-27[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 23:15-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). See the article on [/FONT][FONT=&quot]slavery laws[/FONT][FONT=&quot] for more on the treatment of female slaves. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Weren't some of the women and children sacrificed ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 31:25-41[/FONT][FONT=&quot])?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]No - they probably became servants of the priests. This passage is dealt with in the article on [/FONT][FONT=&quot]human sacrifice[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Why were the men and non-virgin women killed? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Midianites conspired with the Moabites to curse <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 22:1-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). When the curse was turned into a blessing instead ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]24:10-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), the Moabite and Midianite woman agreed to seduce the Israelite men and in doing so entice them to serve their idols ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]25:1-9[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]31:15-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rev 2:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The Israelites who fell prey to this and engaged in idolatry were also held responsible, and were executed ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]25:4-5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Virgin women and young girls were obviously not participants in this, so they were spared. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Why was Balaam killed - didn't he bless <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Balaam did follow God's instructions and blessed <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> instead of cursing it as Balak, the Moabite king, wanted him to ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 24:10-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot] - see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]ch. 22-24[/FONT][FONT=&quot] for the whole story). However, following God was not habitual for Balaam: he often practiced sorcery ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]24:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and in fact was his idea to bring destruction on Israel by having the women lure the Israelites into sexual immorality and idolatry ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]31:15-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rev 2:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
What about the Moabites? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Moabites were a special case - they were descendents of <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place> ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 19:36-37[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), and were to remain in the land God had provided for them ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 2:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). However, they were excluded from the Israelite community as a result of their actions ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 23:3-6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Footnotes <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1. This can be verified by looking up Numbers <st1:metricconverter productid="31 in" w:st="on">31 in</st1:metricconverter> an [/FONT][FONT=&quot]interlinear Bible[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Return to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Destruction of the Amalekites<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Amalekites attacked the Israelites without apparent provocation as they were travelling during the Exodus ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 17:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). "When you were weary and worn out, they met you on your journey and cut off all who were lagging behind" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 25:17-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). They later attacked <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> during the time of the Judges ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jdg 3:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and often raided the Israelites' land after they had planted crops, leaving them with nothing ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jdg 6:2-5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). God punished the Amalekites by ordering Saul to destroy them ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Sam 15:2-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) - over 300 years after they had first attacked <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>. During that time, the Amalekites had contact with the Israelites and would have heard about God. They could have repented and changed their ways, but they continued to raid and plunder other cities up to the time of Saul and David ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Sam 30:1-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The Amalekites that Saul and David warred against were clearly no better than their ancestors who had first waylaid <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Did God "blot out the memory of Amalek" or not? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The LORD said to Moses, "Write this on a scroll as something to be remembered and make sure that Joshua hears it, because I will completely blot out the memory of Amalek from under heaven." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Moses built an altar and called it The LORD is my Banner. He said, "For hands were lifted up to the throne of the LORD. The LORD will be at war against the Amalekites from generation to generation." ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 17:14-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Blot out the memory of Amalek" refers to the extinction of the descendents of Amalek. Clearly God was not referring to the world's knowledge that Amalek existed, else he would not have commanded the Amalekites' defeat to be recorded. He wanted the incidents to be remembered, so that future generations would realize that God, not the Israelites, defeated the Amalekites and avenged their unjust treatment of others. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Amalekites presumably would have been wiped out by Saul in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Samuel 15[/FONT][FONT=&quot] if he had followed God's instructions. He did destroy the city of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Amalek</st1:place></st1:city>, but other raiding parties/nomadic bands of Amalekites survived. These were defeated by David in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Samuel 30[/FONT][FONT=&quot] with the exception of a few hundred who escaped ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]30:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The remnant of the Amalekites were finally destroyed by the Israelites many years later ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Chr 4:43[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Thus, while God did blot out the memory of Amalek by wiping out his descendents, he was at war with them for many generations. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Wasn't this unjust revenge? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The revenge was in fact punishment from God on an unrepentant nation. As noted above, they were given ample time to change their ways. While it was the descendents of the original attackers who were punished, they led the same evil lifestyle that their ancestors had (and possibly one that was worse - in dealing with evil nations in the OT, God often withheld punishment until their wickedness reached a particularly high level). Furthermore, it was God who was avenging the Israelites, not the Israelites themselves. God, who has perfect knowledge, wisdom and justice, has the authority to avenge; humans, including the Israelites, do not have this authority. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Destruction of Laish<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Judges 18:2-10, 27[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In Judges 18, the Danites and the priest they consult sound confident that what they are doing has God's approval. However, the surrounding context reveals that neither the Danites nor the priest are paying any attention to what God wants them to do. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Judges 17[/FONT][FONT=&quot] tells the story of Micah and his priest: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
 
Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

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mso-level-tab-stop:288.0pt; mso-level-number-position:left; text-indent:-18.0pt; mso-ansi-font-size:10.0pt; font-family:Wingdings;} @list l4:level9 {mso-level-number-format:bullet; mso-level-text:; mso-level-tab-stop:324.0pt; mso-level-number-position:left; text-indent:-18.0pt; mso-ansi-font-size:10.0pt; font-family:Wingdings;} ol {margin-bottom:0cm;} ul {margin-bottom:0cm;} --> </style><!--[if gte mso 10]> <style> /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Tabla normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0cm 5.4pt 0cm 5.4pt; mso-para-margin:0cm; mso-para-margin-bottom:.0001pt; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:10.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="margin-left: 1.5pt;" border="0" cellpadding="0"> <tbody><tr style=""> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]1-2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;"> [FONT=&quot]Micah reveals to his mother that he has stolen silver from her.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]3-4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;"> [FONT=&quot]Micah's mother gives the silver back to Micah, telling him to make an image and an idol out of it, which he does, in violation of God's command ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 20:3-4[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;"> [FONT=&quot]Micah installs one of his sons as priest, in violation of God's command that only Levites could be priests ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 3:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]7-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;"> [FONT=&quot]Knowing that priests should be Levites, Micah convinces a young Levite to live with him and be his priest, serving in his household shrine<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> </tbody></table> [FONT=&quot]Thus Micah and the Levite, though they claimed to be following God, were in fact worshipping false gods. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Chapter 18[/FONT][FONT=&quot] shows that the Danites were doing no better: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="margin-left: 1.5pt;" border="0" cellpadding="0"> <tbody><tr style=""> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]11-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;"> [FONT=&quot]The five spies return to Micah's house with 600 armed men and steal Micah's gods and idols<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]18-21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;"> [FONT=&quot]The priest protests the theft, but consents to go with the men and serve them instead<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]22-26[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;"> [FONT=&quot]Micah confronts the Danites, who threaten to kill him and his family<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]27-28[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;"> [FONT=&quot]The Danites destroy Laish, a "peaceful and unsuspecting people" that is isolated and thus unable to receive aid<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]30-31[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 1.5pt;"> [FONT=&quot]The Danites set up the stolen idols as their gods and worship them<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> </tbody></table> [FONT=&quot]Since the Danites and the Levite priest were all following false gods, they would not have been in close relationship with Jehovah, the same God who had threatened to destroy all of the Israelites for idolatry ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 32:8-10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Thus their statements that they had God's approval were false. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God's moral authority<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What gives God the right to have total control of the universe?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The real question is, why wouldn't an omniscient, omnipotent, morally perfect God have the right to do as he sees fit? We are used to thinking about human rights and what humans should and shouldn't do, so we are likely to make the mistake of thinking of God as a more powerful (and therefore more corrupt) human. However, God is not a human who has somehow acquired great power; instead he is Deity, a supernatural being who is far superior to humans and who has a perfect mind and heart. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are many reasons why mere humans do not have the right to be supreme rulers of the universe: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]They might make a disastrous mistake due to ignorance, inexperience, fatigue, etc.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]They could have evil intentions and use their power for evil, or they could be fooled by an evil person<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]They might be corrupted by flattery and think themselves wiser and greater than they really were<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Even if they wanted to do good, they wouldn't know for sure what would be best for everyone<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]They are likely to show favoritism to some and treat others unfairly<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Yet none of these reasons are applicable to God. God has perfect knowledge and wisdom; God never gets tired or makes mistakes; and God is perfectly good and just. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What makes it right for God to take human life, when he forbids us to do so?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Humans can take life, but we can't bring the dead back to life, nor can we control what happens to someone after they die. A human's killing another human is a destructive and irresponsible act, for once we kill someone, we can't undo it or control the harm that results. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God, however, has greater abilities and knowledge than we do, including control over life and death. If God kills someone, he is able to bring them back to life or to place them in any sort of afterlife he chooses. God's use of death is comparable to someone burning a fire in a fireplace: it can be controlled, lit or extinguished at will, and used for a purpose. In contrast, humans' use of death is like setting fire to a dry field: the fire rages out of control, and consequently is dangerous and destructive. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Furthermore, what is death? Many believe that death is the end of both one's body and one's mind/personality/soul. If so, death is a destructive act for both humans and God. Yet if Christianity is true, one's soul is not destroyed, but continues to exist in an afterlife. In this case, death is not destruction, but rather a transfer from life on earth to an afterlife of eternal joy or just punishment. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What gives God the right to do things to others without their permission?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God has given people autonomy in a wide range of areas. We make choices every day about how to spend our time and money, whether to do right or wrong and even whether to follow God or not. God does not force us to do his will, for he wants us to choose to do what is right ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Cor 9:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Jn 4:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Yet God has the right to, and does, change the circumstances of our lives. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If God were required to ask people's permission before he did anything that affected them, he would be prevented from doing good, including some good which only he is able to do (e.g. miracles). People might not give permission for God to do some good things because they wouldn't be able to understand how it would result in good, wouldn't want to endure short-term suffering to receive a long-term benefit, or even because they wished to harm themselves or others. Suppose parents had to ask their children's permission instead of requiring them to do certain things. There would be a lot of children who would be malnourished and/or sick, ignorant, selfish and unable to care for themselves, for what child willingly consents to receive shots, go to school, do chores, etc.? While adults have more knowledge and maturity than children, we are still ignorant and immature in comparison with God, and consequently don't always know what's best for us. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Also, there are things which we would never realize would make us happy until they were given to us or happened to us. Many Christians would never have given their consent to the circumstances that led them to become Christians, and probably could not have realized in advance what joy and peace they would have after becoming Christians. If God had to get their consent beforehand, he wouldn't have been able to bring them true happiness and fulfillment. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Requiring God to receive the permission of humans before he acts would make him dependent on and controlled by humans. How can it be good for God, who is omniscient and morally and otherwise perfect, to be controlled by humans, who have limited knowledge and intelligence and often make mistakes or commit outright evil? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What about human rights?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What is a human right? When we talk about human rights, we generally mean that one human doesn't have the right to do particular things to another human, like kill them, enslave them, etc. Why is it wrong for someone to do a certain thing to another? [/FONT][FONT=&quot]There are several possible reasons: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  1. [FONT=&quot]Humans have an inherent, inalienable right not to have that thing done to them, because it's always immoral for anyone to do that thing to another<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  2. [FONT=&quot]Humans possess certain characteristics (e.g. the capacity to reason) which makes it immoral for anyone to do that thing to them<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  3. [FONT=&quot]Humans are equals and one equal does not have the right to do that thing to another<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Which human rights are inalienable? Thanks to Thomas Jefferson, we speak of our "inalienable right to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness." Yet these so-called inalienable rights are alienable. If someone walks into a school and begins shooting the students and teachers, others have the right to take the shooter's life to prevent further murders or take away their liberty by incarcerating them for life. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Are there any truly inalienable human rights? Humans have the right to a fair trial for their crimes and just punishment for the crimes they've committed. There is no case in which a biased trial or undue punishment is morally justifiable, thus these rights are inalienable - and they are respected by God. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If reason (2) applies to any of our rights, which rights are they and which human characteristic grants us those rights? Animals can feel pain and emotion, and they have conscious minds and the ability to make choices and act on them. Yet most people believe we have the right to limit their liberty (by keeping cats indoors, keeping dogs on leashes or inside fences, etc.) and cause them some amount of fear and pain (by taking them to the vet) in order to protect them. Additionally, many people believe we have the right to perform medical research on animals in order to save human lives. Twelve-year-old children are human, have intelligence and can communicate their desires and even make moral decisions, yet their liberty is restricted by their parents and the government and they are forced to do many things against their will. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Finally, reason (3) applies only to interaction among equals; it applies to human-human interaction, but not human-God interaction. God is not merely our physical superior, but our mental, intellectual and moral superior <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why did God destroy everything in the Flood?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Genesis 6:11-21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]

Now the earth was corrupt in God's sight and was full of violence. God saw how corrupt the earth had become, for all the people on earth had corrupted their ways. So God said to Noah, "I am going to put an end to all people, for the earth is filled with violence because of them. I am surely going to destroy both them and the earth. So make yourself an ark of cypress wood; make rooms in it and coat it with pitch inside and out. This is how you are to build it: The ark is to be <st1:metricconverter productid="450 feet" w:st="on">450 feet</st1:metricconverter> long, <st1:metricconverter productid="75 feet" w:st="on">75 feet</st1:metricconverter> wide and <st1:metricconverter productid="45 feet" w:st="on">45 feet</st1:metricconverter> high. Make a roof for it and finish the ark to within <st1:metricconverter productid="18 inches" w:st="on">18 inches</st1:metricconverter> of the top. Put a door in the side of the ark and make lower, middle and upper decks. I am going to bring floodwaters on the earth to destroy all life under the heavens, every creature that has the breath of life in it. Everything on earth will perish. But I will establish my covenant with you, and you will enter the ark - you and your sons and your wife and your sons' wives with you. You are to bring into the ark two of all living creatures, male and female, to keep them alive with you. Two of every kind of bird, of every kind of animal and of every kind of creature that moves along the ground will come to you to be kept alive. You are to take every kind of food that is to be eaten and store it away as food for you and for them." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]As with other cases of mass judgment in the Old Testament, the following points apply: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  1. [FONT=&quot]The people judged were guilty of very grave offenses <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  2. [FONT=&quot]The people judged had the opportunity to repent <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  3. [FONT=&quot]Righteous people were spared judgment <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1. The world before the Flood was completely evil: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Lord saw how great man's wickedness on the earth had become, and that every inclination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil all the time. The Lord was grieved that he had made man on the earth, and his heart was filled with pain...Now the earth was corrupt in God's sight and was full of violence. God saw how corrupt the earth had become, for all the people on earth had corrupted their ways. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 6:5-6, 11-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If the world was full of violence, murder was presumably common, and quite possibly other forms of violence (beating, maiming, torture, etc.) were common as well. The population was being judged not for minor offenses but for the most serious of crimes. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2. The population at the time was not far removed removed from Adam and Eve. Their experiences had been handed down to the current generation, for Noah's father knew the story of the Fall ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 5:28-29[/FONT][FONT=&quot]); Cain's experiences were also handed down for several generations ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 4:17-24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Furthermore, Noah was a "preacher of righteousness" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Pet 2:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The people around him would have seen his example and most likely would have noticed that he was building a large boat and stocking it with supplies; even if Noah hadn't warned them about the judgment, this would have been enough to provoke curious questions. If they had changed their ways even at that late point, they would have been spared ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 18:7-8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]3. Not everyone died; Noah was spared because he was righteous, and God graciously extended mercy to his extended family, even though they were not necessarily as righteous. It's worth noting that Noah's father and grandfather died shortly before the Flood ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen 5:25-31[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]7:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]); possibly God delayed judgment so that the righteous people of older generations would die naturally of old age (cf. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Pet 3:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). However, innocence is not the same as righteousness; people (e.g. children) who had not committed either good or bad actions were morally neutral, as opposed to people who had consciously chosen good over evil. (See [/FONT][FONT=&quot]What about the children?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] in the article on [/FONT][FONT=&quot]genocide[/FONT][FONT=&quot].) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Finally, God does have the right to kill humans and animals in judgment. For more on this, see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]God's moral authority[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Youths' teasing of Elisha was punished by death<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Kings 2:23-24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]

From there Elisha went up to <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Bethel</st1:place></st1:city>. As he was walking along the road, some youths came out of the town and jeered at him. "Go on up, you baldhead!" they said. "Go on up, you baldhead!" He turned around, looked at them and called down a curse on them in the name of the LORD. Then two bears came out of the woods and mauled forty-two of the youths.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why did God kill people who touched or looked into the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state>?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Samuel 6:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But God struck down some of the men of Beth Shemesh, putting seventy of them to death because they had looked into the ark of the Lord. The people mourned because of the heavy blow the Lord had dealt them. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2 Samuel 6:2-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Chr 13:7-10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]He and all his men set out from Baalah of Judah to bring up from there the ark of God, which is called by the Name, the name of the Lord Almighty, who is enthroned between the cherubim that are on the ark. They set the ark of God on a new cart and brought it from the house of Abinadab, which was on the hill. Uzzah and Ahio, sons of Abinadab, were guiding the new cart with the ark of God on it, and Ahio was walking in front of it. David and the whole house of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> were celebrating with all their might before the Lord , with songs and with harps, lyres, tambourines, sistrums and cymbals. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When they came to the threshing floor of Nacon, Uzzah reached out and took hold of the ark of God, because the oxen stumbled. The Lord's anger burned against Uzzah because of his irreverent act; therefore God struck him down and he died there beside the ark of God. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
The Ark of the Covenant was an embodiment of God's presence with the Israelites. The atonement cover (or "mercy seat") that covered the ark was God's throne ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Sam 6:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and God's presence was above it ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 16:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]); it was also the place where God met Moses and gave him commands ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 25:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). If someone approached the ark, they would effectively be in God's presence - a sinner standing before a holy God who does not tolerate evil ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 5:4-6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) - and would die as a result of their sins. For this reason, God had given the Israelites many rules concerning the Ark of the Covenant. It was to be kept in the <st1:street w:st="on"><st1:address w:st="on">Most Holy Place</st1:address></st1:street> in the temple, hidden from view by a curtain ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 26:33[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Only the high priest could enter the Most Holy Place, and then only after he had undergone ceremonial cleansing, made sacrifices to atone for his sins and the nation's sins, and burned incense to conceal the atonement cover ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). When the ark was moved, it was covered with at least 3 layers of cloth by the priests to protect others from seeing it ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 4:5-6, 15, 18-20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]); the priests/Levites carried it and everyone else had to stay about a thousand yards away ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Josh 3:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). These laws enforced the concept of God's holiness: sinful people couldn't be in his presence, not even the high priest. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hence, when Uzzah touched the ark, he was profaning it and disobeying God; he should have grabbed the poles used for carrying the ark instead, for that was their purpose ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 25:14-15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). And as Glenn Miller points out in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]his response[/FONT][FONT=&quot], the ark shouldn't have been on a cart anyway, but should have been carried on people's shoulders ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Chr 15:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Israelites who looked in the ark were actually violating several laws: they came near to the ark (a violation if they weren't Levites), they looked at the ark, they touched the ark and they moved the atonement cover, which was God's symbolic throne. Since God's presence was on/over the ark, they were actually coming into the presence of God - and without the least sense of reverence towards him, since they decided to poke around and play with his throne! Is it any wonder they died? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why did so many die at Beth Shemesh? My Bible says 50,070 died![/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Some translations, including the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]NKJV[/FONT][FONT=&quot], have the number of deaths as 50,070, and a footnote in the NIV says that most Hebrew manuscripts have 50,070 instead of 70. The NIV Study Bible explains their translation decision: "The additional <st1:metricconverter productid="50,000 in" w:st="on">50,000 in</st1:metricconverter> most Hebrew manuscripts is apparently a copyist's mistake because it is added in an ungrammatical way (no conjunction)." The NKJV itself has a footnote stating that the verse could also be translated "He struck seventy men of the people and fifty oxen of a man." It is therefore rather doubtful that the actual number of deaths was 50,070. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Even given that the number of deaths was seventy, that's still a large number, and all those people couldn't have been looking into a roughly 2-feet-by-4-feet container at the same time. However, one can picture a large group of people crowding around as someone moved the cover of the ark, and people passing by stopping to stare curiously. All of those people knew what the ark was and symbolized ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Sam 6:13-15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) - hence their great curiosity - and therefore they knew that approaching the ark and looking inside it was wrong. The onlookers could see what was going on and should have called out and warned or rebuked those trying to look inside, rather than participating by trying to look at the ark themselves. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Cannibalism in the Bible<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 28:53-57[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 26:29[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Because of the suffering that your enemy will inflict on you during the siege, you will eat the fruit of the womb, the flesh of the sons and daughters the Lord your God has given you. Even the most gentle and sensitive man among you will have no compassion on his own brother or the wife he loves or his surviving children, and he will not give to one of them any of the flesh of his children that he is eating. It will be all he has left because of the suffering your enemy will inflict on you during the siege of all your cities. The most gentle and sensitive woman among you - so sensitive and gentle that she would not venture to touch the ground with the sole of her foot - will begrudge the husband she loves and her own son or daughter the afterbirth from her womb and the children she bears. For she intends to eat them secretly during the siege and in the distress that your enemy will inflict on you in your cities. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2 Kings 6:26-29[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As the king of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> was passing by on the wall, a woman cried to him, "Help me, my lord the king!" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The king replied, "If the Lord does not help you, where can I get help for you? From the threshing floor? From the winepress?" Then he asked her, "What's the matter?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]She answered, "This woman said to me, 'Give up your son so we may eat him today, and tomorrow we'll eat my son.' So we cooked my son and ate him. The next day I said to her, 'Give up your son so we may eat him,' but she had hidden him." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jeremiah 19:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 5:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I will make them eat the flesh of their sons and daughters, and they will eat one another's flesh during the stress of the siege imposed on them by the enemies who seek their lives. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Lamentations 4:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]With their own hands compassionate women
have cooked their own children,
who became their food
when my people were destroyed. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John 6:53-56[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus said to them, "I tell you the truth, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you. Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day. For my flesh is real food and my blood is real drink. Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood remains in me, and I in him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
Most of the above passages apply to the siege of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>. The Deuteronomy and Leviticus passages are general predictions of what would happen to the Israelites if they disobeyed God, Jeremiah and Ezekiel are specific predictions of cannibalism during the siege, and Lamentations records the fulfillment. There are two important things to remember here. One is that the circumstances of the siege came about only after <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> persisted in doing wrong despite multiple warnings and lesser punishments. The punishment described in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Leviticus 26[/FONT][FONT=&quot] comes only after the Israelites have disobeyed and ignored punishments five times in succession (vv. 14-15, 18, 21, 23, 27). Prior to the actual siege, the Israelites had done more wrong than other nations that God had punished ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 21:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), and they ignored repeated warnings from the prophets Jeremiah and Ezekiel. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The second thing to remember is that the Israelites could have avoided these terrible circumstances by repenting at any time. Both the warnings in Deuteronomy and Leviticus are preceeded by promised blessings for obedience ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 26:3-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 28:1-14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and are followed by assurances that wrongdoers who repent will be forgiven and restored ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 26:40-45[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 30:1-10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). In fact, God said through Jeremiah, "If at any time I announce that a nation or kingdom is to be uprooted, torn down and destroyed, and if that nation I warned repents of its evil, then I will relent and not inflict on it the disaster I had planned" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 18:7-8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and through Ezekiel, "If a wicked man turns away from the wickedness he has committed and does what is just and right, he will save his life...I take no pleasure in the death of anyone, declares the Sovereign Lord. Repent and live!" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 18:27, 32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) For more on the the circumstances of the siege, see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]The Siege of Jerusalem[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The passage in 2 Kings 6 is similar. Joram, the king of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>, was the son of Ahab and Jezebel. Ahab was especially wicked ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Ki 21:25-26[/FONT][FONT=&quot]); his failings included going against God's will by releasing Ben-Hadad, the king of <st1:country-region w:st="on">Aram</st1:country-region> who attacked <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Ki 20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), and murdering a man to obtain his property ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Ki 21:18-19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Consequently, God threatened to punish Ahab, but since Ahab repented the punishment was delayed ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Ki 21:20-29[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Joram would have known about the predicted punishment and would have had reason for believing it, since the prediction concerning Ahab came true ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Ki 22:37-38[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Accordingly, he should have repented of his own sins and followed God, but instead he continued in his father's footsteps. Though he wasn't as evil as Ahab, he still encouraged <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> to worship idols ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 3:1-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot], cf [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Ki 12:26-33[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Hence God allowed <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Samaria</st1:place></st1:city> to be besieged - and by the same king that Ahab had mistakenly allowed to live ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 6:24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Even so, once Joram allowed the prophet Elisha to tell him God's will, God miraculously drove away the Aramean army and provided food for the city ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Had Joram repented, the punishment would never have occurred in the first place (cf [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 18:14-20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]); had he sought the Lord earlier, the siege would not have lasted so long. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The John 6 passage is simply an instance of Jesus using a metaphor to illustrate a concept. This particular metaphor is repeated during the Last Supper (e.g. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 20:19-20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), when it's clearer that it's a metaphor and not literal cannibalism. Had Jesus meant it literally (or had the disciples interpreted it literally), the Gospels would have recorded the disciples' cannibalization of Jesus after his death rather than his burial. Jesus often used metaphors that his listeners misunderstood and interpreted literally (see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 2:19-21[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]11:11-15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Siege of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>: Why did God punish the Israelites so harshly?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Timeline of Events <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Years are BC)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="margin-left: 1.5pt;" border="0" cellpadding="0"> <tbody><tr style=""> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]640-609<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;"> [FONT=&quot]Reign of Josiah ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 22:1-23:30[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Chr 34-35[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]609<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;"> [FONT=&quot]Reign of Jehoahaz (3 months) ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 23:30-34[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Chr 36:1-4[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]609-597<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;"> [FONT=&quot]Reign of Jehoiakim ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 23:34-24:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Chr 36:5-8[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]605<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;"> [FONT=&quot]First attack of Nebuchadnezzar on Jersualem ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 24:1-2[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]597<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;"> [FONT=&quot]Reign of Jehoiachin (3 months) ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 24:8-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]25:27-30[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Chr 36:9-10[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]597<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;"> [FONT=&quot]Second attack of Nebuchadnezzar on Jersualem ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 24:8-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]597-586<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;"> [FONT=&quot]Reign of Zedekiah ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 24:17-25:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Chr 36:10-20[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]586<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="padding: 2.25pt;"> [FONT=&quot]Third attack on Jersualem; <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> destroyed ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 25:1-21[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> </tbody></table> [FONT=&quot]
Punishment of <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:country-region w:st="on">Judah</st1:country-region></st1:place> <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The people of <st1:country-region w:st="on">Judah</st1:country-region> knew what God wanted them to do, for Josiah rediscovered the Book of the Law in 622 ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 22:3-10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and read it to the people of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 23:1-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Josiah's grandfather Manasseh and great-grandfather Hezekiah were also aware of God's commands ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Chr 33:10-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 18:1-6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Furthermore, the Israelites were repeatedly warned about their wrongdoing. Jeremiah warned them for 23 years ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 25:2-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and other prophets warned them as well ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 25:4-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]7:25-26[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). However, the response of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Judah</st1:place></st1:country-region>'s kings to these warnings was to persecute and kill the messengers ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 26:20-23[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]20:1-2[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]38:1-9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Israelites had committed many wrongs, including: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]In fact, during the reign of <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:city w:st="on">Manasseh</st1:city>, <st1:country-region w:st="on">Judah</st1:country-region></st1:place> did more evil than the nations God had punished with destruction ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Ki 21:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), and the following generations were even more wicked ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 16:10-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Even so, God promised to not destroy them completely ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 4:27[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]5:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and to restore them once the punishment was finished ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]32:36-44[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Furthermore, if the people had repented and changed their ways, they would have avoided punishment ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]26:2-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]5:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]7:3-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]18:7-8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Those who weren't as deserving of punishment were spared death and sent into exile instead ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]24:5-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Individuals who performed righteous acts were given special protection, including Jeremiah ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]15:20-21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), Baruch ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]36:8-10[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]45[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and Ebed-Melech ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]38:6-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]39:16-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
The Siege of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One of the passages people find most troubling is [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jeremiah 19:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: "I will make them eat the flesh of their sons and daughters, and they will eat one another's flesh during the stress of the siege imposed on them by the enemies who seek their lives." This did occur during the siege of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lam 4:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The warning was originally given to the elders and priests in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 19:1-2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), those who should have been the most responsive to God's words and who should have led the people to repentance. Jeremiah later informed King Zedekiah that he could end the siege and spare <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> by surrendering to the Babylonians, which is what God wanted him to do ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]38:17-23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Also, the people of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> themselves were repeatedly told that they could save their lives at any time by surrendering ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]21:8-9[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]27:16-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]38:1-2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Garden of Eden<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Genesis 2:16-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]And the Lord God commanded the man, "You are free to eat from any tree in the garden; but you must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, for when you eat of it you will surely die." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Genesis 3:1-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (see also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Now the serpent was more crafty than any of the wild animals the Lord God had made. He said to the woman, "Did God really say, 'You must not eat from any tree in the garden'?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The woman said to the serpent, "We may eat fruit from the trees in the garden, but God did say, 'You must not eat fruit from the tree that is in the middle of the garden, and you must not touch it, or you will die.'" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"You will not surely die," the serpent said to the woman. "For God knows that when you eat of it your eyes will be opened, and you will be like God, knowing good and evil." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also desirable for gaining wisdom, she took some and ate it. She also gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it. Then the eyes of both of them were opened, and they realized they were naked; so they sewed fig leaves together and made coverings for themselves. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]How could God condemn Adam and Eve when they didn't know right from wrong?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Though Adam and Eve lacked knowledge of good and evil before eating from the tree, that doesn't necessarily mean they had no understanding of obedience and disobedience, or that they were totally ignorant of right and wrong - any more than the presence of the tree of life meant they were dead until they ate from it. Even today, we lack a complete understanding of good and evil - we continually debate and question various moral issues - yet we are not completely ignorant of good and evil either. God explained to Adam both what he was not to do (eat from the tree) and what the consequences of disobedience were (death) in Genesis 2:16-<st1:metricconverter productid="17. In" w:st="on">17. In</st1:metricconverter> other words, God taught them that eating from the tree was wrong, so they did know it was wrong, even if they were ignorant of other ethical matters. Eve clearly understood the command and the negative consequences, for she was able to explain it to the serpent.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][1][/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Some have objected that Adam and Eve wouldn't know what death was. However, God was able to communicate with them, apparently using spoken language, as soon as they were created. It would make sense for God to give Adam the command about the tree almost immediately, before Adam had the chance to eat from any of the trees, yet Adam was able to understand what God said, even if he hadn't yet eaten anything. If God was able to give Adam and Eve the understanding of language, he could also have given them an understanding of what death was before they witnessed death themselves. (Interestingly, they may have witnessed animal death before eating the fruit - see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Did Death Occur on Earth Prior to Man's Sin?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] by Bert Thompson.) Additionally, Eve at least understood that death was something to be avoided, for she gave death as the reason why they were not to eat the fruit, and the serpent persuaded her by telling her she wouldn't die. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Another way of looking at this is to consider the moral state of young children. Children lack moral knowledge and need to be taught right from wrong. Yet children are not completely devoid of moral knowledge, either: they know that when another child cuts in front of them in line or takes the toy they were playing with, they have a right to object. Children don't have to be taught that there is such a thing as right and wrong, or that hurting people is wrong. They don't have to be taught to feel guilty when they do something wrong. What they do have to be taught is which particular actions are wrong or will result in someone getting hurt. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It's possible that Adam and Eve's initial state was similar to this. In other words, they had the foundations of moral knowledge: they knew there was such a thing as right and wrong, and if one of them had hurt the other, they probably would not have regarded the act as morally neutral. However, they lacked specific knowledge (e.g. they didn't recognize the difference between modest and immodest dress), and therefore learned some things when they ate the fruit. Their relative innocence still didn't provide them with a valid excuse, as their awareness of morality coupled with God's explicit instruction meant they knew it was wrong to eat the fruit. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God told Adam and Eve they would die if they ate the fruit, but they didn't.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Adam and Eve died and did not die. They died spiritually: they were removed from a place where they had direct contact with God, and could not go back. They did not experience immediate physical death, but they did eventually die; it may be that the process of aging and decay started on the day they ate the fruit. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Other responses (offsite): <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]The test in the Garden was set up so that humans would fail.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Response by [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Glenn Miller[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (offsite) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why did God put the tree in the garden, if he didn't want Adam and Eve to eat from it?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why didn't God create the Garden of Eden without the tree of knowledge of good and evil in it, since he didn't want Adam and Eve to eat from it? Wouldn't all the subsequent problems have been avoided if Adam and Eve couldn't get to the tree? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If God had constructed the Garden of Eden so that there were no rules and no way for Adam and Eve to do wrong, then Adam and Eve would be effectively forced to obey God. In order for us to be free - which in this case refers to the freedom to follow or ignore God - we have to be able to make choices. Adam and Eve couldn't have chosen to follow God if they literally had no other choice. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why did God forbid eating from the tree of knowledge of good and evil? Isn't knowledge a good thing?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Is it wrong to have moral knowledge? Did God's instruction to Adam and Eve signify that he wanted them to remain ignorant? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God gives commands for different reasons. Some of his commands reflect absolute moral principles (e.g. "Don't commit adultery"). Other commands are given to specific individuals in specific situations. For instance, God's commandment to Noah to build an ark doesn't apply to the rest of us, nor does it mean that shipbuilders and sailors are holier than those who stay on land. God's command to Adam and Eve was not a command to avoid all knowledge, nor was it a command to all of humanity to avoid learning about morality. It was the command God chose to give in order to test Adam and Eve, to give them a free choice whether to obey him or not. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Adam and Eve were allowed to keep the new knowledge they gained after eating the fruit. God even helped them to follow their enlightened consciences by providing clothing for them.[2] In fact, it's possible that God chose the tree of moral knowledge to be the forbidden tree because he knew Adam and Eve would disobey him and would need the knowledge they gained in their new life outside the Garden. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why did God punish Adam and Eve so severely for simply eating a fruit?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This question is rather like asking, "Why do people get sent to jail for life just for moving a small lever?" Someone who points a gun at another person and shoots them is, in a simplistic sense, merely moving a piece of metal and pulling a small trigger. The difference betwen this action and an ordinary action is that it results in injuring or killing another person. Adam and Eve ate a fruit that God had warned them would cause death - essentially, they were drinking from a bottle labeled "Poison" and passing it around. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Furthermore, Adam and Eve were disobeying a direct command from God and distrusting what he had told them about the tree. By distrusting what God had said, they were disrespecting someone they owed respect to, as well as foolishly disregarding the instruction of someone wiser and more knowledgable than themselves. By disobeying a perfectly good God, they were choosing to follow evil instead of good. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]All Adam did was fail to blindly obey God, so he wasn't wrong[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Would Adam have been blindly obeying God, if he obeyed? Or did he have reason to obey God? Consider Adam's life up to the point of eating the fruit: He'd always lived in a garden, which was described as "very good." Presumably he knew God created him and the garden: he knew God created Eve by using his rib, and God communicated with him. God gave him an occupation as a gardener, provided for all his needs (both food and companionship), and gave him a good measure of freedom (he could eat from any tree except two; he and his wife were free to talk to someone opposed to God; etc.). Adam had no reason to think God was giving him false information or was acting against his best interests in any way when he said, "Don't eat from that tree or something bad will happen to you." On the other hand, what reason did he or Eve have to believe the serpent? Adam and Eve chose to trust a stranger and to doubt God's goodness and wisdom. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A talking snake?![/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Can we take Genesis 3 seriously, since it records Eve's conversation with a snake? Why would Eve talk to a serpent to begin with, unless she was very ignorant - and therefore lacking the mental competency to make moral decisions? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Interestingly, this is not the only place in the Bible where an animal speaks. God used a donkey to rebuke the errant prophet Balaam.[3] If it had served God's purposes, God could have caused one of the animals in the Garden to speak to Adam and Eve. However, it is generally assumed that Satan was speaking through the snake, not God or the snake itself. Thus Genesis does not mean to imply that snakes have human-like intelligence or are capable of human speech. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why would Satan choose a talking animal? Possibly, Satan had the ability to possess the snake, but not to create a new creature (e.g. a third human) or disguise himself as a human - or God prohibited him from doing so.[4] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As for Eve, she didn't necessarily have the same perspective we do on talking animals. We know from history as well as our own experience that animals don't talk. We also grew up with stories of animals talking, and were taught to regard them as imaginary. Adam and Eve didn't have a childhood, nor did they have other humans to learn from. They may not even have been alive for very long when the incident occurred. For all they knew, animals did speak from time to time. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It's also possible that this was not the first talking animal Adam and Eve had encountered. Perhaps Satan or even God had used animals to communicate with Adam and Eve before. Finally, if we were in Eve's shoes, what would we do? The snake was speaking to her in a language that she understood, and was asking an intelligible question. Adam was nearby and could verify that she wasn't imagining things. It was therefore not unreasonable of her to answer. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen, how do we know that Genesis should be in the Bible?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Among other reasons, because Jesus and so many others in the Bible authenticated the Old Testament and referred to Genesis as scripture. See Matthew 19:4 and Mark 10:4-9 for two examples where Jesus quotes from the Book of Genesis as scripture.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen, who first answered questions on Genesis?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: As far as I am aware, the first person to write answers to questions on Genesis was Philo, a Hellenistic Jew from <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Alexandria</st1:place></st1:city>, who lived from about 20 B.C. to <st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D. Today we have an Armenian translation of his work. He wrote a three part work, Questions and Answers on Genesis. We have preserved his answers to 244 questions from Genesis 1 to 17, according to the standpoint of a pious Jew who was heavily influenced by Greek Platonic philosophy. You can get this in The Works of Philo : Complete and Unabridged – new updated version translated by C.D. Yonge Hendrickson Publishers1993 fourth printing 1997.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1, since some things have to be true, like 1 = 1, and 1 + 1 = 2, did God create mathematics and numbers? How could He create them any other way?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: God created everything; however, a tautology, which is something that by definition is true like red things are red-colored, is not a thing. We can speculate that God created every "thing" in mathematics that is not a tautology.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1, since God created everything, did He create darkness, evil, and holes in the ground? If He created evil, He does not sound like a perfectly good God. If not, then whoever did sounds like they are a creator also.
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: God created every thing. Darkness is not a thing, but an absence or reduction of light. Evil is not a thing, but an absence or twisting of good. Holes, darkness, and evil were not directly created by God, but they came into existence as tautologies, or "existential byproducts" of matter, light and good. Likewise a shadow is not an independent thing, having matter, energy, or spirit. Nevertheless, plants can die in the shadows. So shadows have a "parasitic existence" but they still really exist.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1, since God created everything good, why do tornadoes, plagues, and other disasters strike?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Everything was originally good. However, Romans 8:20-22 reveals that since the Fall, the earth was "subjected to frustration" too. The whole world is under the dominion of the evil one (1 John 5:19), and the prince of this world is Satan according to John 12:31; 14:30.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1, what is the cosmological argument?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: First, here is a simple, logically loose way to phrase it.
You can’t get something from nothing. Every created thing had to be created. Even the first created thing(s) had to be created by something or someone that was already there. Therefore, something or someone had to be uncreated and eternal.
Here is a more rigorous formulation; the definitions are my own.
We assume that everyone knows enough to have a suitable definition of logic, contradiction and non-contradiction, event, process, "in", object, collection, time, sequence, matter, energy, spirit, cause, affected by, and affects.
Actual existence is defined here as being in this universe, has the ability to be affected by something in this universe, or has the ability to affect something in this universe. This would be too narrow a definition of "existence", as it fails to consider ideas, patterns, and other things. So, let’s call this "actual existence" and restrict our discussion here actual existence.
Real thing is defined here as an object or collection of matter, energy, spirit, or combination that has actual existence. Logical truths, logical contradictions, and mathematical proofs are not considered things here.
Parasitic existence, as an aside, is defined as the actual existence of things that are not real things. Holes, darkness, shortages, [/FONT]
 
Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

<meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"><meta name="ProgId" content="Word.Document"><meta name="Generator" content="Microsoft Word 11"><meta name="Originator" content="Microsoft Word 11"><link rel="File-List" href="file:///C:%5CDOCUME%7E1%5CADMINI%7E1%5CCONFIG%7E1%5CTemp%5Cmsohtml1%5C16%5Cclip_filelist.xml"><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="State"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="PlaceName"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="PlaceType"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="City"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="country-region"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="place"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="metricconverter"></o:smarttagtype><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:WordDocument> <w:View>Normal</w:View> <w:Zoom>0</w:Zoom> <w:HyphenationZone>21</w:HyphenationZone> <w:punctuationKerning/> <w:ValidateAgainstSchemas/> <w:SaveIfXMLInvalid>false</w:SaveIfXMLInvalid> <w:IgnoreMixedContent>false</w:IgnoreMixedContent> <w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText>false</w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText> <w:Compatibility> <w:BreakWrappedTables/> <w:SnapToGridInCell/> <w:WrapTextWithPunct/> <w:UseAsianBreakRules/> <w:DontGrowAutofit/> </w:Compatibility> <w:BrowserLevel>MicrosoftInternetExplorer4</w:BrowserLevel> </w:WordDocument> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:LatentStyles DefLockedState="false" LatentStyleCount="156"> </w:LatentStyles> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if !mso]><object classid="clsid:38481807-CA0E-42D2-BF39-B33AF135CC4D" id=ieooui></object> <style> st1\:*{behavior:url(#ieooui) } </style> <![endif]--><style> <!-- /* Font Definitions */ @font-face {font-family:Calibri; panose-1:2 15 5 2 2 2 4 3 2 4; mso-font-charset:0; mso-generic-font-family:swiss; mso-font-pitch:variable; mso-font-signature:-1610611985 1073750139 0 0 159 0;} @font-face {font-family:"Agency FB"; panose-1:2 11 5 3 2 2 2 2 2 4; mso-font-charset:0; mso-generic-font-family:swiss; mso-font-pitch:variable; mso-font-signature:3 0 0 0 1 0;} /* Style Definitions */ p.MsoNormal, li.MsoNormal, div.MsoNormal {mso-style-parent:""; margin-top:0cm; margin-right:0cm; margin-bottom:10.0pt; margin-left:0cm; line-height:115%; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:11.0pt; font-family:Calibri; mso-fareast-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-bidi-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-fareast-language:EN-US;} a:link, span.MsoHyperlink {color:blue; text-decoration:underline; text-underline:single;} a:visited, span.MsoHyperlinkFollowed {color:purple; text-decoration:underline; text-underline:single;} @page Section1 {size:612.0pt 792.0pt; margin:70.85pt 3.0cm 70.85pt 3.0cm; mso-header-margin:36.0pt; mso-footer-margin:36.0pt; mso-paper-source:0;} div.Section1 {page:Section1;} --> </style><!--[if gte mso 10]> <style> /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Tabla normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0cm 5.4pt 0cm 5.4pt; mso-para-margin:0cm; mso-para-margin-bottom:.0001pt; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:10.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]incorrectness, and evil are not matter, energy, or spirit, yet as a shadow can kill plants that need sun, or a lack of food can kill a person, shadows and lack of food have actual existence without being real things.
The universe is defined here as a collection of real things that actually exist. Note that in this particular definition the universe is self-contained, and God (assuming God exists, is spirit, and can affect things) is in the universe.
Nothing is defined here as something that never actually exists, or does not have actual existence at a particular time. In other words, before it is created [or after it is destroyed], a real thing is not in the universe, does not affect the universe, and is not affected by the universe.
A cause is defined as having actual existence since it affects other things in the universe that have actual existence. A cause is a real thing by definition if it can have matter, energy, spirit, or a combination of the above.
Creation is defined here as the event or process of making a new real thing. Creation is differentiated from "modification", which does not necessarily require any cause outside of the thing itself. Creation of a new real thing can include modification or destruction of a pre-existing real thing, but it does not have to do so. However, see the next point.
Something cannot come from nothing. Every created real thing requires a cause for its creation. In other words, nothing can be created unless some thing(s) or being(s) created it. Something cannot be created without any cause.
Something cannot create itself. Nothing can create itself. While real things sometimes can change themselves, or destroy themselves, nothing can be its own cause of creation.
A first cause. While created real things can create other created real things, ultimately there had to be a first cause. In other words, in a sequence of causes, at least one cause had to be before all other causes that require a cause.
Uncreated. Since at least one cause has to have no prior cause, and every creation requires a cause, at least one thing or being with actual existence is uncreated and existed from eternity past, because it had had no creation.
Summary: Every real thing that exists either had a point in time or a time period at which it first existed, or else it did not. If it did not, it is eternal and uncreated. If it did, then some real thing was a cause for its existence.
Limitations: This argument does not prove the first cause is a living being, or that there is only one uncreated cause, or whether any uncreated causes still exist. It simply proves that there was at least thing of actual existence (personal or impersonal) that existed eternally without being created.
One of the first writers to clearly see the cosmological argument and speak of God as the first cause was Philo the Jew, who lived in [/FONT]<st1:place w:st="on"><st1:city w:st="on">[FONT=&quot]Alexandria[/FONT]</st1:city>[FONT=&quot], <st1:country-region w:st="on">Egypt</st1:country-region>[/FONT]</st1:place>[FONT=&quot], from 15/20 B.C. to <st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.. R.C. Sproul and Norm Geisler have numerous good material on the cosmological argument.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: The argument that "the complexity of the world indicates that there must be a creator" sounds good, until taken to its logical conclusion. What about God’s complexity? If an intricate being requires a designer, then God must require an even greater designer, and so on up the scale. Where does it end? The argument ends up in an "infinite regression," and there is no answer to it. Is there?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Before answering this argument, let me amplify on "the problem" first. Apart from complexity, this is also an issue with a defective form of the cosmological argument. If everything has a cause, then God too must have a cause. But of course God does not required a cuase for His creation if God is eternal and uncreated.
Since something must have an end, or else not have an end, there are only two possible answers:
there is no end to the backward regression
there is an end to the backward regression, an uncaused first cause.
If a), there were no end to the backward regression, then not everything has a cause, because the regression itself ultimately had no cause. Therefore, either way there is someone/something that has no cause.
If b), there is an end to the backward regression, then there must be a first cause, of unspecified complexity. Of course, then this means that God is not a caused being, a product of any creation.
I wonder though, if God might find this whole argument so simplistic, because we think of causes in time. If God exists outside of time as well as in it, and if time too is a creation of God, then speaking about what was it like in the time before God existed is an oxymoron.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1, could God have created other beings and worlds?
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[FONT=&quot]A: He certainly did create other beings: angels and demons. As to creating other worlds with beings on them, the Bible does not tell us all we desire to know, only what we need to know — and we need to make sure we at least read that. God could have created other universes, and perhaps that is what Heaven and Hell are.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1, why did God make Adam and Eve, since God knew beforehand that they would disobey Him?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Despite God foreknowing that they would sin, God tells us a number of things as to why He created people.
For His glory: God created His children for His glory. Isaiah 43:7; 61:34.
People to love: God greatly loves us. Psalm 145:9,17; 1 John 3:1.
To be His children: 1 John 3:1-2; Galatians 3:28, Romans 8:15-17
To live in us: 1 John 4:12-16; Romans 8:9-11
God desires that none perish. Ezekiel 18:23,32; 33:11; 2 Peter 3:9. Yet, God feels no regret about creating those who, given the opportunity, freely choose to reject Him. God foreknew that they would sin, and still chose not to interfere with their choice or "uncreate" them.
Perhaps part of the reason God chose to create beings who would be in His image is similar to the reason parents choose to have children. Yes, the children will be expensive, with diapers and food, and yes the children will cause heartache by their ills, hurts, and disobedience, but through it all, the love makes it worthwhile.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:1, did God create because He needed to create?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Bible provides no support for this speculation. God has no needs, in the sense that He would be harmed or cease to exist if He did not create something. On the other hand, God’s desire was to create, and God fulfilled His desire on a grand, wonderful scale.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:1, were there more creations after Genesis?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture does not say either way, and God is free to do as He wishes. If God created other creatures, they could be like the angels, like Adam and Eve prior to the Fall, like us, like demons, like animals, or something entirely different.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:2, if the spirit of God was moving over the waters, does this mean the Holy Spirit is not an intelligent, living being, but instead an active force as Jehovah’s Witnesses claim?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. The fact that the Holy Spirit does not have a physical body and can move over the waters does not contradict the fact that Scripture shows the Holy Spirit is a living being with a personality.
The following is a duplicate of the discussion on 1 John 5:6-8.
A witness can be a living being as well as an inanimate object. A mistake of Jehovah’s Witnesses is that since the Holy Spirit has many attributes a human being does not have, therefore (by some stretch of logic) the Holy Spirit cannot have personality. 1 John 5:6-8 shows there are three witnesses to the fact that Jesus had a physical body. The blood refers to His crucifixion, and the Spirit is an inward testimony to Christians. The water refers either to Jesus’ baptism by John, or possibly the water surrounding a baby at birth.
Following are various facts the Bible teaches us about the personality of the Holy Spirit.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Parakletos[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (the comforter, the one along side us). John 14:16,26, John 15:26
Can know the innermost thoughts of God 1 Corinthians 2:10-11
Speaks to us. Acts 13:2, Hebrews 3:7
Reminds us. John 14:26
Like a parent, so we will not be orphans (orphanos in Greek). John 14:18
Guides us. John 16:13
Teaches us. John 14:26 1 Corinthians 2:13
Lives in us. 1 Cor 3:16, 2 Timothy 1:14, Romans 8:9,11, Ephesians 2:22
In our hearts. 2 Corinthians 1:22 Galatians 4:6
He intercedes for us (inanimate objects do not pray or intercede). Romans 8:26-27
Can be insulted. Hebrews 10:29
Testifies of Christ. John 15:26
Has a mind. Romans 8:27
Can be grieved. Isaiah 63:10, Ephesians 4:30
Makes choices. 1 Corinthians 12:11
Possesses love. Romans 15:30
Can think things are good Acts 15:28
Searches deep things of God 1 Corinthians 2:9-10
Groans (and thus cares) for us Romans 8:26
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]See When Cultists Ask p.299 and Jehovah’s Witnesses Answered Verse by Verse p.21-22 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:10, how could God create the earth, since the earth was already created in Gen 1:1?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Hebrew word (eres) is the same in both cases. As in English, (eres) can mean the world under the sky, and it can mean ground or dry land. Thus God created the planet in Genesis 1:1, and the dry ground in Genesis 1:12. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.65-66.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1 and Gen 2, why do there seem to be two creation accounts?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Look at what is created in each account. Genesis 1 is the creation of the heavens and the earth, and Genesis 2 is the creation of humans in the Garden of Eden. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.66-68, Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.133-134, 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.21-22, and When Critics Ask p.35 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1 and other places, why is God called Elohim, while in other places, such as Gen 2, God is called Yahweh?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God has a great number of names and titles in the Bible. It seems that the name Yahweh focuses on God’s personal relationship to us in contrast to the name Elohim, which emphasizes His impartial, transcendent aspects.
735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.21-22 says it was common in ancient cultures to have more than one name for the same god. Here are examples:
Osiris – Wennefer, <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:city w:st="on">Khent-amentius</st1:city>, <st1:state w:st="on">Neb</st1:state></st1:place>-abdu
Bel – Enlil, Nunamnir
Sin – Nanna
El – Latpan
Baal – Larpan
See When Critics Ask p.33-34 and Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.66-68 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1, could God create the earth in literal six 24-hour days?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Regardless of whether they think the earth is old or young, all Christians should answer this question "yes".
Instead of six days, the Almighty could have created it in six seconds if He had wanted. The issue is not how God had to create, but how scripture and nature reveal He chose to create.
As a side note, Scripture does not say how long a day with God is in Genesis 1. Deuteronomy 7:1 shows that a "day" could indicate a period of time greater than 24 hours, as it was understood in Moses’ "day". Psalm 90:4; 2 Peter 3:8 indicate God’s days could be very long. See When Critics Ask p.32-33 and Archer, Survey of Old Testament Introduction p.187-199, for outlines of various views. See also the next two questions.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1 do the similarities between this and the Babylonian creation accounts prove they were from a common, human origin? (Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.1197 claims this is very likely)
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[FONT=&quot]A: Babylonian accounts are similar in many physical details, but almost diametrically opposite in terms of cause. In contrast to Marduk struggling against the chaos of the dragon Tiamat, God commands what happens. If there is some truth in non-Biblical culture that should not be a surprise. In addition, the style of Genesis 1 appears to be a deliberate contrast with pagan concepts.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:26 and 3:22, why is the word "us" is used for the One True God?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There are two possible answers.
1. The "us" refers to the One true God, but plural is the proper sense for a conversation among the Trinity.
2. The "royal we" was used of kings and gods for one person. As an example of this in the Mideastern religion if Islam, the Muslim Qur’an uses "us" and "we" when Allah is referring to himself. Muslims and non-Muslims can agree that use of the "royal we" in the Qur’an does not suggest Mohammed taught that Allah was multiple gods.
However, Philo the Jew (15/20 B.C. to <st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) interpreted this not as the royal "we", but that God used assistants in On the Creation chapter 24 no.75 p.11.
See When Critics Ask p.30-31, When Cultists Ask p.20-21, and Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.180-182 for this and other views.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 1:26 mean that we should be educated to acquire divine perfections and the focus of divine blessings, as Bahai’s teach in Some Answered Questions p.8,9?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, because Genesis 1:27 says that God did what He said in Genesis 1:26. When Adam and Eve were created, they were perfectly sinless before the fall, and they did not need education. While we are still in the image of God, Genesis 1:26-28 refers to what God already accomplished.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 1:26 mean people are "little-gods" themselves, as Kenneth Hagin and some word-faith teachers say?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. The word in Genesis is "like" not "is". Even word-faith teachers would agree that creatures like us were never to be worshipped. The bodies of Adam and Eve were given an immortality that could be forfeited, a righteousness that could be ruined, and a perfect love for God that could be thrown away like an old piece of fruit. See When Cultists Ask p.21-22 for more info and a partial enumeration of the ways we are not.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:26-27, was this a conversation among the members of the Trinity, or created beings such as angels?
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[FONT=&quot]A: While angels might have overheard these words too, this was a conversation among the Trinity. Our creation was not the work of angels but of God in Trinity. The first Christian writer known to have observed this could not be angels was Justin Martyr (wrote about 138-<st1:metricconverter productid="165 A" w:st="on">165 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) in his Dialogue with Trypho the Jew chapter 62.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:26-27, since God made people higher than the angels, could God later make beings higher than humans?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture does not say either way, and God is free to do whatever He wishes. However Scripture says that believers are "sons of God" and we will "reign with Christ" and be "co-seated with Christ" (Ephesians 2:6). It is hard for a finite creature to be much higher than that.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:26, was Adam a "superman" with ability a million times greater than ours, as Watchman Nee taught in The Latent Power of the Soul (1933 p.15)?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture never taught this strange speculation. It also never taught that Adam was already like God in outward appearance, as Watchman Nee taught in the same book page 18. Unfortunately, people often try to add their own teaching to what God actually said. See The Berean Call April 1998 p.3 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:26, if we are created in God’s image, doesn’t that prove God (or at least the Father) has a man’s physical body? (Mormons mention this.)
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[FONT=&quot]A: Most would agree the Holy Spirit does not have a physical body and Jesus did not have a physical body at that time. If "us" is referring to a discussion with the Father, Son, and Spirit, then image cannot refer to a mere physical body. By the way, Genesis 9:6 shows that since the Fall, we still have God’s image. See When Cultists Ask p.22 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:27, are people still made in the image of God since the Fall?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes. Genesis 9:6, after the flood, shows that even though we are marred by sin, we still have God’s image. See Now That’s A Good Question p.152-153 for essentially the same answer and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.20 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:28, since man was to fill the earth and subdue it, did this give permission for man to destroy the environment?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Not at all! We have never heard of a Christian or Jew who read the Bible with that interpretation. This new rendering, first advanced in 1967 [see Kaiser’s reference at the end], only seems to makes sense if you read part of Genesis 1, and you define "subdue" as "destroy", rather than "wisely rule". Actually the Bible says six important things about taking care of the land and animals.
1. They were "tenants" on land that really belonged to God
1a.
Thus, the land could not be sold permanently (Leviticus 25:23)
1b. All things belong to God (Psalm 24:1)
2. God will judge those who defile the land in general
2a.
Isaiah 24:5 says the earth was defiled by its people.
2b. Zechariah wailed over the destruction of mighty forests and rich pastures. Even more, wailing over the spiritual calamity for which these natural calamities are allegories. (Zechariah 11:1-3)
3. God condemns physically defiling the land
3a.
God will destroy those who destroy the earth. (Revelation 11:18).
3b. God will judge the "sheep" who not only eat what they need, but trample the rest of the pasture. They not only drink clear water, but they muddy the rest of the water with their feet (Ezekiel 34:17-22).
3c. Numbers 5:3 speaks of not defiling the camp, in the context of infectious diseases.
3d. Even in war, do not cut down the fruit trees that make the land productive (Deuteronomy 20:19-20). An olive tree can live for over 1,000 years.
4. God condemns defiling the land with evil
4a.
Numbers 35:33-34 commands us: "do not pollute the land" in the context of killing people.
4b. Do not defile the land with idolatry (Jeremiah 16:18).
4c. Jeremiah 32:34 mentions people defiling the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">valley</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Topheth</st1:placename></st1:place> with infant sacrifice.
4d. In Ezekiel 7:22, the wicked will defile God’s treasured place.
5. God’s Law includes wise resource management
5a.
Adam was put "in the Garden of Eden to work it and take care of it" (Genesis 2:15).
5b. Not planting two kinds of crops together (Deuteronomy 22:9). Instead, alternating crops reduces insect pests.
5c. Letting the land rest every seventh year during the Jubilee (Leviticus 25:3-7,11-12,18).
5d. God would judge <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> for breaking this rule (Leviticus 26:34-35).
6. Animals: owned by God, made for our use, but we must treat animals kindly
6a.
Animals belong to God (Psalm 50:10) and He takes care of them (Psalm 36:6; 104:11,14; 147:8-9).
6b. Eating meat is fine, and in some instances commanded (Genesis 9:2-5; Acts 10:13).
6c. Jesus was sinless (Hebrews 4:15; 7:26; 1 Peter 3:22; 1 John 3:5). He ate fish (Luke 24:42-43) and being a good Jew, ate meat as was commanded during the Passover (Exodus 12:8-10).
6d. Wearing leather is fine, as John the Baptist had a leather belt in Mark 1:6.
6e. Hunting is OK (Leviticus 17:13).
6f. Killing animals for sacrifice was even commanded (Exodus - Deuteronomy).
6g. We are to be kind to animals (Proverbs 12:10).
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.89-90 and the next question for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:28, even though the Bible does not explicitly say we should squander God’s gift of our environment, does Christianity implicitly teach that we can trash the environment?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. You cannot blame the ecological problems caused by greed and over-population on Christianity, any more than one can blame problems on Animists in Africa, Hindus in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>, atheists in <st1:country-region w:st="on">China</st1:country-region>, and Muslims in <st1:country-region w:st="on">Indonesia</st1:country-region> and the <st1:place w:st="on">Mideast</st1:place>. There are ecological problems in every continent, just as there are people who will sacrifice the environment for personal gain on every continent. For a discussion of what the Bible does say about the environment, see the previous answer. See also 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.20-21 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:29 were Adam and Eve given every seed-bearing plant, or could they not eat of the fruit of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil as Gen 2:17 says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: While we do not know whether the tree of the knowledge of good and evil had seeds or not, that is not relevant here. Regardless, the meaning was they could eat of every seed-bearing plant, with the exception of the tree of knowledge of good and evil.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:2-3, why did God rest from working on the seventh day?
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[FONT=&quot]A: "Rest" here means to cease from the work of creating. God does not grow weary (Isaiah 40:28). Scripture never says God needed to rest, but that He chose to do so. See also Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.184-185 and Bible Difficulties "& Seeming Contradictions p.212-213 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:2, was the concept of the Sabbath Babylonian in origin that was added to Jewish tradition later, as Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.19,847-848 says it is tempting to suppose?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Two answers, one for Christians and one for non-Christians.
1. (for Christians): If you assume that Jesus was from God as proved by his resurrection, since Jesus accepted the original accuracy and preserved reliability of the Old Testament, and the references to the Sabbath in Genesis and Jeremiah can be proved to be written before Jesus, it was not a Babylonian invention, and there is nothing more that needs to be said.
2. (for non-Christians): In Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.847 he says the Babylonians called the 15th day of the month sappatu. Of course, that is only one day a month not four. On p.19, Asimov was astute to notice that the Sabbath seemed of little consequence to the Israelites in Pre-Exilic times and of great importance in Post-Exilic times. However, to postulate that the Babylonian and Post-Exilic Jews were universally "hoodwinked" into a) believing their exile was due to failure to obey a command that was not in their Scriptures, and b) this was added in 59 places (35 of which were in the Torah) without anybody noticing the new concept, is incredulous. By the way, not all the Jews went to <st1:place w:st="on">Babylonia</st1:place>. Jeremiah records that some went instead to <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>. It was descendents of those Jews who translated the Old Testament into Greek, and in the Greek Septuagint translation has the Sabbath verses, too.
Any and every speculation about errors in the Bible might be seem completely believable to someone who thought it very important to show there were errors in the Bible and they did not have to follow it. However, even Isaac Asimov at least recognized the tenuousness of this theory by not mentioning it as any more than a temptation.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:4, 5:1, 6:9, 10:1, 11:10, 11:27, 25:12, 25:19, 36:1, 36:9, and 37:2, Num 3:1; Ru 4:18, does the Hebrew word (Tol<sup>e</sup>dot) start a section, or conclude a section?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Either it always refers to the beginning, always refers to the end, or sometimes goes either way.
Ambiguous: Here are some "tol<sup>e</sup>dots" that could be interpreted Either way: Genesis 2:4; 5:1; 36:9; 37:2.
Beginning: Here are some "tol<sup>e</sup>dots" that context demands they be at the beginning: Genesis 6:9; 10:1; 11:10; 11:27; 25:12; 25:19; 36:1; Numbers 3:1. Philo the Jew (15/20 B.C.-<st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) mentions Genesis 2:4 as "summing up his [Moses’] account of the creation of the world" in On the Creation 44:129 p.18.
At the end: There is not a single "tol<sup>e</sup>dot" that provably belongs at the end of a section. Therefore, the ambiguous sections are probably "tol<sup>e</sup>dots" at the beginning.
The most conclusive prove that "tol<sup>e</sup>dot" is at the beginning of a section is Genesis 25:19, which says is it the account of Isaac. The immediately following section speaks of Isaac’s children. The immediately preceding section speaks of Ishmael and has nothing whatsoever to do with Isaac.
See The Bible Knowledge Commentary : Old Testament (Victor Books 1985) p.22-23 for more on why "Tol<sup>e</sup>dot" belongs at the beginning.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:5-7, did God create plants after man, or before man as Gen 1:12,26 says? (An atheist named Capella asked this.)
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[FONT=&quot]A: Three points to consider in the answer.
1. Plants first: Genesis 1 clearly says plants were created on the earth prior to man. These of course, would include the ancestors of all modern plants.
2. World vs. Garden: Genesis 1 is the Creation account of the heavens and the earth, while Genesis 2 is the creation account of the Garden of Eden.
3. Crops after man: Genesis 2 shows that shrubs of the field came after man, at least in the Garden of Eden. In both occurrences, the Hebrew word for "field", saday, is used, rather than just saying plants.
As a side note, the Wycliffe Dictionary of Biblical Archaeology p.23 says that at <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Beersheba</st1:place></st1:city> they found calcinated grains of wheat, barley, lentils, and grapes from 4000 B.C.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:5-7, what are the grains we used today, as well as grains used in the past?
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[FONT=&quot]A: People often think of grains as just the three largest food crops: wheat, rice, and corn, but actually you could eat three meals a day for a weak, and have a different grain at every meal.
Maize (corn): Archaeologists tell us that maize was domesticated in the new world about 5000 B.C. It came from a grain called teosinte. Teosinte had about 50 loosely held kernels, and the cob was less than an inch long. In contrast, corn today has 500 to 1,000 tightly held kernels on each cob. Because the kernels are tightly held, corn today is unable to grow in the wild without the help of man. See Food and Nutrition (Life Science Library 1967) p.37-38 for more info.
Wheat: Archaeology has found ancestors of wheat in the Middle east in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Iraq</st1:place></st1:country-region> around 7,000 B.C.. It is called Emmer and loses its seeds when the wind blows. Today there are thousands of strains of wheat. See Food and Nutrition (Life Science Library 1967) p.39 for more info. Kamut (=khorasan, = King Tut’s wheat), is probably a type of durum wheat. As a side note, some see the 2,000 year difference between the time of cultivation of wheat and maize as one of the two reasons (horses being the other reason) that when the Spanish came to America, Indian culture was 1,000 to 2,000 years behind European culture.
Rice was the newcomer of the three main grains. Food and Nutrition p.34 says it was domesticated about 3500 B.C.
Emmer (=emmer wheat, =faro) has been found in pre-pottery sites in the Middle east as early at 9800-8800 B.C. Domesticated emmer is different from wild emmer, but it came from wild emmer. Later emmer spread to Europe and <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">India</st1:place></st1:country-region>.
Spelt has a somewhat mysterious origin. It was grown in the Roman Empire, <st1:country-region w:st="on">Great Britain</st1:country-region>, and <st1:place w:st="on">Asia</st1:place>, prior to cultivation of wheat. It might be a hybrid between emmer and wheat, or between emmer and wild goat-grass (Aegilops tauschii), or it might have had two origins. Some think spelt had its start about 6,000 B.C.
Sorghum came from a grass in <st1:place w:st="on">Africa</st1:place>. It somewhat resembles corn (maize) in appearance. Sorghum is one of the eight major grain crops grown today; it is used today for animal feed, but is also probably the fifth largest crop for human consumption.
Barley was probably first grown around 8,000 B.C. in the <st1:country-region w:st="on">Israel</st1:country-region>, <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jordan</st1:place></st1:country-region> area. It spread eastward to the <st1:place w:st="on">Himalayas</st1:place>.
<st1:city w:st="on">Rye</st1:city> is guessed to have started in the Mount Ararat and Lake Van region of eastern <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Turkey</st1:place></st1:country-region> shortly after the domestication of wheat. It grows places where wheat and barley will not.
Oats are a grain we know little about except that some were found in an Egyptian tomb in 2,000 B.C., and they were likely started in <st1:place w:st="on">Asia Minor</st1:place>.
Buckwheat (Fagopyrum esculentum) was first grown in the <st1:state w:st="on">Yunnan</st1:state> and Szechuan provinces of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">China</st1:place></st1:country-region> around <st1:metricconverter productid="1000 A" w:st="on">1000 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.. It does not have a high crop yield, but matures quickly and is good in arid and cool climates. There are at least 14 varieties.
Palmer’s grass (=nipa grass, = Distichlis palmeri) was grown only in the Sonoran desert in western <st1:country-region w:st="on">Mexico</st1:country-region> and the western <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">United States</st1:place></st1:country-region>. It was the main food source for the Cocopah tribe. It is somewhat similar to wheat except that it can grow in arid conditions and can absorb seawater and secrete out the salt.
Millets are a collection of at least 13 small-seeded edible grasses that are good to grow in arid conditions. Millets such as broomcorn were also the primary grain in <st1:country-region w:st="on">China</st1:country-region> and <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Korea</st1:place></st1:country-region> in the earliest times. Some times of millets are barnyard millet, broomcorn, browntop millet, Finger millet, fonio, foxtail millet, Japanese millet, Job’s tears, kodo millet, little millet, pearl millet, proso millet, and teff. See [/FONT][FONT=&quot]http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Millet for more info.
Potatoes are not a grain, but there are the fourth largest food crop today. They are believed to have started about 6,000 B.C. in <st1:country-region w:st="on">Peru</st1:country-region> and <st1:country-region w:st="on">Bolivia</st1:country-region> in the region of <st1:place w:st="on">Lake Titicaca</st1:place>.
Other non-grain crops are beans, pulses, soybeans, groundnuts, cassava, sweet potatoes, peas, breadfruit, coconuts, bananas, plantains, and taro. Kesari seed was grown in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">India</st1:place></st1:country-region>, but it has long term paralyzing effects.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:7, did God create matter, or did He just "organize" it as many Mormons teach, or was matter uncreated because matter is not a real thing, as Christian Science and some eastern religious groups teach?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. God being almighty means God can do anything, and God being the Creator means God created everything. God created the universe "ex nihilo", which means from nothing. Thus, to be precise, God not only created the "things of matter and energy", but God created matter and energy themselves.
See When Cultists Ask p.24-25 for a different but complementary, answer.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:7,19 did God create man before the animals, or after the animals as Gen 1:24,27 says? (An atheist (Capella) asked this).
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[FONT=&quot]A: Three points to consider in the answer.
On the earth, God created man after the animals, as Genesis 1:24,27 says.
In the Garden of Eden, God had to have created man before showing man the animals.
Even in the Garden, the animals might have been there before man. Genesis 2:19 refers to the animals that had been created by that time. It does not mean there animals were not created until that time.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 2:7 prove that people do not have an immortal soul like Jehovah’s Witnesses say?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. The Hebrew word here, nephesh, means "soul" in some places, and "life" in other places such as this one. How could the believers under the altar in Revelation 6:9-10 be under the altar if they did not have existence after death? See When Cultists Ask p.23-24 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:10-14, where are the rivers that flowed out of the Garden of Eden?
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[FONT=&quot]A: First of all, the Garden of Eden does not exist on earth today. We do not know where the <st1:placename w:st="on">Pishon</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">River</st1:placetype> was, and the Tigris and Euphrates rivers are in <st1:country-region w:st="on">Turkey</st1:country-region>, <st1:country-region w:st="on">Syria</st1:country-region>, and <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Iraq</st1:place></st1:country-region>. The Gihon is usually thought to be the <st1:placename w:st="on">Nile</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">River</st1:placetype>, which flowed from the region of <st1:country-region w:st="on">Cush</st1:country-region>, south of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>. However, it could have been a smaller river originating in "Cush" (Kashshu) in west <st1:country-region w:st="on">Elam</st1:country-region>, which is very close to the Tigris and <st1:place w:st="on">Euphrates</st1:place>. The Kassites (Greek: Kossaeans) were from there. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.69-70, When Critics Ask p.34, and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.22 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:15, why did God say you (singular) may eat from any fruit of the garden, except that you (plural) must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Either one of them could choose any particular tree; they did not have to eat the same food. However, neither was allowed to eat from the one tree. The plural form adds emphasis; this command was not just to Adam, but to everyone.
Philo the Jew (15/20 B.C. to <st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) first answered this question in Questions and Answers on Genesis, I p.794.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:16, why did God create Adam, knowing that he would fall?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God can do anything, but a logical impossibility is not a thing. God cannot create a being who chooses to loving obedience to God, if that being is not able to choose to obey God. Being able to choose to obey God means being able to choose to disobey God. See 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.22 and the discussion on Genesis 3 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Since Gen 2:17 says "the day you eat of it you shall surely die", how did Adam and Eve die "that day"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Spiritually and judicially. Three points to consider in the answer.
Spiritual death occurred that day.
Judicially, that day sentences of both eternal and physical death were pronounced against them. In Hard Sayings of the Bible p.91-92, Walter Kaiser, Jr. shows the Hebrew idiom means the certainty of their death, not the immediacy of the death.
For another example of the use of this idiom of speech, see 1 Kings 2:37, where Solomon gave a similar warning to Shimei on the day he leaves <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>.
The first person we know who gave an answer to this question was Philo the Jew (15/20 B.C. to <st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) in Questions and Answers on Genesis, 1 p.794, and Allegorical Interpretation, I 33 (105) p.46-37, where he mentions the death of the soul.
A second ancient writer, who gave a different answer is Irenaeus in Against Heresies book 5 ch.23 (182-<st1:metricconverter productid="188 A" w:st="on">188 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) p.551-552. Since Irenaeus notes that a day with the Lord is 1,000 years, he interprets this as one of God’s days, and he sees it significant that Genesis 5:6 says that Adam died when he was 930 years old, which is less than 1,000 years.
See When Critics Ask p.34, Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.72-74, Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.134-135, The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.45, Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.190-191, 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered 23-24, and Hard Sayings of the Bible p.91-92 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:18, why does it say man was alone, since man was with both God and the animals?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Adam did have rule over the animals, and Adam did worship God, but Adam had no one else like Him. He was alone in not having anyone to relate to in a horizontal way as an equal.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 2:18-22 show that women were created as an afterthought, as Born Again Skeptic’s p.164 claims?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, it shows just the opposite. God took a great deal of time, with Adam having to name the animals and all, to demonstrate to Adam his need for a mate. Most of the things in Genesis 1 and 2 were simply created with little explanation. However, God first "set the stage" and explained her purpose as Adam’s co-laborer before creating Eve.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 2:18 show that women are inferior to men, since Eve was made differently from Adam?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No it does not. Six points to consider in the answer.
1. Different does not prove unequal. Different people speak different languages, but that does not mean every language is either inferior or superior to another. As one Christian said, Eve was not made from Adam’s foot to be under him, nor from his head to be above him, but from his side to be with him.
2. Helper does not mean inferior. Some might think that Eve was less than Adam because she was a "helper" in Genesis 2:18. However, God is our helper (same Hebrew word) in Psalm 70:5 and this does not mean God is inferior to us! Thus translating the Hebrew as "helpmate" is rather imprecise. A better translation is ‘I will make a power [or strength] corresponding to man.’ according to Walter Kaiser’s detailed study of the Hebrew in Hard Sayings of the Bible p.92-94. So the woman is to be a "full partner" and not just an assistant.
3. Genesis 1:27 shows both are in the image of God. It was not just Adam that is in the image of God, but both male and female are in the image of God. By the way, being in the "image of God" in no way means God is limited to having two feet, two hands, a stomach etc. Rather, as a two-dimensional image is an imperfect outline of a real, three-dimensional object, the character of the infinite God and our finite being have some similarities.
4. Equal in nature, value, importance, etc. In the Bible, Galatians 3:28 says, "There is neither Jew nor Greek, slave nor free, male or female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus." (NIV)
5. Yet different in role: Ephesians 5:22-24 shows that wives are to submit to their husbands, for husbands are the head of the wife. Husbands are to love their wives as Christ loved the church in Ephesians 5:25-26. Paul said that women were not to teach men or have authority over men in 1 Timothy 2:12.
6. How does this work out in practice?
6.1
Deborah was a godly judge of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> in Judges 4-5. Based on this, there is no difficulty voting for a woman for president or prime minister.
6.2 They could inherit things, including land in Numbers 36:8.
6.3 For a more thorough description of how a wife is to be a full partner with her husband, read Proverbs 31:10-31. Among other things it says:
She works with her hands (Proverbs 31:13,22) and profits from this in Proverbs 31:24,31.
She shops for food (Prov 31:14) and cooks. Prov 31:15
She manages others. Prov 31:15
She herself decides to buy real-estate in Prov 31:16.
She plants a vineyard. Prov 31:16 (Note that a family does not own an entire vineyard just for their personal consumption; it was a source of profit.)
She is physically strong. Prov 31:17
She also trades, not just for necessity but for profit. Prov 31:18
She herself gives to the poor. (She had to have control over money to do so.) Prov 31:20
She manages the household. Prov 31:21
She is wise, and teaches wisdom. Prov 31:26
In summary: Women are not inferior to men in nature, value or importance. They do have a different role than men, as any expectant mother can tell you.
See also Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.191-193 for more on how woman was made "as like" man, and equal with him.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:19 why did Adam need to see all the animals here?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God gave Adam dominion over all the animals in Genesis 1:26, and God wanted to see what Adam would name the animals in Genesis 19.
In addition to this, there might have been a more subtle reason. Prior to making Eve, God recognized the importance of filling what was lacking in Adam, but Adam did not. Thus Adam could learn three things about the animals relevant to his current situation.
Family:
a) Showing Adam that all the higher animals had male and female showed how God made them complete and able to propagate their species.
b) Adam could look at all the creatures, and see that there was none like him.
c) Adam could see that he needed another to make him complete, too.
Incidentally, teaching children how plants reproduce, and how animals reproduce, is a good approach to teaching kids how God ordained the way children are made.
Community:
a) Even dogs and deer have communities in which they live.
b) Adam could see that He did not have anyone like him in a community to share his life with, and people need other people to be around.
Leadership:
Since God gave Adam dominion over the earth, Adam would need to know the animals that were on the earth.
Since Adam had dominion, God honored Adam by having him name the animals. Philo the Jew mentioned this in Works of Philo p.882.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:19-3:19, what evidence is there from early Mormon writings that Mormons believed the crazy doctrine that Adam was God?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Here are the quotes from the Mormon Journal of Discourses, followed by twelve other writings as evidence.
a. Journal of Discourses vol. 1 p.50. (Sermon by Brigham Young) "Now hear it, O inhabitants of the earth, Jew and Gentile, Saint and sinner! When our father Adam came into the garden of Eden, he came into it with a celestial body, and brought Eve, one of his wives, with him. He helped to make and organize this world. He is Michael, the <st1:place w:st="on">Archangel</st1:place>, the Ancient of Days! about whom holy men have written and spoken [/FONT][FONT=&quot]-[/FONT][FONT=&quot] He is our Father and our God, and the only God with whom we have to do. Every man upon the earth, professing Christians or non-professing must hear it, and will know it sooner or later." (italics and small caps are in the original)
b. Journal of Discourses vol. 1 p.51. (same sermon) "Jesus, our elder brother, was begotten in the flesh by the same character that was in the Garden of Eden, and who is our Father in Heaven."
Note that Mormons often respond that this is a printing error. It is interesting to note that the volumes of the great Christian preacher Charles H. Spurgeon were published about the same time, and there were no printer’s errors saying some created being was God in Spurgeon’s works. Following is corroborating evidence that the Mormon prophet really said this.
1. Wilford Woodruff’s Journal under 2/19/1854. (Look in the BYU Library)
2. <st1:place w:st="on">Deseret</st1:place> Evening News 6/14/1873
3. <st1:place w:st="on">Deseret</st1:place> Evening News 6/18/1873
4. Diary of Hosea Stout: On the Frontier vol. 2 p.438.
5. The Millennial Star vol. 16 p.543.
6. The Millennial Star vol. 15 p.769-770. one and a half years after this.
7. Journal of John Nuttall vol. 1 pp.18-21.
8. Diary Journal of Abraham H. Cannon vol. 11 p.39 (taught for 50 years)
9. Sacred Hymns and Spiritual Songs for the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints 1856 p.375
10. Women of Mormondom p.179
11. Journal of Discourses vol. 4 p.1 (President Heber C. Kimball is speaking on 6/29/1856)
"...and I also know that if we are not one with brother Brigham, our leader, we are not one with Christ. Yes, I know this, and my feelings are and have been with brother Brigham all the time. I have learned by experience that there is but one God that pertains to this people, and He is the God that pertains to this earth [/FONT][FONT=&quot]-[/FONT][FONT=&quot] the first man. That first man sent his own Son to redeem the world, to redeem his brethren."
12. Finally, a much later book:
The Position of Adam in L.D.S. Scripture and Theology: "The identification of Adam with God the Father by President Brigham Young is an irrefutable fact." p.58
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:20, how could Adam name all the animals, unless the forbidden fruit was an Apple Macintosh computer?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Someone once quipped that if Adam had to name all the species of animals (including 1.5 million bugs and insects) within 24 hours on the sixth day, no wonder we mistake the forbidden fruit for an Apple, hard drives and all!
On the other hand, Paul S. Taylor has correctly noted that the phrase "gave names to all the livestock, the birds of the air and all the beasts" in Genesis 2:20 does not necessarily mean naming every species on earth. It simply could be naming the genera and families of animals in Adam’s immediate vicinity.
For those who like trivia, there are about 26,000 living species of vertebrate land animals and birds and 9,500 known fossil species on the earth. (Of the fossil species, almost half were reptiles, and 1,000 were birds).
There are roughly 5,600 living genera land animals, including 1,900 genera of birds. There are about 6,500 genera of known fossil land animals, including almost 1,000 genera of birds and 1,500 general of reptiles.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:21-23, was Adam both male and female prior to the creation of Eve?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Nothing in Scripture suggests this. Genesis 3:16 says that the husband will be the head of the wife. Since this was after the fall, how "male" Adam was prior to Eve does not have any bearing on anything. However, in regard to church authority in general, Paul sees it as significant that Adam was formed prior to Eve in 1 Timothy 2:13. Paul’s point would be misleading if Adam was both male and female.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:21-23, was the account of Eve being formed from a rib taken from the Sumerian Dilmun poem?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. First some background information, then the answer, and finally two lessons we can learn from the answer about how God inspired the Bible.
B1. Samuel Noah Kramer, in The Sumerians (University of Chicago 1963), mentions that the Sumerian word for rib, ti, also means "to make live", and in the Dilmun poem, Nin-ti was the "lady of the rib" as well as the "lady who makes live" who healed the god Enki’s sick rib.
B2. This is a pun in Sumerian, but not in Hebrew, which makes this similarity rather striking.
B3. Except for "lady who healed the rib" vs. "Eve who was from Adam’s rib" in Genesis, there are not any other similarities between the two stories. See The Sumerians p.148-149 or Hard Sayings of the Bible p.94-95 for the Sumerian narrative.
B4. Tablets from the Dilmun poem are from 2400 B.C. or later. Regardless, they still predate Abraham, who left <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city> before 2050 B.C.
B5. This story might have been well-known in ancient times.
The Answer has four points.
A1. This is just one of a number of examples of similar recountings of events mentioned in Genesis. Another example is the more than 200 world-wide flood stories of various peoples around the world.
A2. The play on words about the rib may show that other early cultures had a preservation of at least incomplete knowledge of the creation of mankind.
A3. Even more than that, other parts of Genesis 1 seem almost to be written in a deliberate manner to contrast with Sumerian, Akkadian and other accounts. The other accounts present gods quarreling, in Genesis the One God calmly creates. Other accounts present the hero fighting against chaos. Genesis presents God moving over the "abyss/waters", and commanding and ordering.
A4. While some similarities of details between Genesis versus the Dilmun poem and other ancient works could point to common knowledge of some events. However, it is untenable to say that one was copied from the other, not just because the common details are few, but because there are almost no similarities in meaning behind the details.
Lessons to Learn from the Answer:
L1.
Genesis was not written in a vacuum. God does not just reveal truth to us, He reveals timeless truth, yet in a practical way, relevant to the time and culture. One reason (but not the main reason) Genesis might have been given by God was to correct the wrong views of man’s origin that people had, while acknowledging some of the correct things that had survived.
L2. God uses culture. God uses even people’s evil actions for His glory (Genesis 50:20). How can we even attempt to forbid God to use culture too, as He wishes. Moses was a learned man, and perhaps He might have read this story, and God used Moses’ reading to show Him what was true and what was not true.
L3. Most importantly, do not take the phrase "scripture is inerrant" to mean the Bible had to be mechanically dictated. 1 Peter 1:21 says that prophecy was men speaking as moved by the Holy Spirit. Thus, when different parts of the Bible obviously reflect different human styles of writing, that does not preclude divine authorship. It merely demonstrates that God used various people’s writing styles as He saw fit.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.94-95 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:22, who is Lilith during this time?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The name Lilith is never once mentioned in the Bible. There was a fable in the Middle Ages about a woman named Lilith who was Adam’s first wife. She refused to submit to Adam, and God then created Eve. Lilith, according to the myth, was turned into a demon that kills newborn babies.
Lilith also was a vampire in Sumerian mythology, according to The Sumerians p.198, 258. Civilizations of the Ancient and Near East p.1890 mention that the unmarried who died became a special class of demons called lilu (male) and Lilitu (female). They would ask the living to marry them, promising them wealth, but if the living person consented, they died early.
All Bible manuscripts, Jewish or Christian, do not have any more hint of Lilith than they do of Donald Duck.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:22, how could God make Eve from a rib?
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[FONT=&quot]A: -Any way God Almighty wanted. If God had to use a rib, and if you think God had to take away the entire rib, then I suppose you might conclude that Eve would be counting all of Adam’s ribs every morning!
Seriously, God might not have utilized all the rib; one cell could have been enough.
735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.23 adds that if God had made her from clay, one could argue that women are intrinsically different (and perhaps inferior to men). However, since Eve was made from a rib, she had the same equal identity with man.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:22-23, should men have one less rib than women?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. If a man has his arm cut off, his subsequent children and grandchildren are not all born missing one arm. Likewise, if you take a few cells from a person’s rib, both the parents and their children will still have the same number of ribs.
Tertullian writing 198-<st1:metricconverter productid="220 A" w:st="on">220 A</st1:metricconverter>.D. interprets this as God "borrowing a rib in Tertullian On Exhortation to Chastity ch.5 p.53. He also adds that God could have borrowed more ribs for more wives but chose not to, as an example that monogamy was the norm and not polygamy.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:25, were man and woman originally created naked, and were they supposed to wear clothing?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes, they were created naked, and had no shame. However, after the Fall, God clothed them, and we have been clothed ever since then. See 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.317-318 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, since God made humans ultimately to be higher than the angels, could that have been a factor in Satan choosing to fall?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture does not say either way, but it is certainly a possibility.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, were Adam and Eve white, black, brown, yellow or red skinned?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Bible is totally silent on this. Since Adam and Eve were the ancestors of us all, it does not matter. All of use are equally a descendants of Adam and Eve.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, why did God allow Adam and Eve to be tempted?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Bible does not say. However, we can speculate that God did not just want people who loved him, but people who were allowed an alternative, yet still chose to love God.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, was this an unfair test, since Adam and Eve did not yet have the knowledge of good and evil, as an atheist (Capella) claims?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. Is it an unfair test to tell somebody not to use illegal drugs, such as cocaine, until they have first had a chance to use it? Of course not. Likewise, it was not unfair for them to receive the prohibition without experiencing evil and guilt. While one could argue that they did not know everything about good and evil at this time, they knew that their Creator commanded them not to eat of that tree, and that knowledge alone was sufficient to make this a fair test.
Today we do not know every single reason why God forbids us to do something, but if God has commanded us not to do it, we know all we need to know to obey God.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, what exactly was wrong with eating of the tree?
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[FONT=&quot]A: It was not that a particular fruit was evil; perhaps they could have eaten of the tree later. As Theophilus, bishop of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Antioch</st1:place></st1:city> (168-181/188 A.D.) wrote in his letter Theophilus to Autolycus book 2 ch.25 p.104 "For it was not the tree, as some think, but the disobedience, which had death in it." Ante-Nicene Fathers vol.2 p.104. Some also see in the phrase "like God, knowing good and evil", as them wanting to appropriate to themselves God’s prerogative of defining good and evil.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, was this test sort of like parents putting a 40,000 volt battery in the living room and telling their baby not to touch it?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, the danger was in their disobedience, not in the tree. Four points to consider in the answer.
1. Unlike a dangerous battery, it was not the tree that was deadly. It was the disobedience to God that was deadly, and caused them to die spiritually that day, and physically later.
2. Adam and Eve were not babies. They could reason as adults can, they were fully conscious of what they were doing and what God said the consequences would be.
3. Adam and Eve had all their needs met, and they had no way to disobey God except by eating of the tree. Whether we like it or not, God gives people choices to serve Him or not. Some might feel, "God should not have done that, God should have made us all robots incapable of disobeying." Regardless of how people feel, God can do as He wishes, and God chose to give everyone the free will to disobey Him, and to live with the consequences of their obedience or disobedience.
4. The fruit might have been eaten eventually. Theophilus bishop of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Antioch</st1:place></st1:city> (168-181/188 A.D.) taught that if Adam and Eve had not sinned, they would have matured, become perfect, and ascend to heaven in possession of immortality. Mankind had a middle nature, neither wholly mortal, nor altogether immortal, or <st1:place w:st="on">Paradise</st1:place> was between earth and heaven. Theophilus to Autolycus book 2 ch.22 p.24 p.104
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, should we be proud that Eve ate the apple, as Laura Schlesinger says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. Dr. Laura is right about many things, but she is incorrect here. Here is what she said in Modern Maturity September-October 1999 p.67.
"I have great pride that she ate the fruit from the tree of knowledge. Because if she hadn’t, we’d still be animals in the Garden. God didn’t put that tree there just for shade. We became human with that step."
First of all, the tree was not just the tree of knowledge, but the tree of knowledge of good and evil. Schlesinger is right that people were not the same. All the murdering, war, oppression, and moral irresponsibility people committed happened after this. However, people are still human in Heaven, when they will not sin anymore. It is not impossible to be fully human and not sinful, as Adam and Eve prior to eating, and as Jesus Christ is.
Later in the interview, when Dr. Laura said Adam was wrong to try to blame Eve, Schlesinger was correct, because Genesis 3:6 says that Adam was with Eve when she ate.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, was the fruit of the tree a metaphor for an unlawful spiritual sexual union between Eve and Satan as Rev. Moon of the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placename w:st="on">Unification</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">Church</st1:placetype></st1:place> (Moonies) teaches in the Divine Principle (fifth ed. 1977) p.75-79?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There was no sexual metaphor with the tree, fruit, or Satan. If Rev. Moon was right, then:
What were all the other trees that were allowed?
Eve ignored Satan when she ate the fruit of the tree
In Genesis 3:13, Eve, in trying to put all the blame on the serpent, merely said the serpent deceived her. She never said that the serpent did anything to her.
See also the previous question.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, do any other cultures have a similar story of the first people, in a garden, and eating a forbidden fruit?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes. Here are at least three cases.
S’gaw Karen people of eastern <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Burma</st1:place></st1:country-region>: the almighty, all-knowing God named Y’wa created everything. He created two persons, a man named Thanai and a woman named Eeu, and placed them in a garden with seven kinds of fruit trees. One kind they could not eat, though. The evil Mu-kaw-lee deceived the two persons, telling them they would have miraculous powers and ascend to Heaven. Mu-kaw-lee persuaded them to eat the fruit of the tree of trial. They ate and became subject to sickness, aging, and death.
Don Richardson explores the possibility that this might have come from Nestorian or Roman Catholic influence, and concludes it did not, because <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Richardson</st1:place></st1:city> found no concept of the incarnation or a redeemer dying for man and rising from the dead. See Eternity in Their Hearts p.77-83 for more info.
Santal of northeast <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>: They believed in "Thakur Jiu" (Thakur = genuine, Jiu = God), who created the first couple, a man named Haram and a woman named Ayo and put them in Hihiri Pipiri, which was west of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">India</st1:place></st1:country-region>. The evil Lita tempted them to make rice beer and pour part of it on the ground as an offering to Satan. They did so, and became drunk on the rest of the beer. When they woke up, they knew they were naked and felt ashamed. They later had seven sons and seven daughters. Their descendents became corrupted, so Thakur Jiu hid a "holy pair" on <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Mount</st1:placetype> <st1:placename w:st="on">Harata</st1:placename></st1:place> (=Ararat?), and destroyed the rest in a flood. Eventually their ancestors traveled (east) from forest to forest, until they came to high mountains, which blocked their path. Finally they got through (perhaps at the Khyber Pass) and they came to their homeland near <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Calcutta</st1:place></st1:city>. See Eternity in Their Hearts p.41-44 for more info.
Sumerians: The Sumerians believed they came from a <st1:place w:st="on">Paradise</st1:place> they called Dilmun. There are not many other parallels to the Garden of Eden, though. Dilmun was a place where all the gods were, as well as Ziusdra, a human who had attained immortality. The Dilmun poem dates from around 2400 B.C.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, since Adam and Eve were perfect, how can perfect beings do imperfect things, such as sin?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Regardless of how someone defines "perfect", the Bible never says Adam and Eve were perfect. It also never says they were incapable of sinning. Rather, the Bible only shows that they were very good, and they were "sinless", in that they had not sinned. They were still capable of exercising free agency and able to make a choice about sin.
Clement of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Alexandria</st1:place></st1:city> (wrote 193-217/220 A.D.) in his Stromata book 6 ch.12 p.502 was one of the first to answer this question. He said among other things, that man "was not perfect in his creation, but adapted to the reception of virtue. … Now an aptitude is a movement towards virtue, not virtue itself. All, then, as I said, are naturally constituted for the acquisition of virtue."
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, since a perfect God only creates perfect beings, how could Adam and Eve sin?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Five points to consider in the answer.
Tertullian answered this question way back in 207/208 A.D. in Five Books Against Marcion book 2 chapters 5-9. Tertullian’s lengthy answer can be summed up in his own words: "Therefore it was proper that [man,] the image and likeness of God should be formed with a free will and a mastery of himself; so that this very thing - namely freedom of will and self-command - might be reckoned as the image and likeness of God in Him." In other words, it was suitable for a perfect God to make creatures like Himself, possessing free-will.
Theophilus bishop of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Antioch</st1:place></st1:city> (168-181/188 A.D.) answered a related question, were Adam and Eve mortal or immortal, by showing that they were in process, and capable of going either way. (Theophilus to Autolycus book 2 ch.27 p.105)
Not robots: Would you have a perfect God be restricted to creating robots, and incapable of creating people that have free will? God does not create logical impossibilities, and for God to create people who freely choose to love and obey Him, God also created them capable of not loving and obeying Him. The Bible never says Adam and Eve were "perfect" in a sense of never being able to sin. Rather, the Bible says they were "very good" and "sinless", in that they had not sinned.
God’s perfection: Between mankind and demons, the Bible makes it abundantly clear that God’s perfection does not confine Him from creating beings with the ability to disobey Him.
Who’s Definition? If someone’s definition of a perfect God is one who is unable to create people with moral choices, then the burden of proof is on them to find at least one verse that substantiates that opinion. Otherwise, that definition does not fit the God of the Bible. The root issue here is:
a) should you try to impose your definition of "God’s perfection" on the God of the Bible, or
b) Let God speak for Himself in the Bible about how He is perfect and how He chose to create.
As for why God chose to "go through the trouble" of creating Adam and Eve, knowing they would sin, see the discussion on Genesis 1.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:1 and 2 Cor 11:3, why were Adam and Eve tempted by Satan in the form of a serpent, instead of something else, like a lion, or a bunny rabbit?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture does not say, but we can speculate. Large animals could be intimidating and put people on their guard. Tiny animals might be ignored as insignificant. A snake might imply that "slyness" is OK. For many in society to go and sin en masse, many people must first be persuaded that a sin is not wrong.
Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.96 makes the interesting point that some view the serpent as an analogy of intelligence devoid of conscience. The snake is amazing in how it slyly waits for and creeps up on its prey. Matthew 10:16 says we are to be a shrewd as snakes but as innocent as doves.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:1, how could an unintelligent, mute animal such as a serpent tempt Adam and Eve?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This was no ordinary serpent. Satan assumed the form of a serpent, and Satan could speak and is highly intelligent. Satan is also called the serpent in Revelation 12:9,14,15 and Revelation 20:2. There are three possible ways Satan could have been a serpent, and the simplest interpretation suggests all of them are true.
Physical Transformation: Satan either transformed himself or was transformed into the physical form of a snake that could speak.
Example: Regardless of whether the serpent Eve saw was Satan himself or just a regular snake, Satan "spoke behind" this form to suggest the sly approach of a snake.
Metaphor: Satan was called a serpent for the insidious way he approached Eve. See the previous question for more detail.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:1-16, what are some general things we can learn about sin from this example?
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[FONT=&quot]A: We can learn many things, but here are just a few of them.
1. Sin brings death. Adam and Eve would have never died, but they were headed towards death the day they sinned.
2. Sin has consequences even after forgiveness. God forgave them, but they would still die, and they did not get back the gift of the tree of life. (-at least not until Revelation 2:7; 22:2,14).
2. Scripture does not mention whether or not they even saw death before God killed some animals to clothe them with skins. Sin could not be covered by a bunch of leaves that would grow back next year. It could only be covered by blood, in an animal that died.
3. They could eat from almost any tree in the garden, but they thought God stingy for withholding that one tree. After the fall, God was merciful to forgive them and clothe them with animal skins, but they would have trouble for the ground would now be stingy to them.
4. Even the consequences of their sin were a mercy from God. Haddon Robinson mentions that pain plants the flag of reality in the fortress of the rebel heart.
5. Even after sin, God still has a redemptive plan. Even after we mess up badly, the promise of Romans 8:28 is still true. Even in this dark chapter, God had a promise in Genesis 3:15.
For more on Genesis 3, order the 5/27/2005 sermon by Gary Brandenburg from [/FONT][FONT=&quot]www.FBCDallas.org (Fellowship Bible Church Dallas).
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:1,14, since the serpent was cursed with crawling on it belly, does that mean snakes used to have legs?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. While some newts have arms but no legs, that is not what is intended here. While Scripture is not specific, Satan was cursed with lessened and degrading means of moving. Satan took the form of a lowly snake, and God punished Satan with a curse that part of the snake’s attributes would stay with Satan.
When people sin, the need for forgiveness for the external act is only part of the problem. The nature of sin is often such that part of the sin clings to our hearts on the inside, and we need cleansing as well as forgiveness. See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.100 for more info.
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Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

<link rel="File-List" href="file:///C:%5CDOCUME%7E1%5CADMINI%7E1%5CCONFIG%7E1%5CTemp%5Cmsohtml1%5C16%5Cclip_filelist.xml"><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="State"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="PlaceName"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="PlaceType"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="City"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="country-region"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="place"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="metricconverter"></o:smarttagtype><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:WordDocument> <w:View>Normal</w:View> <w:Zoom>0</w:Zoom> <w:HyphenationZone>21</w:HyphenationZone> <w:punctuationKerning/> <w:ValidateAgainstSchemas/> <w:SaveIfXMLInvalid>false</w:SaveIfXMLInvalid> <w:IgnoreMixedContent>false</w:IgnoreMixedContent> <w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText>false</w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText> <w:Compatibility> <w:BreakWrappedTables/> <w:SnapToGridInCell/> <w:WrapTextWithPunct/> <w:UseAsianBreakRules/> <w:DontGrowAutofit/> </w:Compatibility> <w:BrowserLevel>MicrosoftInternetExplorer4</w:BrowserLevel> </w:WordDocument> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:LatentStyles DefLockedState="false" LatentStyleCount="156"> </w:LatentStyles> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if !mso]><object classid="clsid:38481807-CA0E-42D2-BF39-B33AF135CC4D" id=ieooui></object> <style> st1\:*{behavior:url(#ieooui) } </style> <![endif]--><style> <!-- /* Font Definitions */ @font-face {font-family:Calibri; panose-1:2 15 5 2 2 2 4 3 2 4; mso-font-charset:0; mso-generic-font-family:swiss; mso-font-pitch:variable; mso-font-signature:-1610611985 1073750139 0 0 159 0;} @font-face {font-family:"Agency FB"; panose-1:2 11 5 3 2 2 2 2 2 4; mso-font-charset:0; mso-generic-font-family:swiss; mso-font-pitch:variable; mso-font-signature:3 0 0 0 1 0;} /* Style Definitions */ p.MsoNormal, li.MsoNormal, div.MsoNormal {mso-style-parent:""; margin-top:0cm; margin-right:0cm; margin-bottom:10.0pt; margin-left:0cm; line-height:115%; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:11.0pt; font-family:Calibri; mso-fareast-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-bidi-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-fareast-language:EN-US;} a:link, span.MsoHyperlink {color:blue; text-decoration:underline; text-underline:single;} a:visited, span.MsoHyperlinkFollowed {color:purple; text-decoration:underline; text-underline:single;} @page Section1 {size:612.0pt 792.0pt; margin:70.85pt 3.0cm 70.85pt 3.0cm; mso-header-margin:36.0pt; mso-footer-margin:36.0pt; mso-paper-source:0;} div.Section1 {page:Section1;} --> </style><!--[if gte mso 10]> <style> /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Tabla normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0cm 5.4pt 0cm 5.4pt; mso-para-margin:0cm; mso-para-margin-bottom:.0001pt; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:10.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]incorrectness, and evil are not matter, energy, or spirit, yet as a shadow can kill plants that need sun, or a lack of food can kill a person, shadows and lack of food have actual existence without being real things.
The universe is defined here as a collection of real things that actually exist. Note that in this particular definition the universe is self-contained, and God (assuming God exists, is spirit, and can affect things) is in the universe.
Nothing is defined here as something that never actually exists, or does not have actual existence at a particular time. In other words, before it is created [or after it is destroyed], a real thing is not in the universe, does not affect the universe, and is not affected by the universe.
A cause is defined as having actual existence since it affects other things in the universe that have actual existence. A cause is a real thing by definition if it can have matter, energy, spirit, or a combination of the above.
Creation is defined here as the event or process of making a new real thing. Creation is differentiated from "modification", which does not necessarily require any cause outside of the thing itself. Creation of a new real thing can include modification or destruction of a pre-existing real thing, but it does not have to do so. However, see the next point.
Something cannot come from nothing. Every created real thing requires a cause for its creation. In other words, nothing can be created unless some thing(s) or being(s) created it. Something cannot be created without any cause.
Something cannot create itself. Nothing can create itself. While real things sometimes can change themselves, or destroy themselves, nothing can be its own cause of creation.
A first cause. While created real things can create other created real things, ultimately there had to be a first cause. In other words, in a sequence of causes, at least one cause had to be before all other causes that require a cause.
Uncreated. Since at least one cause has to have no prior cause, and every creation requires a cause, at least one thing or being with actual existence is uncreated and existed from eternity past, because it had had no creation.
Summary: Every real thing that exists either had a point in time or a time period at which it first existed, or else it did not. If it did not, it is eternal and uncreated. If it did, then some real thing was a cause for its existence.
Limitations: This argument does not prove the first cause is a living being, or that there is only one uncreated cause, or whether any uncreated causes still exist. It simply proves that there was at least thing of actual existence (personal or impersonal) that existed eternally without being created.
One of the first writers to clearly see the cosmological argument and speak of God as the first cause was Philo the Jew, who lived in [/FONT]<st1:place w:st="on"><st1:city w:st="on">[FONT=&quot]Alexandria[/FONT]</st1:city>[FONT=&quot], <st1:country-region w:st="on">Egypt</st1:country-region>[/FONT]</st1:place>[FONT=&quot], from 15/20 B.C. to <st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.. R.C. Sproul and Norm Geisler have numerous good material on the cosmological argument.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: The argument that "the complexity of the world indicates that there must be a creator" sounds good, until taken to its logical conclusion. What about God’s complexity? If an intricate being requires a designer, then God must require an even greater designer, and so on up the scale. Where does it end? The argument ends up in an "infinite regression," and there is no answer to it. Is there?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Before answering this argument, let me amplify on "the problem" first. Apart from complexity, this is also an issue with a defective form of the cosmological argument. If everything has a cause, then God too must have a cause. But of course God does not required a cuase for His creation if God is eternal and uncreated.
Since something must have an end, or else not have an end, there are only two possible answers:
there is no end to the backward regression
there is an end to the backward regression, an uncaused first cause.
If a), there were no end to the backward regression, then not everything has a cause, because the regression itself ultimately had no cause. Therefore, either way there is someone/something that has no cause.
If b), there is an end to the backward regression, then there must be a first cause, of unspecified complexity. Of course, then this means that God is not a caused being, a product of any creation.
I wonder though, if God might find this whole argument so simplistic, because we think of causes in time. If God exists outside of time as well as in it, and if time too is a creation of God, then speaking about what was it like in the time before God existed is an oxymoron.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1, could God have created other beings and worlds?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: He certainly did create other beings: angels and demons. As to creating other worlds with beings on them, the Bible does not tell us all we desire to know, only what we need to know — and we need to make sure we at least read that. God could have created other universes, and perhaps that is what Heaven and Hell are.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1, why did God make Adam and Eve, since God knew beforehand that they would disobey Him?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Despite God foreknowing that they would sin, God tells us a number of things as to why He created people.
For His glory: God created His children for His glory. Isaiah 43:7; 61:34.
People to love: God greatly loves us. Psalm 145:9,17; 1 John 3:1.
To be His children: 1 John 3:1-2; Galatians 3:28, Romans 8:15-17
To live in us: 1 John 4:12-16; Romans 8:9-11
God desires that none perish. Ezekiel 18:23,32; 33:11; 2 Peter 3:9. Yet, God feels no regret about creating those who, given the opportunity, freely choose to reject Him. God foreknew that they would sin, and still chose not to interfere with their choice or "uncreate" them.
Perhaps part of the reason God chose to create beings who would be in His image is similar to the reason parents choose to have children. Yes, the children will be expensive, with diapers and food, and yes the children will cause heartache by their ills, hurts, and disobedience, but through it all, the love makes it worthwhile.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:1, did God create because He needed to create?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: The Bible provides no support for this speculation. God has no needs, in the sense that He would be harmed or cease to exist if He did not create something. On the other hand, God’s desire was to create, and God fulfilled His desire on a grand, wonderful scale.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:1, were there more creations after Genesis?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture does not say either way, and God is free to do as He wishes. If God created other creatures, they could be like the angels, like Adam and Eve prior to the Fall, like us, like demons, like animals, or something entirely different.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:2, if the spirit of God was moving over the waters, does this mean the Holy Spirit is not an intelligent, living being, but instead an active force as Jehovah’s Witnesses claim?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: No. The fact that the Holy Spirit does not have a physical body and can move over the waters does not contradict the fact that Scripture shows the Holy Spirit is a living being with a personality.
The following is a duplicate of the discussion on 1 John 5:6-8.
A witness can be a living being as well as an inanimate object. A mistake of Jehovah’s Witnesses is that since the Holy Spirit has many attributes a human being does not have, therefore (by some stretch of logic) the Holy Spirit cannot have personality. 1 John 5:6-8 shows there are three witnesses to the fact that Jesus had a physical body. The blood refers to His crucifixion, and the Spirit is an inward testimony to Christians. The water refers either to Jesus’ baptism by John, or possibly the water surrounding a baby at birth.
Following are various facts the Bible teaches us about the personality of the Holy Spirit.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Parakletos[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (the comforter, the one along side us). John 14:16,26, John 15:26
Can know the innermost thoughts of God 1 Corinthians 2:10-11
Speaks to us. Acts 13:2, Hebrews 3:7
Reminds us. John 14:26
Like a parent, so we will not be orphans (orphanos in Greek). John 14:18
Guides us. John 16:13
Teaches us. John 14:26 1 Corinthians 2:13
Lives in us. 1 Cor 3:16, 2 Timothy 1:14, Romans 8:9,11, Ephesians 2:22
In our hearts. 2 Corinthians 1:22 Galatians 4:6
He intercedes for us (inanimate objects do not pray or intercede). Romans 8:26-27
Can be insulted. Hebrews 10:29
Testifies of Christ. John 15:26
Has a mind. Romans 8:27
Can be grieved. Isaiah 63:10, Ephesians 4:30
Makes choices. 1 Corinthians 12:11
Possesses love. Romans 15:30
Can think things are good Acts 15:28
Searches deep things of God 1 Corinthians 2:9-10
Groans (and thus cares) for us Romans 8:26
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]See When Cultists Ask p.299 and Jehovah’s Witnesses Answered Verse by Verse p.21-22 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:10, how could God create the earth, since the earth was already created in Gen 1:1?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: The Hebrew word (eres) is the same in both cases. As in English, (eres) can mean the world under the sky, and it can mean ground or dry land. Thus God created the planet in Genesis 1:1, and the dry ground in Genesis 1:12. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.65-66.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1 and Gen 2, why do there seem to be two creation accounts?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Look at what is created in each account. Genesis 1 is the creation of the heavens and the earth, and Genesis 2 is the creation of humans in the Garden of Eden. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.66-68, Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.133-134, 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.21-22, and When Critics Ask p.35 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1 and other places, why is God called Elohim, while in other places, such as Gen 2, God is called Yahweh?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: God has a great number of names and titles in the Bible. It seems that the name Yahweh focuses on God’s personal relationship to us in contrast to the name Elohim, which emphasizes His impartial, transcendent aspects.
735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.21-22 says it was common in ancient cultures to have more than one name for the same god. Here are examples:
Osiris – Wennefer, <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:city w:st="on">Khent-amentius</st1:city>, <st1:state w:st="on">Neb</st1:state></st1:place>-abdu
Bel – Enlil, Nunamnir
Sin – Nanna
El – Latpan
Baal – Larpan
See When Critics Ask p.33-34 and Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.66-68 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1, could God create the earth in literal six 24-hour days?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Regardless of whether they think the earth is old or young, all Christians should answer this question "yes".
Instead of six days, the Almighty could have created it in six seconds if He had wanted. The issue is not how God had to create, but how scripture and nature reveal He chose to create.
As a side note, Scripture does not say how long a day with God is in Genesis 1. Deuteronomy 7:1 shows that a "day" could indicate a period of time greater than 24 hours, as it was understood in Moses’ "day". Psalm 90:4; 2 Peter 3:8 indicate God’s days could be very long. See When Critics Ask p.32-33 and Archer, Survey of Old Testament Introduction p.187-199, for outlines of various views. See also the next two questions.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1 do the similarities between this and the Babylonian creation accounts prove they were from a common, human origin? (Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.1197 claims this is very likely)
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Babylonian accounts are similar in many physical details, but almost diametrically opposite in terms of cause. In contrast to Marduk struggling against the chaos of the dragon Tiamat, God commands what happens. If there is some truth in non-Biblical culture that should not be a surprise. In addition, the style of Genesis 1 appears to be a deliberate contrast with pagan concepts.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:26 and 3:22, why is the word "us" is used for the One True God?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: There are two possible answers.
1. The "us" refers to the One true God, but plural is the proper sense for a conversation among the Trinity.
2. The "royal we" was used of kings and gods for one person. As an example of this in the Mideastern religion if Islam, the Muslim Qur’an uses "us" and "we" when Allah is referring to himself. Muslims and non-Muslims can agree that use of the "royal we" in the Qur’an does not suggest Mohammed taught that Allah was multiple gods.
However, Philo the Jew (15/20 B.C. to <st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) interpreted this not as the royal "we", but that God used assistants in On the Creation chapter 24 no.75 p.11.
See When Critics Ask p.30-31, When Cultists Ask p.20-21, and Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.180-182 for this and other views.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 1:26 mean that we should be educated to acquire divine perfections and the focus of divine blessings, as Bahai’s teach in Some Answered Questions p.8,9?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: No, because Genesis 1:27 says that God did what He said in Genesis 1:26. When Adam and Eve were created, they were perfectly sinless before the fall, and they did not need education. While we are still in the image of God, Genesis 1:26-28 refers to what God already accomplished.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 1:26 mean people are "little-gods" themselves, as Kenneth Hagin and some word-faith teachers say?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: No. The word in Genesis is "like" not "is". Even word-faith teachers would agree that creatures like us were never to be worshipped. The bodies of Adam and Eve were given an immortality that could be forfeited, a righteousness that could be ruined, and a perfect love for God that could be thrown away like an old piece of fruit. See When Cultists Ask p.21-22 for more info and a partial enumeration of the ways we are not.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:26-27, was this a conversation among the members of the Trinity, or created beings such as angels?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: While angels might have overheard these words too, this was a conversation among the Trinity. Our creation was not the work of angels but of God in Trinity. The first Christian writer known to have observed this could not be angels was Justin Martyr (wrote about 138-<st1:metricconverter productid="165 A" w:st="on">165 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) in his Dialogue with Trypho the Jew chapter 62.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:26-27, since God made people higher than the angels, could God later make beings higher than humans?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture does not say either way, and God is free to do whatever He wishes. However Scripture says that believers are "sons of God" and we will "reign with Christ" and be "co-seated with Christ" (Ephesians 2:6). It is hard for a finite creature to be much higher than that.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:26, was Adam a "superman" with ability a million times greater than ours, as Watchman Nee taught in The Latent Power of the Soul (1933 p.15)?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture never taught this strange speculation. It also never taught that Adam was already like God in outward appearance, as Watchman Nee taught in the same book page 18. Unfortunately, people often try to add their own teaching to what God actually said. See The Berean Call April 1998 p.3 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:26, if we are created in God’s image, doesn’t that prove God (or at least the Father) has a man’s physical body? (Mormons mention this.)
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Most would agree the Holy Spirit does not have a physical body and Jesus did not have a physical body at that time. If "us" is referring to a discussion with the Father, Son, and Spirit, then image cannot refer to a mere physical body. By the way, Genesis 9:6 shows that since the Fall, we still have God’s image. See When Cultists Ask p.22 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:27, are people still made in the image of God since the Fall?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Yes. Genesis 9:6, after the flood, shows that even though we are marred by sin, we still have God’s image. See Now That’s A Good Question p.152-153 for essentially the same answer and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.20 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:28, since man was to fill the earth and subdue it, did this give permission for man to destroy the environment?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Not at all! We have never heard of a Christian or Jew who read the Bible with that interpretation. This new rendering, first advanced in 1967 [see Kaiser’s reference at the end], only seems to makes sense if you read part of Genesis 1, and you define "subdue" as "destroy", rather than "wisely rule". Actually the Bible says six important things about taking care of the land and animals.
1. They were "tenants" on land that really belonged to God
1a.
Thus, the land could not be sold permanently (Leviticus 25:23)
1b. All things belong to God (Psalm 24:1)
2. God will judge those who defile the land in general
2a.
Isaiah 24:5 says the earth was defiled by its people.
2b. Zechariah wailed over the destruction of mighty forests and rich pastures. Even more, wailing over the spiritual calamity for which these natural calamities are allegories. (Zechariah 11:1-3)
3. God condemns physically defiling the land
3a.
God will destroy those who destroy the earth. (Revelation 11:18).
3b. God will judge the "sheep" who not only eat what they need, but trample the rest of the pasture. They not only drink clear water, but they muddy the rest of the water with their feet (Ezekiel 34:17-22).
3c. Numbers 5:3 speaks of not defiling the camp, in the context of infectious diseases.
3d. Even in war, do not cut down the fruit trees that make the land productive (Deuteronomy 20:19-20). An olive tree can live for over 1,000 years.
4. God condemns defiling the land with evil
4a.
Numbers 35:33-34 commands us: "do not pollute the land" in the context of killing people.
4b. Do not defile the land with idolatry (Jeremiah 16:18).
4c. Jeremiah 32:34 mentions people defiling the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">valley</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Topheth</st1:placename></st1:place> with infant sacrifice.
4d. In Ezekiel 7:22, the wicked will defile God’s treasured place.
5. God’s Law includes wise resource management
5a.
Adam was put "in the Garden of Eden to work it and take care of it" (Genesis 2:15).
5b. Not planting two kinds of crops together (Deuteronomy 22:9). Instead, alternating crops reduces insect pests.
5c. Letting the land rest every seventh year during the Jubilee (Leviticus 25:3-7,11-12,18).
5d. God would judge <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> for breaking this rule (Leviticus 26:34-35).
6. Animals: owned by God, made for our use, but we must treat animals kindly
6a.
Animals belong to God (Psalm 50:10) and He takes care of them (Psalm 36:6; 104:11,14; 147:8-9).
6b. Eating meat is fine, and in some instances commanded (Genesis 9:2-5; Acts 10:13).
6c. Jesus was sinless (Hebrews 4:15; 7:26; 1 Peter 3:22; 1 John 3:5). He ate fish (Luke 24:42-43) and being a good Jew, ate meat as was commanded during the Passover (Exodus 12:8-10).
6d. Wearing leather is fine, as John the Baptist had a leather belt in Mark 1:6.
6e. Hunting is OK (Leviticus 17:13).
6f. Killing animals for sacrifice was even commanded (Exodus - Deuteronomy).
6g. We are to be kind to animals (Proverbs 12:10).
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.89-90 and the next question for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:28, even though the Bible does not explicitly say we should squander God’s gift of our environment, does Christianity implicitly teach that we can trash the environment?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: No. You cannot blame the ecological problems caused by greed and over-population on Christianity, any more than one can blame problems on Animists in Africa, Hindus in <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>, atheists in <st1:country-region w:st="on">China</st1:country-region>, and Muslims in <st1:country-region w:st="on">Indonesia</st1:country-region> and the <st1:place w:st="on">Mideast</st1:place>. There are ecological problems in every continent, just as there are people who will sacrifice the environment for personal gain on every continent. For a discussion of what the Bible does say about the environment, see the previous answer. See also 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.20-21 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 1:29 were Adam and Eve given every seed-bearing plant, or could they not eat of the fruit of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil as Gen 2:17 says?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: While we do not know whether the tree of the knowledge of good and evil had seeds or not, that is not relevant here. Regardless, the meaning was they could eat of every seed-bearing plant, with the exception of the tree of knowledge of good and evil.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:2-3, why did God rest from working on the seventh day?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: "Rest" here means to cease from the work of creating. God does not grow weary (Isaiah 40:28). Scripture never says God needed to rest, but that He chose to do so. See also Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.184-185 and Bible Difficulties "& Seeming Contradictions p.212-213 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:2, was the concept of the Sabbath Babylonian in origin that was added to Jewish tradition later, as Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.19,847-848 says it is tempting to suppose?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Two answers, one for Christians and one for non-Christians.
1. (for Christians): If you assume that Jesus was from God as proved by his resurrection, since Jesus accepted the original accuracy and preserved reliability of the Old Testament, and the references to the Sabbath in Genesis and Jeremiah can be proved to be written before Jesus, it was not a Babylonian invention, and there is nothing more that needs to be said.
2. (for non-Christians): In Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.847 he says the Babylonians called the 15th day of the month sappatu. Of course, that is only one day a month not four. On p.19, Asimov was astute to notice that the Sabbath seemed of little consequence to the Israelites in Pre-Exilic times and of great importance in Post-Exilic times. However, to postulate that the Babylonian and Post-Exilic Jews were universally "hoodwinked" into a) believing their exile was due to failure to obey a command that was not in their Scriptures, and b) this was added in 59 places (35 of which were in the Torah) without anybody noticing the new concept, is incredulous. By the way, not all the Jews went to <st1:place w:st="on">Babylonia</st1:place>. Jeremiah records that some went instead to <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>. It was descendents of those Jews who translated the Old Testament into Greek, and in the Greek Septuagint translation has the Sabbath verses, too.
Any and every speculation about errors in the Bible might be seem completely believable to someone who thought it very important to show there were errors in the Bible and they did not have to follow it. However, even Isaac Asimov at least recognized the tenuousness of this theory by not mentioning it as any more than a temptation.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:4, 5:1, 6:9, 10:1, 11:10, 11:27, 25:12, 25:19, 36:1, 36:9, and 37:2, Num 3:1; Ru 4:18, does the Hebrew word (Tol<sup>e</sup>dot) start a section, or conclude a section?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Either it always refers to the beginning, always refers to the end, or sometimes goes either way.
Ambiguous: Here are some "tol<sup>e</sup>dots" that could be interpreted Either way: Genesis 2:4; 5:1; 36:9; 37:2.
Beginning: Here are some "tol<sup>e</sup>dots" that context demands they be at the beginning: Genesis 6:9; 10:1; 11:10; 11:27; 25:12; 25:19; 36:1; Numbers 3:1. Philo the Jew (15/20 B.C.-<st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) mentions Genesis 2:4 as "summing up his [Moses’] account of the creation of the world" in On the Creation 44:129 p.18.
At the end: There is not a single "tol<sup>e</sup>dot" that provably belongs at the end of a section. Therefore, the ambiguous sections are probably "tol<sup>e</sup>dots" at the beginning.
The most conclusive prove that "tol<sup>e</sup>dot" is at the beginning of a section is Genesis 25:19, which says is it the account of Isaac. The immediately following section speaks of Isaac’s children. The immediately preceding section speaks of Ishmael and has nothing whatsoever to do with Isaac.
See The Bible Knowledge Commentary : Old Testament (Victor Books 1985) p.22-23 for more on why "Tol<sup>e</sup>dot" belongs at the beginning.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:5-7, did God create plants after man, or before man as Gen 1:12,26 says? (An atheist named Capella asked this.)
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Three points to consider in the answer.
1. Plants first: Genesis 1 clearly says plants were created on the earth prior to man. These of course, would include the ancestors of all modern plants.
2. World vs. Garden: Genesis 1 is the Creation account of the heavens and the earth, while Genesis 2 is the creation account of the Garden of Eden.
3. Crops after man: Genesis 2 shows that shrubs of the field came after man, at least in the Garden of Eden. In both occurrences, the Hebrew word for "field", saday, is used, rather than just saying plants.
As a side note, the Wycliffe Dictionary of Biblical Archaeology p.23 says that at <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Beersheba</st1:place></st1:city> they found calcinated grains of wheat, barley, lentils, and grapes from 4000 B.C.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:5-7, what are the grains we used today, as well as grains used in the past?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: People often think of grains as just the three largest food crops: wheat, rice, and corn, but actually you could eat three meals a day for a weak, and have a different grain at every meal.
Maize (corn): Archaeologists tell us that maize was domesticated in the new world about 5000 B.C. It came from a grain called teosinte. Teosinte had about 50 loosely held kernels, and the cob was less than an inch long. In contrast, corn today has 500 to 1,000 tightly held kernels on each cob. Because the kernels are tightly held, corn today is unable to grow in the wild without the help of man. See Food and Nutrition (Life Science Library 1967) p.37-38 for more info.
Wheat: Archaeology has found ancestors of wheat in the Middle east in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Iraq</st1:place></st1:country-region> around 7,000 B.C.. It is called Emmer and loses its seeds when the wind blows. Today there are thousands of strains of wheat. See Food and Nutrition (Life Science Library 1967) p.39 for more info. Kamut (=khorasan, = King Tut’s wheat), is probably a type of durum wheat. As a side note, some see the 2,000 year difference between the time of cultivation of wheat and maize as one of the two reasons (horses being the other reason) that when the Spanish came to America, Indian culture was 1,000 to 2,000 years behind European culture.
Rice was the newcomer of the three main grains. Food and Nutrition p.34 says it was domesticated about 3500 B.C.
Emmer (=emmer wheat, =faro) has been found in pre-pottery sites in the Middle east as early at 9800-8800 B.C. Domesticated emmer is different from wild emmer, but it came from wild emmer. Later emmer spread to Europe and <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">India</st1:place></st1:country-region>.
Spelt has a somewhat mysterious origin. It was grown in the Roman Empire, <st1:country-region w:st="on">Great Britain</st1:country-region>, and <st1:place w:st="on">Asia</st1:place>, prior to cultivation of wheat. It might be a hybrid between emmer and wheat, or between emmer and wild goat-grass (Aegilops tauschii), or it might have had two origins. Some think spelt had its start about 6,000 B.C.
Sorghum came from a grass in <st1:place w:st="on">Africa</st1:place>. It somewhat resembles corn (maize) in appearance. Sorghum is one of the eight major grain crops grown today; it is used today for animal feed, but is also probably the fifth largest crop for human consumption.
Barley was probably first grown around 8,000 B.C. in the <st1:country-region w:st="on">Israel</st1:country-region>, <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jordan</st1:place></st1:country-region> area. It spread eastward to the <st1:place w:st="on">Himalayas</st1:place>.
<st1:city w:st="on">Rye</st1:city> is guessed to have started in the Mount Ararat and Lake Van region of eastern <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Turkey</st1:place></st1:country-region> shortly after the domestication of wheat. It grows places where wheat and barley will not.
Oats are a grain we know little about except that some were found in an Egyptian tomb in 2,000 B.C., and they were likely started in <st1:place w:st="on">Asia Minor</st1:place>.
Buckwheat (Fagopyrum esculentum) was first grown in the <st1:state w:st="on">Yunnan</st1:state> and Szechuan provinces of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">China</st1:place></st1:country-region> around <st1:metricconverter productid="1000 A" w:st="on">1000 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.. It does not have a high crop yield, but matures quickly and is good in arid and cool climates. There are at least 14 varieties.
Palmer’s grass (=nipa grass, = Distichlis palmeri) was grown only in the Sonoran desert in western <st1:country-region w:st="on">Mexico</st1:country-region> and the western <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">United States</st1:place></st1:country-region>. It was the main food source for the Cocopah tribe. It is somewhat similar to wheat except that it can grow in arid conditions and can absorb seawater and secrete out the salt.
Millets are a collection of at least 13 small-seeded edible grasses that are good to grow in arid conditions. Millets such as broomcorn were also the primary grain in <st1:country-region w:st="on">China</st1:country-region> and <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Korea</st1:place></st1:country-region> in the earliest times. Some times of millets are barnyard millet, broomcorn, browntop millet, Finger millet, fonio, foxtail millet, Japanese millet, Job’s tears, kodo millet, little millet, pearl millet, proso millet, and teff. See [/FONT][FONT=&quot]http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Millet for more info.
Potatoes are not a grain, but there are the fourth largest food crop today. They are believed to have started about 6,000 B.C. in <st1:country-region w:st="on">Peru</st1:country-region> and <st1:country-region w:st="on">Bolivia</st1:country-region> in the region of <st1:place w:st="on">Lake Titicaca</st1:place>.
Other non-grain crops are beans, pulses, soybeans, groundnuts, cassava, sweet potatoes, peas, breadfruit, coconuts, bananas, plantains, and taro. Kesari seed was grown in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">India</st1:place></st1:country-region>, but it has long term paralyzing effects.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:7, did God create matter, or did He just "organize" it as many Mormons teach, or was matter uncreated because matter is not a real thing, as Christian Science and some eastern religious groups teach?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. God being almighty means God can do anything, and God being the Creator means God created everything. God created the universe "ex nihilo", which means from nothing. Thus, to be precise, God not only created the "things of matter and energy", but God created matter and energy themselves.
See When Cultists Ask p.24-25 for a different but complementary, answer.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:7,19 did God create man before the animals, or after the animals as Gen 1:24,27 says? (An atheist (Capella) asked this).
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[FONT=&quot]A: Three points to consider in the answer.
On the earth, God created man after the animals, as Genesis 1:24,27 says.
In the Garden of Eden, God had to have created man before showing man the animals.
Even in the Garden, the animals might have been there before man. Genesis 2:19 refers to the animals that had been created by that time. It does not mean there animals were not created until that time.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 2:7 prove that people do not have an immortal soul like Jehovah’s Witnesses say?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. The Hebrew word here, nephesh, means "soul" in some places, and "life" in other places such as this one. How could the believers under the altar in Revelation 6:9-10 be under the altar if they did not have existence after death? See When Cultists Ask p.23-24 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:10-14, where are the rivers that flowed out of the Garden of Eden?
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[FONT=&quot]A: First of all, the Garden of Eden does not exist on earth today. We do not know where the <st1:placename w:st="on">Pishon</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">River</st1:placetype> was, and the Tigris and Euphrates rivers are in <st1:country-region w:st="on">Turkey</st1:country-region>, <st1:country-region w:st="on">Syria</st1:country-region>, and <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Iraq</st1:place></st1:country-region>. The Gihon is usually thought to be the <st1:placename w:st="on">Nile</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">River</st1:placetype>, which flowed from the region of <st1:country-region w:st="on">Cush</st1:country-region>, south of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>. However, it could have been a smaller river originating in "Cush" (Kashshu) in west <st1:country-region w:st="on">Elam</st1:country-region>, which is very close to the Tigris and <st1:place w:st="on">Euphrates</st1:place>. The Kassites (Greek: Kossaeans) were from there. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.69-70, When Critics Ask p.34, and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.22 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:15, why did God say you (singular) may eat from any fruit of the garden, except that you (plural) must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Either one of them could choose any particular tree; they did not have to eat the same food. However, neither was allowed to eat from the one tree. The plural form adds emphasis; this command was not just to Adam, but to everyone.
Philo the Jew (15/20 B.C. to <st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) first answered this question in Questions and Answers on Genesis, I p.794.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:16, why did God create Adam, knowing that he would fall?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God can do anything, but a logical impossibility is not a thing. God cannot create a being who chooses to loving obedience to God, if that being is not able to choose to obey God. Being able to choose to obey God means being able to choose to disobey God. See 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.22 and the discussion on Genesis 3 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Since Gen 2:17 says "the day you eat of it you shall surely die", how did Adam and Eve die "that day"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Spiritually and judicially. Three points to consider in the answer.
Spiritual death occurred that day.
Judicially, that day sentences of both eternal and physical death were pronounced against them. In Hard Sayings of the Bible p.91-92, Walter Kaiser, Jr. shows the Hebrew idiom means the certainty of their death, not the immediacy of the death.
For another example of the use of this idiom of speech, see 1 Kings 2:37, where Solomon gave a similar warning to Shimei on the day he leaves <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>.
The first person we know who gave an answer to this question was Philo the Jew (15/20 B.C. to <st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) in Questions and Answers on Genesis, 1 p.794, and Allegorical Interpretation, I 33 (105) p.46-37, where he mentions the death of the soul.
A second ancient writer, who gave a different answer is Irenaeus in Against Heresies book 5 ch.23 (182-<st1:metricconverter productid="188 A" w:st="on">188 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) p.551-552. Since Irenaeus notes that a day with the Lord is 1,000 years, he interprets this as one of God’s days, and he sees it significant that Genesis 5:6 says that Adam died when he was 930 years old, which is less than 1,000 years.
See When Critics Ask p.34, Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.72-74, Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.134-135, The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.45, Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.190-191, 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered 23-24, and Hard Sayings of the Bible p.91-92 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:18, why does it say man was alone, since man was with both God and the animals?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Adam did have rule over the animals, and Adam did worship God, but Adam had no one else like Him. He was alone in not having anyone to relate to in a horizontal way as an equal.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 2:18-22 show that women were created as an afterthought, as Born Again Skeptic’s p.164 claims?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, it shows just the opposite. God took a great deal of time, with Adam having to name the animals and all, to demonstrate to Adam his need for a mate. Most of the things in Genesis 1 and 2 were simply created with little explanation. However, God first "set the stage" and explained her purpose as Adam’s co-laborer before creating Eve.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 2:18 show that women are inferior to men, since Eve was made differently from Adam?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No it does not. Six points to consider in the answer.
1. Different does not prove unequal. Different people speak different languages, but that does not mean every language is either inferior or superior to another. As one Christian said, Eve was not made from Adam’s foot to be under him, nor from his head to be above him, but from his side to be with him.
2. Helper does not mean inferior. Some might think that Eve was less than Adam because she was a "helper" in Genesis 2:18. However, God is our helper (same Hebrew word) in Psalm 70:5 and this does not mean God is inferior to us! Thus translating the Hebrew as "helpmate" is rather imprecise. A better translation is ‘I will make a power [or strength] corresponding to man.’ according to Walter Kaiser’s detailed study of the Hebrew in Hard Sayings of the Bible p.92-94. So the woman is to be a "full partner" and not just an assistant.
3. Genesis 1:27 shows both are in the image of God. It was not just Adam that is in the image of God, but both male and female are in the image of God. By the way, being in the "image of God" in no way means God is limited to having two feet, two hands, a stomach etc. Rather, as a two-dimensional image is an imperfect outline of a real, three-dimensional object, the character of the infinite God and our finite being have some similarities.
4. Equal in nature, value, importance, etc. In the Bible, Galatians 3:28 says, "There is neither Jew nor Greek, slave nor free, male or female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus." (NIV)
5. Yet different in role: Ephesians 5:22-24 shows that wives are to submit to their husbands, for husbands are the head of the wife. Husbands are to love their wives as Christ loved the church in Ephesians 5:25-26. Paul said that women were not to teach men or have authority over men in 1 Timothy 2:12.
6. How does this work out in practice?
6.1
Deborah was a godly judge of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> in Judges 4-5. Based on this, there is no difficulty voting for a woman for president or prime minister.
6.2 They could inherit things, including land in Numbers 36:8.
6.3 For a more thorough description of how a wife is to be a full partner with her husband, read Proverbs 31:10-31. Among other things it says:
She works with her hands (Proverbs 31:13,22) and profits from this in Proverbs 31:24,31.
She shops for food (Prov 31:14) and cooks. Prov 31:15
She manages others. Prov 31:15
She herself decides to buy real-estate in Prov 31:16.
She plants a vineyard. Prov 31:16 (Note that a family does not own an entire vineyard just for their personal consumption; it was a source of profit.)
She is physically strong. Prov 31:17
She also trades, not just for necessity but for profit. Prov 31:18
She herself gives to the poor. (She had to have control over money to do so.) Prov 31:20
She manages the household. Prov 31:21
She is wise, and teaches wisdom. Prov 31:26
In summary: Women are not inferior to men in nature, value or importance. They do have a different role than men, as any expectant mother can tell you.
See also Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.191-193 for more on how woman was made "as like" man, and equal with him.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:19 why did Adam need to see all the animals here?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God gave Adam dominion over all the animals in Genesis 1:26, and God wanted to see what Adam would name the animals in Genesis 19.
In addition to this, there might have been a more subtle reason. Prior to making Eve, God recognized the importance of filling what was lacking in Adam, but Adam did not. Thus Adam could learn three things about the animals relevant to his current situation.
Family:
a) Showing Adam that all the higher animals had male and female showed how God made them complete and able to propagate their species.
b) Adam could look at all the creatures, and see that there was none like him.
c) Adam could see that he needed another to make him complete, too.
Incidentally, teaching children how plants reproduce, and how animals reproduce, is a good approach to teaching kids how God ordained the way children are made.
Community:
a) Even dogs and deer have communities in which they live.
b) Adam could see that He did not have anyone like him in a community to share his life with, and people need other people to be around.
Leadership:
Since God gave Adam dominion over the earth, Adam would need to know the animals that were on the earth.
Since Adam had dominion, God honored Adam by having him name the animals. Philo the Jew mentioned this in Works of Philo p.882.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:19-3:19, what evidence is there from early Mormon writings that Mormons believed the crazy doctrine that Adam was God?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Here are the quotes from the Mormon Journal of Discourses, followed by twelve other writings as evidence.
a. Journal of Discourses vol. 1 p.50. (Sermon by Brigham Young) "Now hear it, O inhabitants of the earth, Jew and Gentile, Saint and sinner! When our father Adam came into the garden of Eden, he came into it with a celestial body, and brought Eve, one of his wives, with him. He helped to make and organize this world. He is Michael, the <st1:place w:st="on">Archangel</st1:place>, the Ancient of Days! about whom holy men have written and spoken [/FONT][FONT=&quot]-[/FONT][FONT=&quot] He is our Father and our God, and the only God with whom we have to do. Every man upon the earth, professing Christians or non-professing must hear it, and will know it sooner or later." (italics and small caps are in the original)
b. Journal of Discourses vol. 1 p.51. (same sermon) "Jesus, our elder brother, was begotten in the flesh by the same character that was in the Garden of Eden, and who is our Father in Heaven."
Note that Mormons often respond that this is a printing error. It is interesting to note that the volumes of the great Christian preacher Charles H. Spurgeon were published about the same time, and there were no printer’s errors saying some created being was God in Spurgeon’s works. Following is corroborating evidence that the Mormon prophet really said this.
1. Wilford Woodruff’s Journal under 2/19/1854. (Look in the BYU Library)
2. <st1:place w:st="on">Deseret</st1:place> Evening News 6/14/1873
3. <st1:place w:st="on">Deseret</st1:place> Evening News 6/18/1873
4. Diary of Hosea Stout: On the Frontier vol. 2 p.438.
5. The Millennial Star vol. 16 p.543.
6. The Millennial Star vol. 15 p.769-770. one and a half years after this.
7. Journal of John Nuttall vol. 1 pp.18-21.
8. Diary Journal of Abraham H. Cannon vol. 11 p.39 (taught for 50 years)
9. Sacred Hymns and Spiritual Songs for the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints 1856 p.375
10. Women of Mormondom p.179
11. Journal of Discourses vol. 4 p.1 (President Heber C. Kimball is speaking on 6/29/1856)
"...and I also know that if we are not one with brother Brigham, our leader, we are not one with Christ. Yes, I know this, and my feelings are and have been with brother Brigham all the time. I have learned by experience that there is but one God that pertains to this people, and He is the God that pertains to this earth [/FONT][FONT=&quot]-[/FONT][FONT=&quot] the first man. That first man sent his own Son to redeem the world, to redeem his brethren."
12. Finally, a much later book:
The Position of Adam in L.D.S. Scripture and Theology: "The identification of Adam with God the Father by President Brigham Young is an irrefutable fact." p.58
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:20, how could Adam name all the animals, unless the forbidden fruit was an Apple Macintosh computer?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Someone once quipped that if Adam had to name all the species of animals (including 1.5 million bugs and insects) within 24 hours on the sixth day, no wonder we mistake the forbidden fruit for an Apple, hard drives and all!
On the other hand, Paul S. Taylor has correctly noted that the phrase "gave names to all the livestock, the birds of the air and all the beasts" in Genesis 2:20 does not necessarily mean naming every species on earth. It simply could be naming the genera and families of animals in Adam’s immediate vicinity.
For those who like trivia, there are about 26,000 living species of vertebrate land animals and birds and 9,500 known fossil species on the earth. (Of the fossil species, almost half were reptiles, and 1,000 were birds).
There are roughly 5,600 living genera land animals, including 1,900 genera of birds. There are about 6,500 genera of known fossil land animals, including almost 1,000 genera of birds and 1,500 general of reptiles.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:21-23, was Adam both male and female prior to the creation of Eve?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Nothing in Scripture suggests this. Genesis 3:16 says that the husband will be the head of the wife. Since this was after the fall, how "male" Adam was prior to Eve does not have any bearing on anything. However, in regard to church authority in general, Paul sees it as significant that Adam was formed prior to Eve in 1 Timothy 2:13. Paul’s point would be misleading if Adam was both male and female.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:21-23, was the account of Eve being formed from a rib taken from the Sumerian Dilmun poem?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. First some background information, then the answer, and finally two lessons we can learn from the answer about how God inspired the Bible.
B1. Samuel Noah Kramer, in The Sumerians (University of Chicago 1963), mentions that the Sumerian word for rib, ti, also means "to make live", and in the Dilmun poem, Nin-ti was the "lady of the rib" as well as the "lady who makes live" who healed the god Enki’s sick rib.
B2. This is a pun in Sumerian, but not in Hebrew, which makes this similarity rather striking.
B3. Except for "lady who healed the rib" vs. "Eve who was from Adam’s rib" in Genesis, there are not any other similarities between the two stories. See The Sumerians p.148-149 or Hard Sayings of the Bible p.94-95 for the Sumerian narrative.
B4. Tablets from the Dilmun poem are from 2400 B.C. or later. Regardless, they still predate Abraham, who left <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city> before 2050 B.C.
B5. This story might have been well-known in ancient times.
The Answer has four points.
A1. This is just one of a number of examples of similar recountings of events mentioned in Genesis. Another example is the more than 200 world-wide flood stories of various peoples around the world.
A2. The play on words about the rib may show that other early cultures had a preservation of at least incomplete knowledge of the creation of mankind.
A3. Even more than that, other parts of Genesis 1 seem almost to be written in a deliberate manner to contrast with Sumerian, Akkadian and other accounts. The other accounts present gods quarreling, in Genesis the One God calmly creates. Other accounts present the hero fighting against chaos. Genesis presents God moving over the "abyss/waters", and commanding and ordering.
A4. While some similarities of details between Genesis versus the Dilmun poem and other ancient works could point to common knowledge of some events. However, it is untenable to say that one was copied from the other, not just because the common details are few, but because there are almost no similarities in meaning behind the details.
Lessons to Learn from the Answer:
L1.
Genesis was not written in a vacuum. God does not just reveal truth to us, He reveals timeless truth, yet in a practical way, relevant to the time and culture. One reason (but not the main reason) Genesis might have been given by God was to correct the wrong views of man’s origin that people had, while acknowledging some of the correct things that had survived.
L2. God uses culture. God uses even people’s evil actions for His glory (Genesis 50:20). How can we even attempt to forbid God to use culture too, as He wishes. Moses was a learned man, and perhaps He might have read this story, and God used Moses’ reading to show Him what was true and what was not true.
L3. Most importantly, do not take the phrase "scripture is inerrant" to mean the Bible had to be mechanically dictated. 1 Peter 1:21 says that prophecy was men speaking as moved by the Holy Spirit. Thus, when different parts of the Bible obviously reflect different human styles of writing, that does not preclude divine authorship. It merely demonstrates that God used various people’s writing styles as He saw fit.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.94-95 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:22, who is Lilith during this time?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The name Lilith is never once mentioned in the Bible. There was a fable in the Middle Ages about a woman named Lilith who was Adam’s first wife. She refused to submit to Adam, and God then created Eve. Lilith, according to the myth, was turned into a demon that kills newborn babies.
Lilith also was a vampire in Sumerian mythology, according to The Sumerians p.198, 258. Civilizations of the Ancient and Near East p.1890 mention that the unmarried who died became a special class of demons called lilu (male) and Lilitu (female). They would ask the living to marry them, promising them wealth, but if the living person consented, they died early.
All Bible manuscripts, Jewish or Christian, do not have any more hint of Lilith than they do of Donald Duck.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:22, how could God make Eve from a rib?
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[FONT=&quot]A: -Any way God Almighty wanted. If God had to use a rib, and if you think God had to take away the entire rib, then I suppose you might conclude that Eve would be counting all of Adam’s ribs every morning!
Seriously, God might not have utilized all the rib; one cell could have been enough.
735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.23 adds that if God had made her from clay, one could argue that women are intrinsically different (and perhaps inferior to men). However, since Eve was made from a rib, she had the same equal identity with man.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:22-23, should men have one less rib than women?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. If a man has his arm cut off, his subsequent children and grandchildren are not all born missing one arm. Likewise, if you take a few cells from a person’s rib, both the parents and their children will still have the same number of ribs.
Tertullian writing 198-<st1:metricconverter productid="220 A" w:st="on">220 A</st1:metricconverter>.D. interprets this as God "borrowing a rib in Tertullian On Exhortation to Chastity ch.5 p.53. He also adds that God could have borrowed more ribs for more wives but chose not to, as an example that monogamy was the norm and not polygamy.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 2:25, were man and woman originally created naked, and were they supposed to wear clothing?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes, they were created naked, and had no shame. However, after the Fall, God clothed them, and we have been clothed ever since then. See 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.317-318 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, since God made humans ultimately to be higher than the angels, could that have been a factor in Satan choosing to fall?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture does not say either way, but it is certainly a possibility.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, were Adam and Eve white, black, brown, yellow or red skinned?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Bible is totally silent on this. Since Adam and Eve were the ancestors of us all, it does not matter. All of use are equally a descendants of Adam and Eve.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, why did God allow Adam and Eve to be tempted?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Bible does not say. However, we can speculate that God did not just want people who loved him, but people who were allowed an alternative, yet still chose to love God.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, was this an unfair test, since Adam and Eve did not yet have the knowledge of good and evil, as an atheist (Capella) claims?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. Is it an unfair test to tell somebody not to use illegal drugs, such as cocaine, until they have first had a chance to use it? Of course not. Likewise, it was not unfair for them to receive the prohibition without experiencing evil and guilt. While one could argue that they did not know everything about good and evil at this time, they knew that their Creator commanded them not to eat of that tree, and that knowledge alone was sufficient to make this a fair test.
Today we do not know every single reason why God forbids us to do something, but if God has commanded us not to do it, we know all we need to know to obey God.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, what exactly was wrong with eating of the tree?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: It was not that a particular fruit was evil; perhaps they could have eaten of the tree later. As Theophilus, bishop of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Antioch</st1:place></st1:city> (168-181/188 A.D.) wrote in his letter Theophilus to Autolycus book 2 ch.25 p.104 "For it was not the tree, as some think, but the disobedience, which had death in it." Ante-Nicene Fathers vol.2 p.104. Some also see in the phrase "like God, knowing good and evil", as them wanting to appropriate to themselves God’s prerogative of defining good and evil.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, was this test sort of like parents putting a 40,000 volt battery in the living room and telling their baby not to touch it?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, the danger was in their disobedience, not in the tree. Four points to consider in the answer.
1. Unlike a dangerous battery, it was not the tree that was deadly. It was the disobedience to God that was deadly, and caused them to die spiritually that day, and physically later.
2. Adam and Eve were not babies. They could reason as adults can, they were fully conscious of what they were doing and what God said the consequences would be.
3. Adam and Eve had all their needs met, and they had no way to disobey God except by eating of the tree. Whether we like it or not, God gives people choices to serve Him or not. Some might feel, "God should not have done that, God should have made us all robots incapable of disobeying." Regardless of how people feel, God can do as He wishes, and God chose to give everyone the free will to disobey Him, and to live with the consequences of their obedience or disobedience.
4. The fruit might have been eaten eventually. Theophilus bishop of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Antioch</st1:place></st1:city> (168-181/188 A.D.) taught that if Adam and Eve had not sinned, they would have matured, become perfect, and ascend to heaven in possession of immortality. Mankind had a middle nature, neither wholly mortal, nor altogether immortal, or <st1:place w:st="on">Paradise</st1:place> was between earth and heaven. Theophilus to Autolycus book 2 ch.22 p.24 p.104
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, should we be proud that Eve ate the apple, as Laura Schlesinger says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. Dr. Laura is right about many things, but she is incorrect here. Here is what she said in Modern Maturity September-October 1999 p.67.
"I have great pride that she ate the fruit from the tree of knowledge. Because if she hadn’t, we’d still be animals in the Garden. God didn’t put that tree there just for shade. We became human with that step."
First of all, the tree was not just the tree of knowledge, but the tree of knowledge of good and evil. Schlesinger is right that people were not the same. All the murdering, war, oppression, and moral irresponsibility people committed happened after this. However, people are still human in Heaven, when they will not sin anymore. It is not impossible to be fully human and not sinful, as Adam and Eve prior to eating, and as Jesus Christ is.
Later in the interview, when Dr. Laura said Adam was wrong to try to blame Eve, Schlesinger was correct, because Genesis 3:6 says that Adam was with Eve when she ate.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, was the fruit of the tree a metaphor for an unlawful spiritual sexual union between Eve and Satan as Rev. Moon of the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placename w:st="on">Unification</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">Church</st1:placetype></st1:place> (Moonies) teaches in the Divine Principle (fifth ed. 1977) p.75-79?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There was no sexual metaphor with the tree, fruit, or Satan. If Rev. Moon was right, then:
What were all the other trees that were allowed?
Eve ignored Satan when she ate the fruit of the tree
In Genesis 3:13, Eve, in trying to put all the blame on the serpent, merely said the serpent deceived her. She never said that the serpent did anything to her.
See also the previous question.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, do any other cultures have a similar story of the first people, in a garden, and eating a forbidden fruit?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes. Here are at least three cases.
S’gaw Karen people of eastern <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Burma</st1:place></st1:country-region>: the almighty, all-knowing God named Y’wa created everything. He created two persons, a man named Thanai and a woman named Eeu, and placed them in a garden with seven kinds of fruit trees. One kind they could not eat, though. The evil Mu-kaw-lee deceived the two persons, telling them they would have miraculous powers and ascend to Heaven. Mu-kaw-lee persuaded them to eat the fruit of the tree of trial. They ate and became subject to sickness, aging, and death.
Don Richardson explores the possibility that this might have come from Nestorian or Roman Catholic influence, and concludes it did not, because <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Richardson</st1:place></st1:city> found no concept of the incarnation or a redeemer dying for man and rising from the dead. See Eternity in Their Hearts p.77-83 for more info.
Santal of northeast <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>: They believed in "Thakur Jiu" (Thakur = genuine, Jiu = God), who created the first couple, a man named Haram and a woman named Ayo and put them in Hihiri Pipiri, which was west of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">India</st1:place></st1:country-region>. The evil Lita tempted them to make rice beer and pour part of it on the ground as an offering to Satan. They did so, and became drunk on the rest of the beer. When they woke up, they knew they were naked and felt ashamed. They later had seven sons and seven daughters. Their descendents became corrupted, so Thakur Jiu hid a "holy pair" on <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Mount</st1:placetype> <st1:placename w:st="on">Harata</st1:placename></st1:place> (=Ararat?), and destroyed the rest in a flood. Eventually their ancestors traveled (east) from forest to forest, until they came to high mountains, which blocked their path. Finally they got through (perhaps at the Khyber Pass) and they came to their homeland near <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Calcutta</st1:place></st1:city>. See Eternity in Their Hearts p.41-44 for more info.
Sumerians: The Sumerians believed they came from a <st1:place w:st="on">Paradise</st1:place> they called Dilmun. There are not many other parallels to the Garden of Eden, though. Dilmun was a place where all the gods were, as well as Ziusdra, a human who had attained immortality. The Dilmun poem dates from around 2400 B.C.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, since Adam and Eve were perfect, how can perfect beings do imperfect things, such as sin?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Regardless of how someone defines "perfect", the Bible never says Adam and Eve were perfect. It also never says they were incapable of sinning. Rather, the Bible only shows that they were very good, and they were "sinless", in that they had not sinned. They were still capable of exercising free agency and able to make a choice about sin.
Clement of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Alexandria</st1:place></st1:city> (wrote 193-217/220 A.D.) in his Stromata book 6 ch.12 p.502 was one of the first to answer this question. He said among other things, that man "was not perfect in his creation, but adapted to the reception of virtue. … Now an aptitude is a movement towards virtue, not virtue itself. All, then, as I said, are naturally constituted for the acquisition of virtue."
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3, since a perfect God only creates perfect beings, how could Adam and Eve sin?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Five points to consider in the answer.
Tertullian answered this question way back in 207/208 A.D. in Five Books Against Marcion book 2 chapters 5-9. Tertullian’s lengthy answer can be summed up in his own words: "Therefore it was proper that [man,] the image and likeness of God should be formed with a free will and a mastery of himself; so that this very thing - namely freedom of will and self-command - might be reckoned as the image and likeness of God in Him." In other words, it was suitable for a perfect God to make creatures like Himself, possessing free-will.
Theophilus bishop of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Antioch</st1:place></st1:city> (168-181/188 A.D.) answered a related question, were Adam and Eve mortal or immortal, by showing that they were in process, and capable of going either way. (Theophilus to Autolycus book 2 ch.27 p.105)
Not robots: Would you have a perfect God be restricted to creating robots, and incapable of creating people that have free will? God does not create logical impossibilities, and for God to create people who freely choose to love and obey Him, God also created them capable of not loving and obeying Him. The Bible never says Adam and Eve were "perfect" in a sense of never being able to sin. Rather, the Bible says they were "very good" and "sinless", in that they had not sinned.
God’s perfection: Between mankind and demons, the Bible makes it abundantly clear that God’s perfection does not confine Him from creating beings with the ability to disobey Him.
Who’s Definition? If someone’s definition of a perfect God is one who is unable to create people with moral choices, then the burden of proof is on them to find at least one verse that substantiates that opinion. Otherwise, that definition does not fit the God of the Bible. The root issue here is:
a) should you try to impose your definition of "God’s perfection" on the God of the Bible, or
b) Let God speak for Himself in the Bible about how He is perfect and how He chose to create.
As for why God chose to "go through the trouble" of creating Adam and Eve, knowing they would sin, see the discussion on Genesis 1.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:1 and 2 Cor 11:3, why were Adam and Eve tempted by Satan in the form of a serpent, instead of something else, like a lion, or a bunny rabbit?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture does not say, but we can speculate. Large animals could be intimidating and put people on their guard. Tiny animals might be ignored as insignificant. A snake might imply that "slyness" is OK. For many in society to go and sin en masse, many people must first be persuaded that a sin is not wrong.
Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.96 makes the interesting point that some view the serpent as an analogy of intelligence devoid of conscience. The snake is amazing in how it slyly waits for and creeps up on its prey. Matthew 10:16 says we are to be a shrewd as snakes but as innocent as doves.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:1, how could an unintelligent, mute animal such as a serpent tempt Adam and Eve?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This was no ordinary serpent. Satan assumed the form of a serpent, and Satan could speak and is highly intelligent. Satan is also called the serpent in Revelation 12:9,14,15 and Revelation 20:2. There are three possible ways Satan could have been a serpent, and the simplest interpretation suggests all of them are true.
Physical Transformation: Satan either transformed himself or was transformed into the physical form of a snake that could speak.
Example: Regardless of whether the serpent Eve saw was Satan himself or just a regular snake, Satan "spoke behind" this form to suggest the sly approach of a snake.
Metaphor: Satan was called a serpent for the insidious way he approached Eve. See the previous question for more detail.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:1-16, what are some general things we can learn about sin from this example?
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[FONT=&quot]A: We can learn many things, but here are just a few of them.
1. Sin brings death. Adam and Eve would have never died, but they were headed towards death the day they sinned.
2. Sin has consequences even after forgiveness. God forgave them, but they would still die, and they did not get back the gift of the tree of life. (-at least not until Revelation 2:7; 22:2,14).
2. Scripture does not mention whether or not they even saw death before God killed some animals to clothe them with skins. Sin could not be covered by a bunch of leaves that would grow back next year. It could only be covered by blood, in an animal that died.
3. They could eat from almost any tree in the garden, but they thought God stingy for withholding that one tree. After the fall, God was merciful to forgive them and clothe them with animal skins, but they would have trouble for the ground would now be stingy to them.
4. Even the consequences of their sin were a mercy from God. Haddon Robinson mentions that pain plants the flag of reality in the fortress of the rebel heart.
5. Even after sin, God still has a redemptive plan. Even after we mess up badly, the promise of Romans 8:28 is still true. Even in this dark chapter, God had a promise in Genesis 3:15.
For more on Genesis 3, order the 5/27/2005 sermon by Gary Brandenburg from [/FONT][FONT=&quot]www.FBCDallas.org (Fellowship Bible Church Dallas).
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:1,14, since the serpent was cursed with crawling on it belly, does that mean snakes used to have legs?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. While some newts have arms but no legs, that is not what is intended here. While Scripture is not specific, Satan was cursed with lessened and degrading means of moving. Satan took the form of a lowly snake, and God punished Satan with a curse that part of the snake’s attributes would stay with Satan.
When people sin, the need for forgiveness for the external act is only part of the problem. The nature of sin is often such that part of the sin clings to our hearts on the inside, and we need cleansing as well as forgiveness. See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.100 for more info.
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Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

<meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"><meta name="ProgId" content="Word.Document"><meta name="Generator" content="Microsoft Word 11"><meta name="Originator" content="Microsoft Word 11"><link rel="File-List" href="file:///C:%5CDOCUME%7E1%5CADMINI%7E1%5CCONFIG%7E1%5CTemp%5Cmsohtml1%5C17%5Cclip_filelist.xml"><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="PlaceName"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="PlaceType"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="City"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="country-region"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="place"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="metricconverter"></o:smarttagtype><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:WordDocument> <w:View>Normal</w:View> <w:Zoom>0</w:Zoom> <w:HyphenationZone>21</w:HyphenationZone> <w:punctuationKerning/> <w:ValidateAgainstSchemas/> <w:SaveIfXMLInvalid>false</w:SaveIfXMLInvalid> <w:IgnoreMixedContent>false</w:IgnoreMixedContent> <w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText>false</w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText> <w:Compatibility> <w:BreakWrappedTables/> <w:SnapToGridInCell/> <w:WrapTextWithPunct/> <w:UseAsianBreakRules/> <w:DontGrowAutofit/> </w:Compatibility> <w:BrowserLevel>MicrosoftInternetExplorer4</w:BrowserLevel> </w:WordDocument> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:LatentStyles DefLockedState="false" LatentStyleCount="156"> </w:LatentStyles> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if !mso]><object classid="clsid:38481807-CA0E-42D2-BF39-B33AF135CC4D" id=ieooui></object> <style> st1\:*{behavior:url(#ieooui) } </style> <![endif]--><style> <!-- /* Font Definitions */ @font-face {font-family:Calibri; panose-1:2 15 5 2 2 2 4 3 2 4; mso-font-charset:0; mso-generic-font-family:swiss; mso-font-pitch:variable; mso-font-signature:-1610611985 1073750139 0 0 159 0;} @font-face {font-family:"Agency FB"; panose-1:2 11 5 3 2 2 2 2 2 4; mso-font-charset:0; mso-generic-font-family:swiss; mso-font-pitch:variable; mso-font-signature:3 0 0 0 1 0;} /* Style Definitions */ p.MsoNormal, li.MsoNormal, div.MsoNormal {mso-style-parent:""; margin-top:0cm; margin-right:0cm; margin-bottom:10.0pt; margin-left:0cm; line-height:115%; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:11.0pt; font-family:Calibri; mso-fareast-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-bidi-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-fareast-language:EN-US;} @page Section1 {size:612.0pt 792.0pt; margin:70.85pt 3.0cm 70.85pt 3.0cm; mso-header-margin:36.0pt; mso-footer-margin:36.0pt; mso-paper-source:0;} div.Section1 {page:Section1;} --> </style><!--[if gte mso 10]> <style> /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Tabla normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0cm 5.4pt 0cm 5.4pt; mso-para-margin:0cm; mso-para-margin-bottom:.0001pt; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:10.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:1,14-15, did the snake have legs before the curse or not?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There are two main views.
Yes: Possibly this particular "snake" in the garden might have resembled a monitor lizard, which holds its stomach off of the ground, and God changed that creature to lose all traces of legs. It could not have merely gone from a "monitor-like" stance to a crocodile-like crawling on its belly, because the use of the common word "snake" would imply there are no legs. The Nelson Study Bible p.10 says, "The text … implies that before this the serpent had some other bodily form."
No: The New International Bible Commentary p.117 has the view that "The punishment of the snake (v.14) must not be understood as meaning that at one time it had legs. Rather, what had once seemed natural and beautiful would now be a perpetual reminder of what it had once done." The Expositor’s Bible Commentary vol.1 p.55 says, "This curse does not necessarily suggest that the snake had previously walked with feet and legs as the other land animals. The point is rather that for the rest of his life, as a result of the curse, when the snake crawls on his belly, as snakes do, he will "eat dust." The emphasis lies in the snake’s ‘eating dust,’ and expression that elsewhere carries the meaning of ‘total defeat’ (cf. Isa 65:25; Mic 7:17)."
Regardless though, the point is that the snake who was so crafty (‘arum in Genesis 3:1), is now cursed (‘arur in Genesis 3:14.) The word ‘cursed’ is used of the snake and the ground, but not the man or the woman.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:3-24, why were Adam and Eve punished more severely than many people today?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God did not punish them simply for their action of picking; after all they could pick the fruit of other trees. God punished them for being without a fallen nature and yet disobeying God.
The severity of their punishment seems reasonable when we consider that God punishes based on what people know, and what they were capable of doing. Unlike people today, they were in the direct presence of God, and yet still did not trust that God knew what was best for them. Unlike people today, they did not have a sinful nature, which would always be tugging at them to sin.
See Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.193-195 for a totally different answer that essentially arrives at the same conclusion.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:3-6, did Adam and Eve eat an apple?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture never said they ate an apple. It was a forbidden fruit, the fruit of the knowledge of good and evil, which presumably is not found on earth today.
Some think the confusing the forbidden fruit with the apple in the Middle Ages happened because the Latin word for evil is malum and the Latin word for apple is malus. However this idea germinated, there is no Biblical root for the core of this idea, however you slice it. ;-)
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:5-22, does Adam symbolize the heavenly spirit, Eve symbolize the earthly soul, and the serpent symbolize attachment to the human world as Bahai’s teach in Some Questions Answered p.123?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. People have been trying to get spiritual meanings contrary to the plain meaning in Genesis for centuries. Adam is definitely a male human, and Eve a female human, and adding this unwarranted interpretation makes men higher "heavenly spirits" and women "earthly souls". Instead, the truth is that men and women are of equal and the same value in the eyes of God (Galatians 3:28).
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:5,22, if Adam and Eve would be "as gods" if they ate the fruit, is there more than one God as Mormons teach?
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[FONT=&quot]A: It was only after that time they would acquire the knowledge of good and evil. Genesis 3:5 says like God. "Gods" with an "s", is only in the KJV, in Hebrew it is Elohim, a name for God. So Genesis 3:5 does not prove any actual plurality. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.74-75, When Critics Ask p.35, and Hard Sayings of the Bible p.95-96 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:5,22, could people could know everything, like God?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. Satan did not even imply they would be like God in every way (worship, Almighty, Trinity, etc.) Rather Satan promised they would be like God in that they would know of both good and evil. Of course, before they ate the fruit they knew only good. After they ate the fruit, they knew about both good and evil. So, in a way that Adam and Eve would deeply regret, the serpent was correct. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.95-96 for a similar answer.
There are five other passages that mention knowing good and evil: Deuteronomy 1:39; 2 Samuel 14:17; 19:35; 1 Kings 3:9; and Isaiah 7:5. These show that God is the one who determines what is good and evil, and perhaps Satan was promising them a "declaration of freedom" where they would decide for themselves what good and evil were. This "declaration of independence" actually trapped them in condemnation. See 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.24-25 for more on this view.
Satan makes a similar promise today. In many forms of Hinduism, the goal is not to have a relationship with God, or to be "good". Rather the goal is to be "experienced", experiencing both good and evil. Sometimes people are surprised to find a Hindu guru who is dishonest and cheats somebody. It may be that the guru is not being inconsistent with his religion. For some, the goal is mastery of both good and evil.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:6, why was Eve punished for seeking wisdom from eating the fruit, since getting wisdom is thought to be always good?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Seeking wisdom is not good in and of itself. Seeking wisdom from God is good, but wisdom through disobedience is not good. Christians generally have not learned and experienced all the different varieties of evil, nor do they want to do so.
As Theophilus, bishop of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Antioch</st1:place></st1:city> (168-181/188 A.D.) wrote in his letter To Autolycus vol.2 ch.25 p.104 "For it was not the tree, as some think, but the disobedience, which had death in it. For there was nothing else in the fruit than only knowledge; but knowledge is good when one uses it discreetly. But Adam, being yet an infant in age, was on this account as yet unable to receive knowledge worthily." Ante-Nicene Fathers 2 p.104.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:6, how are Satan’s temptations of Eve similar to Satan’s temptations of Jesus in Mt 4:1-11 and Lk 4:1-13?
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[FONT=&quot]A: While they are not identical, Satan often uses similar tactics over and over, and that is probably because they have not stopped working.
Eve saw that the forbidden fruit was
1. Good for food [physical appetite],
2. Pleasing to the eye [beauty, lust of the eyes],
3. Desirable for gaining wisdom, [eyes will be opened, and like God, knowing good and evil. [godlike power after following Satan’s command].
Jesus, who was fasting, was tempted with
1. Stones becoming bread [physical appetite],
2. Throwing himself from the wing of the temple [showing off],
3. Authority over all the kingdoms of the earth [godlike power under Satan’s command.]
1 John 2:16 mentions three kinds of sins in the world, the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:8, since God is everywhere (Ps 139), how could Adam be away from God’s presence?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God’s presence being everywhere does not prohibit God from having a direct, localized presence to relate to us. As When Critics Ask p.36 mentions, there are many other examples of God manifesting himself in certain places through different things. These include Abram’s three visitors (Genesis 18:1-33), the burning bush (Exodus 3:2-22), a dense cloud (Exodus 19:9), at <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Mt.</st1:placetype> <st1:placename w:st="on">Sinai</st1:placename></st1:place> (Exodus 19:11-12), on the Ark of the Covenant (1 Kings 8:11-13), leaving the temple (Ezekiel 10:3-18), and Jesus’ coming to earth.
See also the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.1247 for more on God’s omnipresence, omnipotence, and omniscience.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:8, since God is everywhere, how could Adam and Eve hear God walking in the garden?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God is everywhere, and He can do anything; anything includes having a localized presence too. This could be God in Trinity, but early Christians, such as Theophilus of Antioch (168-181/188 A.D.) in his Letter to Autolycus book 2 ch.22 p.103 says this was Jesus Christ. Theologians call appearances of Christ prior to His virgin birth Christophanies.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:9,11, since God knows everything, why did He have to ask where Adam was and what He did?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God does know everything. Like a parent dealing with children, God sometimes asks questions for which He already knows answers, in order to give people the opportunity to confess to Him.
Back then, God asked them four questions:
1. Where are you?
2. Who told you (where did you learn that)?
3. Have you eaten (disobeyed)?
4. What is this you have done?
God’s questions gently led them towards repentance. God did freely forgive them, but they still suffered consequences and did not get the gift of the tree of life back.
Today, God asks people the same four questions!
1. Where are you? People in sin often do not know where they are, even though both God and the people around them can see how miserable they are making their own life. "At one time we too were foolish, disobedient, deceived, and enslaved by all kinds of passions and pleasures. We lived in malice and envy, being hated and hating one another. But when the kindness and love of God our Savior appeared, he saved us,…" (Titus 3:3-4a NIV).
2. Who told you (where did you learn that)? People today often believe too many lies instead of the truth from God. "But I am afraid that just as Eve was deceived by the serpent’s cunning, your minds may somehow be led astray from your sincere and pure devotion to Christ. For if someone comes to you and preaches a Jesus other than the Jesus we preached, or if you receive a different spirit from the one you received, or a different gospel from the one you accepted, you put up with it easily enough." (1 Corinthians 11:3-4 NIV)
3. Have you eaten (disobeyed)? Whether it is a fount of forbidden (and often lying) knowledge, or forbidden experiences, or a heart set on lesser things, the Holy Spirit is asking: "are you disobeying?"
4. What have you done? Self-inflicted tragedies (both moral and physical) do not usually happen suddenly like a balloon popping, but have the foundation of sin built up over time, like a balloon with a slow leak. James 1:15 says that after desire has conceived it gives birth to sin, and sin, when full-grown, brings for death. Even though a guilty person is without excuse, still, look back and see what choices and heart attitudes led to this catastrophe.
Early Christian writers likewise saw God’s questions as revealing their situation to themselves and calling them to repentance.
Theophilus (bishop of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Antioch</st1:place></st1:city> 168-181/188 A.D.) in his Letter to Autolycus book 2 ch.26 p.105, was the first to address this question. He said, "And as to God’s calling, and saying, "Where art though, Adam? God did this, not as if ignorant of this; but, being long-suffering, He gave him an opportunity of repentance and confession."
Tertullian in his work Five Books Against Marcion (207/208 A.D.) answers this question the following way. "…God was neither uncertain about the commission of the sin, nor ignorant of Adam’s whereabouts. It was certainly proper to summon the offender, who was concealing himself from the consciousness of his sin, and to bring him forth into the presence of his Lord, not merely by calling out of his name, but with a home-thrust blow at the sin which he had at that moment committed. For the question ought not to be read in a merely interrogative tone, Where art thou, Adam? But with an impressive and earnest voice, and with an air of imputation. Oh, Adam, where art thou? - as much as to intimate: thou are no longer here, thou art in perdition- so that the voice is the utterance of One who is at once rebuking and sorrowing." (Five Books Against Marcion book 2 ch.26 p.317).
Adamantius (c.300 A.D.) says that God did not ask Adam "because he wanted to make enquiry, but rather to recall something to his [Adam’s] mind." Dialogue on the True Faith first part stanza 17 p.61.
See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.75-76 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:14-15, the Lord God cursed the serpent to "eat dust all the days of its life." I find it difficult to reconcile with the zoological evidence that snakes are carnivores and eat frogs, birds etc. I am not trying to say God is wrong; I believe He is infallible, but could you explain what this verse actually means? Is there a metaphor intended here?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Let’s look first at snakes and then at the metaphor. Unlike worms, snakes are carnivores anddo not get their nutrition from eating dust. But for most snakes, they crawl on the ground; their food is only what falls in the dust, and they cannot avoid eating some dirt with their food.. Not just their food, but the snake’s entire life is low, surrounded by the dirty and insignificant. The Hebrew noun here, nacash, is a common word for snake, coming from the verb meaning to hiss or whisper. It has connotations of whispering magic. Thus the word emphasizes the whispering of the snake, and Genesis emphasizes the dust, so the image here is "once a dirt whisperer, all your days a dirt whisperer."
The New Geneva Study Bible p.13 says that dust can mean "abject humiliation". The NIV Study Bible p.10 says that dust could also be the symbol of death.
Now the serpent that tempted Adam and Eve was no ordinary snake; it was Satan himself. There are two options: either Satan appeared as a snake, or he used an existing snake’s body. While Genesis 3:14-15 could refer to all snakes, or one lizard/snake and all its descendants, it could also refer to Satan being somehow stuck to that physical appearance, since he used it then.
The most important emphasis in Genesis 3:14-15 is the judgment against Satan. Just as the snake crawls in a low, dishonorable way, eating only what is dirty, Satan, who made the choice to assume the form of a snake, likewise will never escape crawling in the dust from his formerly high position in heaven.
The Bible Knowledge Commentary : Old Testament p.33 observes that people seeing the snake crawling and eating dust served as a reminder of the fall.
During the time of the Millennium in Isaiah 65:25, the wolf, the lamb, and other animals will be changed and blessed, but the serpent will still "eat dust". While none will harm, and there will not be carnivores on God’s holy mountain, the serpent will still "eat dust". Revelation 20:1-10 tells us that believers reign with Christ on the earth for 1,000 years, but at the end of the 1,000 years, Satan will still go out and "whisper", stirring up the nations against God.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 3:15 mean that the Virgin Mary would be sinless, as some Catholics claim?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, for two reasons.
Eve is addressed here, not Mary. Of course Eve was not sinless, but there is no problem as this verse never said she was sinless.
The seed, that is Jesus, is the focus of this verse. Nothing here, or anywhere else in the Bible, says that Jesus’ mother would be sinless. Furthermore, no record exists in almost 4,200 pages of preserved pre-Nicene Christian writings saying Mary was sinless.
See When Cultists Ask p.25-26 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:15, who exactly are Satan’s offspring?
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[FONT=&quot]A: In John 8:41,44 Jesus indicates it is those who reject Jesus.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:15,23-24 what is ironic about the words used here?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This is a play on words. Adam was put in the garden for worship (le’obdah) and obedience (lesomrah), but after the fall would work (la’abod) and be kept (lismor) from the way to the tree of life. See The Expositor’s Bible Commentary vol.2 p.59 for more info.
Sometimes the same circumstances can be a blessing for us, or a curse, depending on our obedience to God.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Should Gen 3:16 be translated "A snare has increased your sorrow and sighing" or the traditional "I will greatly multiply"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Walter Kaiser, Jr. in Hard Sayings of the Bible p.96-97, says the Hebrew consonants are almost the same in both cases. The vowels are very different, but the vowel marks were only added many years after Christ. The only difference in consonants is that the traditional translation has two consonants missing. Either the missing consonants were a typographical error, or else the other translation is correct.
If the other translation ("snare") is correct, then Satan would be the snare. Regardless, having children is not evil, and it was originally part of God’s will for them (Genesis 1:28) and the Fall did not change this.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Should Gen 3:16 be interpreted to mean that the woman was cursed with overpowering [sexual] desire for her husband? Or, should the word be "turning/controlling" instead of "desire"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: While the word itself can mean either way, the context indicates turning, controlling, or mastering. Of all the 120 times the English words desire/desiring/desirous is used in the Old Testament, this particular Hebrew word for desire, teshuqah (Strong’s 8669) is only used three times: Genesis 3:16; Genesis 4:7 and Song of Solomon 7:10. Song of Solomon is the desire of one to his beloved, and in Genesis 4:7 God warns Cain that sin desires to have him.
According to Walt Kaiser, the Church fathers Clement of Rome (97/98 A.D.), Irenaeus (182-<st1:metricconverter productid="188 A" w:st="on">188 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.), Tertullian (198-<st1:metricconverter productid="220 A" w:st="on">220 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.), Origen (225-<st1:metricconverter productid="254 A" w:st="on">254 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.), Epiphanius, and Jerome, and Philo the Jew, rendered this "turning", and they were unfamiliar with the interpretation of "desire". Thus the passage means women would turn away from trusting in God and trust their husbands instead. Kaiser mentions that Katherine C. Bushnell discovered that the first use of "desire" in this passage was by an Italian Dominican monk named Pagnino. While the Wycliffe Bible was translated prior to this, unfortunately, all other English Bibles from the Coverdale version to the King James henceforth translated this as "desire".
Five reasons indicate it means turning, controlling, or mastering vs. sexual desire
1. Symmetry of "desire for your husband", and "he will rule over you.
2. Close proximity of the same meaning in Genesis 4:7
3. If it meant sexual desire, why no mention of men’s desire toward women too?
4. New Testament: wives submitting to husbands and husbands loving their wives as Christ loved the church in Ephesians 5:22-33. 1 Timothy 2:11-14 even talks about women not teaching or having authority over men due to Eve being the one deceived.
5. Evils in history: Men have often ruled over women in exploitive, improper ways too. When a Sumerian or Chinese Emperor died, his wives sometimes were killed with him. Before the British came, when a Hindu man died, his wife was usually burned alive at his funeral (called suttee). The Greeks did not view women too much higher than the Arabs and Muslims: When one is given a woman, servant, or cattle, one should seize its forehead and pray to Allah. Ibn-i-Majah vol.3 no.1918 p.157. According to the Muslim Sharia (Law), the witness of a woman is equal half that of a man, "because of the deficiency of the woman’s mind." (Bukhari vol.3 book 48 ch.12 no.826 p.502)
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.97-99 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:16, would the woman have great pain in childbearing, or was having children a blessing as Gen 1:28 says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Both are true. Three points to consider in the answer.
Prior to the Fall of Adam and Eve, having children would have been a blessing with no physical or emotional pain.
After the Fall, Genesis 3:16 says there would be physical pain. In addition, there would be the pain the children would bring because of their sin. 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.25 says it is most likely that the pain is the entire process of rearing children to adulthood. The pain Eve felt in delivering Cain and Abel must have been small compared to the pain of learning that Cain murdered Abel.
As a side note, animals generally do not have so much pain bearing children due to the size of the infant’s header versus the mother’s pelvis.
However, the blessing is not totally wiped out. Children are still a blessing from the Lord (Psalm 127:3-5). See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.96-97 for a different but complementary answer.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:16, why was everything blamed on Eve? (A Muslim asserted this.)
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[FONT=&quot]A: Everything was not blamed on Eve. While Eve ate first, and Eve was punished, Adam was punished too. He had to work hard to get out of the grand what came easily before.
In Biblical theology there is no hint of Eve being made "more stupid". However, since the Muslim brought this up, the early Muslim theologian and historian al-Tabari said that Eve was originally intelligent, Allah made her (but not Adam) stupid after the fall of Adam and Eve. al-Tabari vol.1 p.280,281. Also, Mohammed said in the hadiths that the urine of a male baby is cleaner than that of a female. Ibn-i-Majah vol.1 no.522,525,526 p.284,285,286. The reason is: "He (the Prophet) said, ‘Verily, Allah the exalted created Adam and Eve (Hawwa’) was created from his small rib. Thus a lad’s urine became from water and clay and urine of a lass [girl] became from flesh and blood.’" Note that this is not because of anything related to the Fall, but from the very creation of Eve.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:20, as different as people are, how could all races come from Adam and Eve?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 3:20 says Eve would be the mother of all living. Height, hair, and skin color are small differences, not only in people, but also in dogs, cats, and horses. Genetically, all people are very similar. A genetic study of 67 breeds of dog in the June 1997 issue of Science indicates dogs all had a common origin, too.
Other verses that confirm all came from Adam and Eve are Matthew 19:4-5; Romans 5:12-19; and 1 Timothy 2:13-14.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:20, if Adam and Eve had not sinned, would they still have had children? (my wife asked this)
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes. We do not know the physical age of Adam and Eve when they sinned; they could have been children, teens, or adults. The fact that there were no children prior to the Fall, does not mean God created them incapable of having children unless they sinned.
Two different scriptures prove they could have had children, regardless of the Fall.
In Genesis 1:28, prior to the Fall, God commanded them to be fruitful and multiply. Unless God was referring to mathematics, He commanded them to have children.
In Genesis 3:16, Eve was cursed with increased pain in childbearing. She was cursed with increased pain or sorrow in childbearing, not with childbearing itself.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:21, why did God clothe Adam and Eve in animal skins?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture does not explicitly say, but we can see this first sacrifice of animals as a symbol that God would use sacrifice of a living being as a covering for our sin. See 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.25-26 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:21 why did God "need" the dust from the ground to make Adam, and a rib to make Eve as Born Again Skeptic’s p.192 says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Bible says God chose to use those, but it never said God was required to use dust and cells from a rib. God can use whatever he wishes.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 3:22, why did God prevent Adam and Eve from eating from the tree of life anymore?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There are three aspects to this.
Discipline: This would show to Adam and Eve, and to us, the seriousness of disobeying God.
Judicial punishment: God promised them that the day they ate the forbidden fruit they would die. They died spiritually that day, and access to the tree of life was taken away from them so that they would die physically.
Mercy and blessing: If they could still eat of the tree of life, they would carry around the guilt and curse of their sin forever. So be allowed to die, and start everything off, culminating in Christ coming and bringing salvation for all was a mercy. Novatian saw this in his Treatise on the Trinity ch.1 p.612.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 4:3-6, why did God reject Cain’s offering?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Wycliffe Bible Commentary p.284 says that while perhaps Abel brought his best and Cain did not, there is no indication of that in Genesis.
Hebrews 11:4 says that Abel offered in faith. Besides Cain having a bad attitude (as his subsequent actions showed), it could also be that God wanted blood offerings, not vegetables, as a foreshadowing of Christ’s death. See The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.45-46, When Critics Ask p.36, Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.201-202, Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.76, and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.26 for more info.
Hard Sayings of the Bible p.99-101 also mentions that this might be a contrast between Abel’s genuine worship and Cain’s formalistic worship. Abel’s offerings of the "fat portions" of the "firstborn" were the choicest parts of the firstborn. Cain merely brought "some" vegetables, not the first fruits.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 4:10, how could Abel’s blood cry out?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This is a metaphor of the injustice against Abel and Cain’s guilt. Taking the Bible literally means reading it as the writers intended. Not recognizing metaphors and allegories in the Bible is called taking the Bible hyper-literally. See the Introduction for more discussion on hyper-literalness versus taking the Bible as it was intended, and as Jesus took it.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 4:12, why was Cain not executed for murder? (my wife asked me this)
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[FONT=&quot]A: Capital punishment was commanded in the Old Testament, not only in the Ten Commandments, but right after the flood in Genesis 9:5-6 and in Deuteronomy 13:10,11. However, these are all after the time of Cain and Abel. Apart from that, God knows all circumstances, and God Himself is not constrained by His laws for us.
At the time Cain was not told of any law for execution for murder, and God dealt with him by driving him from the soil.
See When Critics Ask p.36-37 and Haley’s Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.258 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 4:12, was the prophecy proven to be unfulfilled since Cain built a city in Gen 4:17?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, this is not a proven unfulfilled prophecy for two reasons.
Physical: Genesis 4:12 simply says that Cain would be a restless wanderer; it does not when he would wander, how long he would be a wanderer, or if he would always be a wanderer. We know little about Cain's life after that. Genesis 4:17 says that Cain was building a city and named it after his son Enoch. Perhaps Cain was trying to build a city in defiance of God's prophecy, and after that he was driven out and wandered.
Spiritual: Cain was considered the "cursed" line, and there is no evidence he ever went back to following God. So this prophecy might have referred to Cain’s spiritual condition as well as his physical condition.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 4:13, why did Cain think that anyone who found him would want to kill him?
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[FONT=&quot]A: It is very interesting that the Bible never says God or anyone told Cain this. For many moral wrongs, including murder, people have a conscience inside them that tells them this is wrong. Cain perhaps reasoned that if he killed a fellow person, who was made in the image of God, it would be just for him to be killed in return. In Genesis 4:15, God seemed to confirm this reasoning, and that is why God took extra care, putting a mark on Cain, so that others would know not to do this.
The video series, Growing Kids God’s Way, by Gary and Anne Marie Ezzo, session 6, has some insightful material on the human conscience.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 4:13-16, what was the mark God placed on Cain?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture does not say, except that it was something that others would recognize. However, Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.202-203 observes that it was not a part of Cain’s curse. Rather, it was God’s grace in giving Cain a mark so that others would know not to kill him.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 4:13, was anyone else on the earth besides Adam and Eve and Cain?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This refers not only to possible daughters from which Cain got his wife, but also people born after the murder. While all people came from Adam and Eve (Genesis 3:20; Acts 17:26; Romans 5:14-15), Adam and Eve had other sons and daughters according to Genesis 5:4.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 4:16-22, where did Adam and Eve’s sons get their wives? Is incest not forbidden?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 5:4 it says that Adam and Eve had other sons and daughters. Incest was not forbidden back then: if our genes were pure of genetic flaws, incest would not manifest any of the 2,000+ human genetic diseases it does today.
As a historical note, Augustine of Hippo answered this basically the same way in City of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">God</st1:place></st1:city> book 15 ch.16 p.297 (413-<st1:metricconverter productid="426 A" w:st="on">426 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) See 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.327, Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.77, When Critics Ask p.37-38, and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.27 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 4:16-17, how did Cain get his wife from the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">land</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Nod</st1:placename></st1:place>?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Two points to consider in the answer.
1. Even assuming Cain did get his wife from the land of Nod, she would still be the offspring of Adam and Eve, since all people came from Adam (Acts 17:26) and Eve was the mother of all living (Genesis 3:20).
2. The Bible never said that Cain met his wife in Nod. Cain very well might have been married, and his wife traveled with Cain to Nod.
See Difficulties in the Bible p.53-56, The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.46, and Hard Sayings of the Bible p.101 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 4:17-24 is this the genealogy of Adam, or is Gen 4:25-32 the genealogy of Adam? (A liberal brought this up as a doublet showing multiple authorship of Genesis)
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[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 4:17-24 is the genealogy of Cain, with no mention of Seth. Immediately following, Genesis 4:25-5:32 gives the genealogy of Seth, with no mention of Cain. There is no overlap or doublet here.
If this is not clear, you might look at a second example. 1 Chronicles 5:1-10 gives the genealogy of Reuben, one of the sons of Jacob. Immediately following, 1 Chronicles 5:11-22 is the genealogy of Gad, another son of Jacob.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 4:22, how could metals be used so early?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Bronze has been found in: Thailand–4500 B.C., Yugoslavia–4000 B.C., Greece–3000 B.C., and <st1:place w:st="on">Anatolia</st1:place>–before 3000 B.C. Egyptians used iron from meteorites as ornaments and daggers prior to 3000 B.C. Also at the city of <st1:city w:st="on">Eshnunna</st1:city>, near <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Babylon</st1:place></st1:city>, archaeologists found an iron blade from 2700 B.C..
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 4:22, is the name "Tubal-Cain" related to the region of "Tubal" in modern <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Turkey</st1:place></st1:country-region> as Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.33 says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: While it cannot be proven either way, it probably is not related. Tubal was also the name of a son of Japheth, and the Tubal people likely were related to him. The "Tubal" people were mentioned in Assyrian records during the time of Shalmaneser III (859-824 B.C. and Sargon around 732 B.C. See the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.1751 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 4:23-24, why did the man wound Lamech?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Three speculations about the man are:
A vigilante thought he was doing what was right by trying to kill Cain’s offspring. However, God specifically showed that no one was to get vengeance on Cain in Genesis 4:15, so it is implied that they should not take revenge on his sons either.
An excuse for a robber trying to take Lamech’s goods was that Lamech was Cain’s offspring.
It was not relevant whose descendant Lamech was; the man was simply trying to rob and/or kill Lamech.
However, scripture attaches no importance to why this particular man was trying to wound Lamech. The point of Genesis 4:23-24 was to demonstrate that after the first murder, Cain and his descendants lived in hostility towards others.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 4:23-24, what was the ancestry of the man who wounded Lamech, and when was Seth born?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture does not say, so there are three equally probable possibilities.
Abel had children before he was murdered.
Seth was his ancestor. Nothing says that Genesis 4:23-24 happened chronologically before Genesis 4:25-26.
Cain was the ancestor of the young man.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 5, could the "years" be really months?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. If they were, then Enoch was only 65 months old (6 ½ years) when he became the father of Methuselah! See 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.323 for essentially the same answer.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 5, does the Book of Genesis assume everyone spoke Hebrew prior to Abraham?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, quite the contrary. Genesis <st1:metricconverter productid="11 in" w:st="on">11 in</st1:metricconverter> telling of the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Tower</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Babel</st1:placename></st1:place> says that after the flood different people spoke mutually unintelligible languages. Prior to the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Tower</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Babel</st1:placename></st1:place> there is no indication that Hebrw is what people spoke. Abraham himself probably did not speak Hebrew. He came from <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city>, a Sumerian city. Sumerian was similar to Hebrew, since Hebrew came from Sumerian with heavy influence from the Arameans.
Secular linguists believe most of the Western languages, including Sanskrit in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">India</st1:place></st1:country-region>, had a common origin around 4000 B.C.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 5:3-29, what do all these names mean in Hebrew?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Here are the meanings, based on the etymology (word-origins) taken from Strong’s Concordance and in some cases, what Genesis says the meaning is.
Adam - man. Strong’s Concordance says it means ruddy, or man. Genesis 2:23 indicates that Adam = man.
Seth - put/placed/appointed/substituted. Genesis 4:25 says Eve named him Seth because God appointed another in place of Abel.
Enosh - mortal. The NIV Study Bible p.13 says the name, like "Adam" means "man".
Cainan/Kenan - fixed (like a nest or dwelling)
Mahalaleel - Praise of God, Praise God.
Jared - a descent
Enoch - Initiated, dedicated, trained up
Methuselah - man of the dart
Lamech - from an unused root of uncertain meaning
Noah - Strong’s Concordance says rest, and Genesis 5:26 says comfort, which is very similar.
Irad - fugitive
Ham - hot
Shem - name?
Japheth - expansion. According to the pre-Christian Greeks, Japetos was their ancestor.
One point we can learn from Japetos, is that the etymology or meaning behind every name is not necessarily significant.
A second point we can learn from Seth and Noah, is that the meaning behind some of the names is significant.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 5:21-27, is there a reason why Methuselah was the oldest human in the Bible?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Perhaps. The flood occurred the year that Methuselah died. Perhaps this was a sign of God’s mercy in delaying the flood by giving him a long life.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 5:24, why did God take Enoch, a godly man?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Perhaps for the same reason we bring beautiful flowers into our home. Enoch did not necessarily die; God just took Enoch with Him to heaven, similar to Elijah in 2 Kings 2:11-12. Another illustration was that like good friends Enoch and God went for a walk, it was getting late, and God said, since you are closer to my house than yours, why don’t you just come over to my house now. God does have most of his servants die to go to heaven though. This is not callous disregard, but Psalm 116:15 says "Precious in the sight of the LORD is the death of his saints." (NIV)
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.104-106 for more on what happened to Enoch.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 6, why are there similarities between Noah’s flood and other accounts?
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[FONT=&quot]A: They should be similar if they recorded a common event. The Babylonian account is similar in details, but very different in the reasons given. According to this account, the gods destroyed man because man made too much noise, but later they regretted this and gathered hungrily around "Noah’s" sacrifices.
One curious similarity is the Bible says Noah’s three sons were Ham, Shem, and Japheth. The Aryan Institutes of Manu say Satyaurata survived the flood with three sons: Jyapeta, Sharma, and C’harma. The Greek writer Aristophanes records the Greek tradition that Japetos (Iepetus the Titan) was the ancestor of the Greeks. All of this is corroborating evidence of a common event.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 6:3 mean that God’s Spirit might leave someone and never come back?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. Genesis 6:3 is saying that the spirit given by God will leave a person’s physical body after 120 years.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 6:3 man’s lifespan henceforth would only be 120 years, or that there would be 120 years of grace prior to the flood?
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[FONT=&quot]A: It could be either way, because there is no evidence against either view. Either one culd be correct according to The NIV Study Bible p.14, the New International Bible Commentary p.120. The Expositor’s Bible Commentary vol.2 p.77 favors it being the lifespan of man. It says the view that it was the time until the flood was taught by Luther, Calvin, and The Scofield Bible. The New Geneva Study Bible p.18 mentions both views, but favors the years until the flood.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 6:3, did God set our lifespan at 120 years, or only 70 to 80 years as Ps 90:19 says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Some things are hard to understand until you see that God is free to set different rules at different times. The average lifespan of people has changed. God set the average lifespan was 120 years just prior to the flood. Much later, Psalms 90:10 shows that it was shortened. God it is said that a man lives to be 70 years, 80 if he has the strength. A plot of the lifespans given in Genesis decreases in an exponential curve.
Scientists are not sure of all the mechanisms of aging: microbes do not age. While DNA demethylation might be one mechanism, the dominant mechanism appears to be shortening of DNA strands. Every time the DNA in a cell in an animal divides some of the ends are shortened. Now there is extraneous material on the ends, and microbes have an enzyme, telomerase, that restores the ends. However, telomerase does not appear to restore the ends of DNA in animals.
See When Critics Ask p.41 and Haley’s Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.424 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 6:3, how does this reconcile with paleontologists who say ancient people lived shorter lives?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There are some flaws in this particular assertion of scientism that poses as science.
1. Notice that they never mention the basis on which they claim people had shorter lifespans.
2. They present no evidence that they have a statistically valid and unbiased sample. For example, a hypothetical future paleontologist, centuries from now, could dig up the refuse from a couple of abortion clinics, and "prove" that our average lifespan was less than one year. This "proof" would be statistically biased, too.
3. Lifespan estimates should say whether they include or exclude infant mortality. For example, in the 1970’s, the lifespan in many central African countries was less than 30 years. Yet, if you went to the country, you would still see many elderly people. If there was a hypothetical country, where every toddler lived to be a 60 years old, but 2/3 of all babies died, the average lifespan would be only 20 years.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 6:3, since God could never become flesh, how could Jesus come to earth? (An atheist asked this)
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[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 6:3 says no such thing. It simply says that men are indeed flesh. Now it is true that God is Spirit, and Jesus emptied Himself to come to earth in the flesh, but Genesis 6:3 itself neither confirms or denies anything about God coming in the flesh.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 6:2,4-5, who were the Nephilim or "Sons of God"?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Nephilim means "sons of God" and here are some theories of why people called them that.
Godly line of Seth, or believers who sinned by marrying unbelievers from Cain. 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.65,348 advocates this, and says this was Scofield’s view. This view goes as far back as Julius Africanus writing in 232-<st1:metricconverter productid="245 A" w:st="on">245 A</st1:metricconverter>.D., in Ante-Nicene Fathers volume 6 fragment 2 p.131. 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.28 mentions this view, as well as the "Some demonic beings" view.
Mighty kings is the interpretation of the Aramaic Targum.
Another race such as Neanderthals or possibly Homo erectus.
Technologically advanced: The skeptical Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.73 thinks that the Israelites called them giants because of their high walls and technologically advanced weapons.
Children of women and demon-possessed men.
Some demonic beings could interbreed was the belief of the Jews Philo, Josephus (<<st1:metricconverter productid="100 A" w:st="on">100 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.), and the writer of 1 Enoch (chapter 6). Christians who taught this included Second Apology of Justin Martyr ch.5 p.190, Tertullian’s On the Veiling of Virgins ch.7 p.32 (198-<st1:metricconverter productid="220 A" w:st="on">220 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.), The Instructions of Commodianus (c.240 A.D.) ch.3 p.203, and Ambrose (c.378 A.D.). Augustine of Hippo in City of God (413-<st1:metricconverter productid="426 A" w:st="on">426 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) book 15 ch.23 p.303-304 acknowledges that earlier Christians held this view, but points out that Genesis 6:3 goes against this view, because God says that His spirit will not contend with man forever, which would make no sense if it was just demons doing these things. See Difficulties in the Bible p.186 for more info on this view.
Perhaps this was Satan’s attempt to alter our gene pool. However, if demons could interbreed how could Jesus half-way atone for half-men, half-demons? Hank Hanegraff mentioned this on the excellent radio show, the Bible Answer Man 10/29/97. See also The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.46-47, Chronological and Background Charts of the Old Testament p.35, Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.79-80, When Critics Ask p.40-41, Hard Sayings of the Bible p.106-108, and Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.208-209 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 6:6, how does God repent?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: The word can also be translated "grieved." God expresses His emotions in time as events occur. Jeremiah 15:8 goes into detail on this. Also see the discussion on Genesis 20:3,6, When Critics Ask p.41,161, Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.205-206, Hard Sayings of the Bible p.108-109, and Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.80-81,173-174 for more extensive answers.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 6:9, how was Noah perfect in his generation?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: There is no indication that perfect here means sinless perfection. Rather, Hard Sayings of the Bible p.109-111 mentions that the Hebrew word means "conformity to the standard, and the original idea may well have been to be straight. The same word, with different vowel markings, is used in Leviticus 19:15 to judge your neighbor fairly".
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 6:12, since all had corrupted their ways, how could Noah be blameless in Gen 6:9 and Gen 7:1?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The context clearly shows that "all" means with the exception of Noah and his family. Note that Noah’s father Lamech died in the year of the flood too.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 6:13 and 7:1, how did Noah know God was speaking to him, since He never saw God?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Many times, people who have many years of relationship with God know when God is speaking to them. See 1 Kings 19:11-13 for another example.
The only warning people had of a flood was Noah, the guy who build a boat in a desert. From Noah’s perspective, he would either be the greatest hero or the greatest fool of his generation had even seen. He would not be anything in-between. That is the nature of great faith in God. (Sermon by Bill Counts 11/5/2005)
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 6:14, how could Noah build such a large ark?
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[FONT=&quot]A: He had a 100 years to build it with his three sons, and possibly some hired help. The ark was about <st1:metricconverter productid="450 feet" w:st="on">450 feet</st1:metricconverter> long, <st1:metricconverter productid="75 feet" w:st="on">75 feet</st1:metricconverter> wide, and <st1:metricconverter productid="45 feet" w:st="on">45 feet</st1:metricconverter> high. It held <st1:metricconverter productid="101,250 square feet" w:st="on">101,250 square feet</st1:metricconverter>. The is <st1:metricconverter productid="1,103 cubic feet" w:st="on">1,103 cubic feet</st1:metricconverter> per year. A <st1:metricconverter productid="10 foot" w:st="on">10 foot</st1:metricconverter> by <st1:metricconverter productid="15 foot" w:st="on">15 foot</st1:metricconverter> by 6 2/3 foot stall is <st1:metricconverter productid="1,000 cubic feet" w:st="on">1,000 cubic feet</st1:metricconverter>. According to Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.215-216, the Queen Elizabeth 2 is <st1:metricconverter productid="963 feet" w:st="on">963 feet</st1:metricconverter> (294m) long, <st1:metricconverter productid="105.3 feet" w:st="on">105.3 feet</st1:metricconverter> (32.09m) wide, and <st1:metricconverter productid="171.3 feet" w:st="on">171.3 feet</st1:metricconverter> (52.5m high). So the ark was smaller than the Queen Elizabeth 2, except that the ark did not have a deep keel.
See also the next two questions for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 6:14, how long were some other ancient boats?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: In ancient times a Roman boat was found in Britain <st1:metricconverter productid="100 ft" w:st="on">100 ft</st1:metricconverter> long, and later Viking ships were also long, with the longest known being the Roskilde ship at <st1:metricconverter productid="115 ft" w:st="on">115 ft</st1:metricconverter>. In the age of exploration the ships of the line could be <st1:metricconverter productid="200 ft" w:st="on">200 ft</st1:metricconverter> long, and later clipper ships were typically 150-<st1:metricconverter productid="250 ft" w:st="on">250 ft</st1:metricconverter> long. The longest clipper ship, called the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placename w:st="on">Great</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">Republic</st1:placetype></st1:place>, was <st1:metricconverter productid="302 ft" w:st="on">302 ft</st1:metricconverter> long. While there were a few metal clipper ships in <st1:place w:st="on">Europe</st1:place>, most clipper ships were wood with metal reinforcements on the frame and inner keel.
Of course they did not have 100 years to build those boats. Also, while most boats are built out of oak because it is strong, other woods, just as teak, ebony, Brazilian blackheart, and cocobolo (in <st1:place w:st="on">South America</st1:place>) are much stronger. The ark was not built out of oak but gopherwood. We are not sure what gopherwood is; two theories are a very hard wood (perhaps still existing today under a different name or perhaps extinct today.) A second theory is that gopher wood was a mechanical way of pressing the wood to harden it so that it would hold up better. Finally, being built out of gopherwood does not mean it did not have other pieces, such as perhaps metal nails, bracing, etc. Genesis 4:22 shows they had bronze and iron (probably meteoritic) tools long before Noah.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 6:14, how do we know that a cubit is <st1:metricconverter productid="17.5 inches" w:st="on">17.5 inches</st1:metricconverter>?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: According to Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.215-216, when King Hezekiah had Siloam tunnel built, around 700 B.C.. His workers carved that it so that it was 1,200 cubits long. Dividing the length in inches by 1,200 cubits, gave about <st1:metricconverter productid="17.5 inches" w:st="on">17.5 inches</st1:metricconverter> per cubit. Of course a cubit in the time of Moses could have been somewhat larger or smaller. That would make the ark somewhat larger or smaller.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 6:14 how could the ark survive Noah’s flood?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: There are at least three reasons.
Gopher wood might have been a strong species of wood, but it might be specially treated wood, too. Heavy wood is a good choice, because it has flexibility. Genesis 4:22 shows they had bronze and iron before Noah.
The shape was ideal for rough waters (1 by 1.67 by 10).
God could, of course, also supernaturally protect the ark as needed.
See When Critics Ask p.42 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 6:19, was Noah to bring two of each creature, or seven of every clean animal as Gen 7:2 says?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Both. Noah was to bring two of all kinds, and in addition he was to bring seven of the clean ones. Genesis 6:19 says "two"; it does not say, "no more than two." The extra animals were for food and to sacrifice in Genesis 8:20. This is not an imprecision on the Bible’s part as much as an example of a way God teaches us. God makes sure we understand the general concept "two to replenish", and then adds a second concept "seven extra to sacrifice." It is similar to students learning arithmetic. They first learn how to subtract a smaller number from the larger number. Only later do they learn about negative numbers and that you can subtract a larger number from a smaller number. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.111-112 Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.81-82, Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.135-136, and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.30-31 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 6:19-20 come from a "priestly" source around 450 B.C., and Gen 7:2-3 come from an "Yahwistic" source around 850 B.C.?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: As Hard Sayings of the Bible p.111-112 points out there is no evidence that they ever were two separate stories, except for repeated occurrence. However, repetition is a literary technique for reinforcing a point. Back then, they may not have had the modern adage, "Tell them what you are going to tell them, tell them, and then tell them what you told them", but they were definitely aware of the effectiveness of repetition, as even a brief look at Psalms or Proverbs shows.
It is difficult for liberals to say the story of Noah’s flood was from either 850 B.C. or 450 B.C., as the Sumerian Gilgamesh Epic has a few of the same details about a worldwide flood, and it was written before 2500 B.C. (A Babylonian copy of Table 11 of the 12 table epic was in Ashurbanipal’s palace in Nineveh. A photograph of it is in the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.6126.)
To be fair though, the liberal JEPD theory that Noah’s flood came from two sources was from the nineteenth century, before the Gilgamesh Epic was known to the modern world. The only reason this question is addressed in this work is that there are still a number of liberal "Christians" who believe in the JEPD theory.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 7 cast aspersion to the character of God and His concept of justice? God destroyed all mankind because he "repented" of making him. In essence, God admitted to making a mistake, and in order to correct that mistake, he plays judge, jury, and executioner, and annihilates all mankind a la "Robo-Cop" without a trial, thus committing genocide. I have no doubt that there was evil, but how evil is a one year old child or an unborn fetus?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
A: Not at all, though it might blow away some people’s "soft" conceptions of God. Everybody who has ever lived, if they are not on the earth now, has died (with only two exceptions). The issue is not that they died, but when they died, and if they were allowed to have any descendants. God felt the emotion of grief, seeing what the world was like in Noah’s time. Like it or not, God is a judge. He also is a jury, and yes, an executioner. God has the right, and He exercises the right, of determining when and how people die.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 7:1, did the other people have "no chance" to repent as atheists have claimed?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, a century is plenty of time for repentance. As they saw the ark being built, they could listen to Noah, a "preacher of righteousness" (1 Peter 3:20). It took 100 years to build the ark, and over hundred years is ample time to have a chance to turn to God. Perhaps this is one reason 1 Peter 3:20 says God was waiting patiently while the ark was being built.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 7:2, how could Noah know how to take the clean animals, since there was no Old Testament law yet?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Noah did not have the Old Testament scriptures; rather, Noah had God Himself talking to Him. While we do not know exactly how much God taught Noah about what would be in the Mosaic Law, God certainly knew Himself, and was capable of communicating to Noah of which animals Noah should take seven.
In this one-on-one conversation with Noah, we do not know whether or not God used the identical definition of clean that is in the Mosaic Law. Regardless, Noah was told which animals to take.
There is a lesson for us in this question. Whenever God tells us to do something we usually do not know every single detail about everything. We can procrastinate or we can simply obey what we know, and trust God to correct us if needed as we are obeying. If we wait until we know every single detail first, we will probably never obey.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 7:2, was Noah to take seven pairs of clean animals, or just two pairs of clean animals as the Bible critic Bart Ehrman (Jesus, Interrupted p.10) claims Gen 7:9-10 indicates?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Ehrman might have had his notes mixed up here. Genesis 7:2 says seven pairs of the clean animals, and one pair of the unclean animals. Genesis 7:8-10 says, "Pairs of clean and unclean animals, of birds and of all creatures that move along the ground, (9) male and female, came to Noah and entered the ark, as God had commanded Noah. (10) And after the seven days the floodwaters came on the earth." (NIV)
Genesis 7:9-10 says nothing about how many animals. Genesis 7:8 says that "pairs" (plural) of animals (plural) came. There were multiple pairs, one per kind of unclean animals. There were also multiple pairs of clean animals. In Genesis 7:8 there was no reason to be more specific on the number of pairs here, because six verses earlier it told us how many pairs.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 7:4 - 8:12, what is unusual about the literary structure here?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: This is called a chiasm, which is common in ancient Hebrew literature, in which each statement (except sometimes the middle one) have a symmetrical mirror statement. Here is the structure
7:4 - 7 days to wait for the flood
7:10 - - 7 days to wait for the flood
7:17a - - - 40 days of flood
7:24 - - - - 150 days of the waters rising
8:3 - - - - 150 days of waters retreating
8:6 - - - 40 days of waiting
8:10 - - 7 days of waiting
8:12 - 7 days of waiting
In addition, Genesis 7:21-23a is a chiasm within this chiasm.
- All the flesh died
- - Birds
- - - domestic animals and wild animals
- - - - swarmers
- - - - - Human beings
- - - - - - everything on dry land
- - - - - - all living things on the face of the ground
- - - - - Human beings
- - - - Animals
- - - Creepers
- - birds of the air,
- they were blotted out.
See The Expositor’s Bible Commentary volume 2 p.90 for more info.
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Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 7:12,24, did the flood last 40 days, or 150?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 7:12 says it rained from the sky for 40 days, but the waters flooded the earth for a total of 150 days. See When Critics Ask p.42 and Chronological and Background Charts of the Old Testament p.36.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 8, why does the Bible apparently teach that mankind only goes back about 6,000 years?
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[FONT=&quot]A: According to radioactive dating methods, the first humans, whom scientists call Cro-Magnon man, lived from about 400,000 years ago to today. Neanderthals were descended from Cro-Magnon man and lived from 130/100,000 years ago to 35/30,000 years ago.
However, regardless of when God created man, the genealogies in Genesis allow for indeterminate gaps, as the word "son" also means "descendant", and the word "father" also means ancestor. Isaiah 51:2 says Abraham is the father of the Jews, and the Jews told Jesus Abraham was their father in John 8:39.
As a side-note, we can say for sure that the world was created in six days, but how long is one of God’s days? 2 Peter 3:8 says a day with the Lord is like a thousand years, and a thousand years like a day. Psalm 90:4 says a thousand years in God’s sight are like a day or a watch in the night. Irenaeus in Against Heresies book 5 ch.23.2 (182-<st1:metricconverter productid="188 A" w:st="on">188 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) p.551-552 interprets one of the Lord’s days in Genesis as 1,000 years.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 8:1 and Ex 6:5, how could God "remember" unless He first forgot?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God is all-knowing. While Noah may have felt forgotten, this is just an expression that God did not forget Noah. When we remember someone on their anniversary or birthday, it does not mean we forget them the rest of the year. See When Critics Ask p.43 for a similar answer.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 8:11, what is significant about the olive leaf?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The leaf presumably sprouted after the flood, and olive trees do not grow at high elevations. The olive tree is often a symbol for God’s people.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 8:15, did all races come from Noah?
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[FONT=&quot]A: On the father’s side yes, but on the mother’s side no. Noah’s wife, three sons, and their wives were on the ark too. The differences are not that great, given that in mixed marriages, two brothers can have very light and very dark skin. See 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.312 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 8:15-21, what are the parallels with Gen 12:1-7?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There are at least seven parallels with God calling Noah and God calling Abram.
God says to [him] Gen 8:15 Gen 12:1
Come out from the ark/country Gen 8:16 Gen 12:1
So [he] left Gen 8:18 Gen 12:4
Then [he] built an altar Gen 8:20 Gen 12:7
God blessed [him] Gen 9:1 Gen 12:2
Increase/become a great nation Gen 9:1 Gen 12:2
Establish a covenant / God gives them the land Gen 9:9 Gen 12:7
See The Expositor’s Bible Commentary volume 2 p.91 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 8:21-22, will the waters cover the entire earth again?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, because Isaiah 54:9 reminds us that they will not. This is another argument against the local flood, for God said there would never be another flood to cover the earth again. If Noah’s flood had just been a local flood, then there have been other terrible local floods.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 8:21 will God again destroy all life, or will everything be destroyed in 2 Pet 3:7,10?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 8:21 says God promised not to destroy all life "...as I have done", and Genesis 8:22 adds "...as long as the earth endures." God will destroy the earth with fire, sparing believers. See When Critics Ask p.43 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 8:22, why do we still have famines?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 8:22 says that harvest and seed time will not cease. While there were many famines, there has been no worldwide, permanent famine. See When Critics Ask p.43-44 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9, how could all the animals go back to the same place they came from?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Christians disagree on whether the flood occurred 2600 to 3000 B.C., about 7000 B.C., about 14,000 B.C. or almost a million years ago. Those who believe the flood occurred from 2600 to 3000 B.C. believe archaeology and radioactive methods are jumbled up, so there would be no data to say whether the animals returned to the same place they came from or not.
However, if the flood occurred about 14,000 years ago, all of the animals did not stay in the same place. A land bridge connected <st1:country-region w:st="on">America</st1:country-region> and <st1:place w:st="on">Asia</st1:place>. After that, mammoths and horses died out in the <st1:place w:st="on">New World</st1:place>.
However, regardless of when the flood occurred, all Christians can agree that God has the power to influence the animals to go where he wants.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9:3, can people eat meat, or only vegetables?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 1:29 said Adam could eat fruits and vegetables. After the flood, Genesis 9:3 said we now could eat meat. See the discussion on Genesis 1:28 and When Critics Ask p.44 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9:4, is eating blood prohibited today?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Some say no, because the Christ superseded the law, and in Acts 10:11-16, all "foods" were called clean.
Some say yes, because this was given prior to the Mosaic Law in Genesis 9:4. In Acts 15:20,29 the early, apostolic church believed taught Christians should abstain from blood. Of course, miniscule amounts of blood are OK, because Jews were permitted to eat game they hunted and [rapidly] drained in the field in Leviticus 17:13. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.84-86 for this view.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9:4, Lev 7:26-27, Lev 17:11-12, and Dt 12:16,23-25, does the prohibition on eating blood mean people should never have blood transfusions, as Jehovah’s Witnesses teach?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. We should not be cannibals, yet organ transplants are OK. Likewise, people were told not to eat blood, and blood transfusions are OK.
As Jehovah’s Witnesses Answered Verse by Verse p.22-23 points out, even the Jehovah’s Witness Watchtower organization did not ban blood transfusions until <st1:metricconverter productid="1944. In" w:st="on">1944. In</st1:metricconverter> 1967, they also banned organ transplants (Watchtower magazine 12/15/67 p.702-704). Then they changed their mind and allowed them in 1980 (Watchtower magazine 3/15/1980 p.31). They also did not allow vaccinations from 1931 to 1952.
See When Cultists Ask p.26-27, 39-40 for more info, and Jehovah’s Witnesses Answered Verse by Verse p.22-23 and Answering Jehovah’s Witnesses p.48-53 for more extensive discussion.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 9:6 forbid executing criminals today?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Not at all. Genesis 9:6 both prohibits only murder, and commanded execution as punishment for murderers. Remember that Genesis was one of the books of Moses, and in the Exodus through Deuteronomy a number of crimes had a punishment by execution. See also the next question.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 9:6 speak of capital punishment?
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[FONT=&quot]A: It definitely speaks of capital punishment. It means execution and not mere physical death that happens to non-murderers and murderers equally.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.114-116 and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.31 for a discussion of the Hebrew.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9:12-13, does the rainbow as a sign of God’s covenant show that there were no rainbows before the flood?
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[FONT=&quot]A: It implies this but does not prove it. As Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.220-221 says, God using a sign does not automatically prove it did not exist before. For example, the rite of circumcision was practiced before Abraham by other peoples, including the Egyptians and Ethiopians (Herodotus in his History book 2 ch.104 p.69). It was practiced by the Egyptians according to Letter of Barnabas (100-<st1:metricconverter productid="150 A" w:st="on">150 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) ch.8 p.142.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9:20-21, how could a godly man like Noah get drunk?
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[FONT=&quot]A: First, the Bible does not hide the fact that people of God sin too. Second, with lower air pressure near the top of a mountain after the flood, it is easier to get drunk.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9:20-21, why is this sad story in the Bible of Noah getting drunk?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Bible not only shows us why it is important to do what is right, but it also provides real examples of consequences of doing wrong. Clement of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Alexandria</st1:place></st1:city> (193-217/220 A.D.) answers this very clearly. "Noah’s intoxication was recorded in writing, that, with the clear and written description of his transgression before us, we might guard with all our might against drunkenness." The Instructor book 2 ch.2 p.246.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9:21-25, was Genesis a scaled-down version of an original story where Ham castrated Noah to prevent him from having more sons, similar to the Greek myth of Chronos castrating his father Uranus as an atheist (Capella) suggested?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, there is no hint of castration, here. As for Greek culture, bear in mind that the only Greek culture during the time of Moses was the early Mycenean Greeks. Much of what we know of Greek mythology was after that time. For reference, the Trojan War of Homer was around 1200 B.C., some 450 years after the Exodus.
Therefore, probably no borrowing took place here. If one still insists that there was borrowing, the later has to borrow from the earlier, and the Greek story here likely was later than Moses.
See Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.221-222 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9:22 what was wrong with Ham seeing his father naked?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Sons should not freely broadcast their parent’s shortcomings, and Ham’s attitude was disrespectful in Genesis 9:22. Ham learned that his own son would be a reproach to him. Ham’s attitude was mocking according to Methodius (260-<st1:metricconverter productid="312 A" w:st="on">312 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) in Banquet of the Ten Virgins Discourse 10 ch.2 p.348 and Justin (138-<st1:metricconverter productid="165 A" w:st="on">165 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) Dialogue with Trypho ch.139 p.269.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9:22-23, what do you do if you are embarrassed by your parents?
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[FONT=&quot]A: First understand why you are embarrassed. Are your parents actually doing something morally wrong, is it a point where you are just being picky, or something in between. You must honor your parents (Exodus 20:12; Ephesians 6:2), but still you must not condone sin. You should obey your parents in the Lord (Ephesians 6:1). That means to obey them, but when they command something contrary to God, you have to obey God first.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9:22-23, what do you do if your children are embarrassed by you?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There are at least four ways they can be embarrassed:
1) because of a moral stand you are taking that is correct.
2) because of something relating to style, personal preference, or another morally neutral subject that is proper
3) Because of something you did wrong,
4) Because of something that was not wrong in itself, but is inconsiderate or not respectful of their feelings.
For the first reason, you can simply explain why you are taking your stand. For the second reason, you should not let what is good be spoken of as evil (Romans 14:16), but out of love you might accommodate them (Romans 14:14-15).
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9:22-23, how should we respond to the sin in others?
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[FONT=&quot]A: In all cases, we should not give the appearance of condoning the sin, but we can still love the sinner. We should not be in a situation where we are tempted ourselves. Besides that, there is a difference in whether the sinner is your child, your parent, a person older than you, a Christian, or an unbeliever.
Do not entertain an accusation against elders unless it is brought by two or three witnesses (1 Timothy 5:19).
Corporal punishment (spanking) can be used with your children, but not other people (Proverbs 22:15; Hebrews 12:7-11).
Do not rebuke an older man harshly (1 Timothy 5:1).
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9:24 should it say "younger" (NKJV) or "youngest"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: In Hebrew it can be either way according to Strong’s Concordance. Regardless, the meaning is that Ham was younger than Shem and Japheth.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9:25, why was Canaan, not Ham, cursed?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Ham learned that his descendants would be an example of sin’s consequences. The Expositor’s Bible Commentary volume 2 p.97 says that the Hebrew form of the verb is imperfect and not jussive, "so the sense is more likely that of prediction (‘He will be’) rather than a malediction (‘May he be’). 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.32 says the same. Thus Noah’s words anticipate a central theme of the following narratives - separation of the chosen seed from the seed of the Canaanites".
See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.86-87, Haley’s Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.84-86, Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.222-223, and Justin Martyr’s [wrote about 138-<st1:metricconverter productid="165 A" w:st="on">165 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.] Dialogue with Trypho chapter 139 p.268-269for more discussion.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 9:25-26, what was the curse of <st1:place w:st="on">Canaan</st1:place>?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis only says that the lowest of slaves will he be to his brothers. Note that the curse is not on Ham, but <st1:place w:st="on">Canaan</st1:place>. No Greek or Hebrew manuscript says it was Ham, only an Arabic translation says so. (According to the Origin of the Bible p.307, the first Arabic version of the Pentateuch was translated by Saadya Gaon, who lived from 892 to <st1:metricconverter productid="942 A" w:st="on">942 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.)
As Ham made Noah his father ashamed, <st1:place w:st="on">Canaan</st1:place> and his descendants would make Ham his father ashamed. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.116-118 for a more extensive answer.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10, who are these 68 peoples and 16 cities?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This is the most ancient ethnographic document we have preserved according to 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.32. Scholars believe they can identify 51 of the 68 peoples and archaeologists have found 11 of the 16 cities. <st1:city w:st="on">Sodom</st1:city> and <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Gomorrah</st1:place></st1:city> were so thoroughly destroyed they have never been found. However, the <st1:city w:st="on">Ebla</st1:city> tablets, written 2400-2250 B.C. mentions towns of Si-da-mu (<st1:city w:st="on">Sodom</st1:city>) and I-ma-ar (<st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Gomorrah</st1:place></st1:city>). Also, the Wycliffe Dictionary of Biblical Archaeology p.124 says that a sanctuary called Bab ed-Dra was found just south of the <st1:place w:st="on">Dead Sea</st1:place>. It was dated between 2800 and 1800 B.C.. See The NIV Study Bible, and The Bible Knowledge Commentary : Old Testament p.42-44 for more info.
Here are the peoples known or conjectured.

Japheth - Greeks said their ancestor was Japetos
|->Gomer - Gimirra/Assyrian Cimmerian/Greek
| |->Ashkenaz - As-gu-za-a/Assyrian = Scythians
| |->Riphath - ? lived in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Russia</st1:place></st1:country-region>?
| |->Togarmah - Either the town of <st1:city w:st="on">Tegarama</st1:city> in
| <st1:place w:st="on">Asia Minor</st1:place>, the ancestors of the Armenians,
| or both.
|->Magog - Scythians? according to Josephus
|->Madai - Medes
|->Javan - Ionian Greeks
| |->Elishah - Aeolians? according to Josephus
| |->Tarshish - city in Asia Minor or else Spain
| |->Kittim - Cyprus
| |->Dodanim/Rodanim - Isle of Rhodes
|->Tubal - Tabali people in Cappadocia
|->Meshech - Mushki/Assyrian originally between
| Cilicia and the Caspian Sea
|->Tiras - possibly the Thrusa (=Tw-r’w-s3), who invaded Egypt in 1250 B.C.
Ham
- No tribe, only descendants
|->Cush - Sudanese (Cush in ancient times)
| |->Seba - Northern Ethiopia. The name of the
| | place probably came from Sabean colonists
| | who came later.
| |->Havilah - Either near <st1:placename w:st="on">Indus</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">River</st1:placetype> in
| | <st1:country-region w:st="on">Pakistan</st1:country-region>, or else near <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sheba</st1:place></st1:country-region> and Hadramaut
| |->Sabtah - ? probably lived north of <st1:country-region w:st="on">Sheba</st1:country-region>
| |->Raamah - Probably the Rhammanites in SW
| | | Arabia (Strabo 16.4.24)
| | |-><st1:country-region w:st="on">Sheba</st1:country-region> - <st1:country-region w:st="on">Sheba</st1:country-region> in the SW corner of the
| | | Arabian Peninsula
| | |->Dedan - NW of the <st1:place w:st="on">Persian Gulf</st1:place>.
| | Mentioned by Chaldeans and Assyrians
| |->Sabteca - ? not otherwise known
|->Mizraim - <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>
| |->Ludites - ? not otherwise known
| |->Anamites - ? known only in 1 Chr 1:11
| |->Lehabites - The Rbw/Libu were a hostile
| | tribe west of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>
| |->Naphtuhites - ? not otherwise known
| |->Pathrusites - Pathros was southern <st1:country-region w:st="on">Egypt</st1:country-region>
| |->Casluhites - Philistines came from these
| |->Caphtorites - Crete / <st1:placename w:st="on">Aegean</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">Islands</st1:placetype>
| | (Akkadian/Mari/Ugarit/Egypt)
|->Put - <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Libya</st1:place></st1:country-region> according to Babylonian and Persian records.
|->Canaan - Canaanites
| |-><st1:city w:st="on">Sidon</st1:city> - Phoenician city
| |->Hittites - Lived just north of <st1:city w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:city>
| |->Jebusites - lived in <st1:city w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:city>
| |->Amorites - Lived in <st1:place w:st="on">Canaan</st1:place>. Amurru in
| | Akkadian means westerner
| |->Girgashites - Lived in Canaan, probably the
| | Qirkishites/Assyrian
| |->Hivites - Lived near <st1:city w:st="on">Tyre</st1:city>, <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sidon</st1:place></st1:city>, and Shechem. Solomon used them in building the temple
| |->Arkites - Port of ‘Arqah in north <st1:country-region w:st="on">Syria</st1:country-region>
| |->Sinites - Northern Canaanite <st1:placetype w:st="on">port</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Siannu</st1:placename>
| |->Arvadites - north <st1:placename w:st="on">Phoenician</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">City</st1:placetype> of Arvad
| |->Zemarites - Canaanite city of Simura 6
| | miles south of Arvad
| |->Hamathites - One of the oldest Syrian cities
Shem
- probably <st1:country-region w:st="on">Sumer</st1:country-region>
|-><st1:country-region w:st="on">Elam</st1:country-region> - Elamites, capital was <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Susa</st1:place></st1:city>
|->Asshur - First Assyrian capital
|->Arphaxad - ? Ptolemy mentioned Arrapachitis region between the lakes Van and Urmia
| |->Shelah - No tribe known, only descendants
| | |->Eber - No tribe known, only descendants
| | |->Peleg - No tribe known, only descendants
| | |->Joktan - many Arabian tribes, or else the
| | | South Arabian tribe of Qahtan (al-Tabari
| | | vol.6 p.xxii; vol.20 p.xv)
| | | |->Almodad - possibly? a southern Arab tribe
| | | |->Sheleph - A Yemenite southern Arab tribe
| | | |->Hazarmaveth - Hadrumaut in <st1:place w:st="on">Arabia</st1:place>
| | | |->Jerah - Presumably an Arabian tribe?
| | | |->Hadoram - ? not otherwise known
| | | |->Uzal - ? not otherwise known.
| | | | However, Uzal/Auzal was an ancient
| | | | name of Sa’na in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Yemen</st1:place></st1:country-region>.
| | | |->Diklah - means "palm grove". They
| | | | might? have settled at Wadi Sirhan,
| | | | c.250 miles southeast of the <st1:place w:st="on">Dead Sea</st1:place>.
| | | |->Obal - unknown outside of 1 Chr 1:22
| | | |->Abimael - ? not otherwise known
| | | |-><st1:country-region w:st="on">Sheba</st1:country-region> - Sabeans in south Arabia
| | | |->Ophir - Possibly Somalia or SW
| | | | <st1:place w:st="on">Arabia</st1:place>. Josephus and Jerome thought
| | | | it was <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">India</st1:place></st1:country-region>.
| | | |->Havilah - Probably central <st1:place w:st="on">Arabia</st1:place>
| | | |->Jobab - ? not otherwise known
|->Lud - Either the Lydians, or else the land of
| Lubdi between the upper Tigris and Euphrates
|-><st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Aram</st1:place></st1:country-region> - Arameans of Syria
|->Uz - Ausitai tribe? lived west of the <st1:place w:st="on">Euphrates</st1:place>
|->Hul - ? not otherwise known
|->Gether - ? not otherwise known
|->Mash/Meshech - ? Either the Syro-Arabian Desert of Mash known to the Assyrians, the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placename w:st="on">Lebanese</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">Mt.</st1:placetype></st1:place> Masius, or Meshech was a mingling of two ancestries
See the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary and The New International Dictionary of the Bible for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10, why are Indians and Chinese are not mentioned in the table of nations?
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[FONT=&quot]A: First what is not the answer, and then the answer.
Not the answer: While Sinites are mentioned, these are probably not Chinese but from the Canaanite port of Siannu in northern <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Syria</st1:place></st1:country-region>. Josephus and Jerome thought Ophir was <st1:country-region w:st="on">India</st1:country-region>, but it is more probably <st1:place w:st="on">Africa</st1:place>.
The answer: All came from Adam, as all were cursed with Adam’s nature. Genesis makes no claim of listing every people, and of the hundreds of peoples, Genesis only mentions the nations most Israelites would recognize. See Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.224-226 for a more extensive answer.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10, are the Sumerians of <st1:place w:st="on">Mesopotamia</st1:place> mentioned?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes, they probably are, as "Shem". The <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">land</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Sumer</st1:placename></st1:place>, was often pronounced without the "r", and Sum could easily become Shem. For scholarly support of this, refer to The Sumerians by Samuel Noah Kramer p.297-298. Kramer also cites American Journal of Semitic Languages vol.58 [1941] p.20-26.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:2, who were the Gomer people?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.710 says these were the people called "Gimirra" by the Assyrians and Cimmerians by the Greeks. Gomer lived in the <st1:country-region w:st="on">Ukraine</st1:country-region> and southern <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Russia</st1:place></st1:country-region>. See the New International Dictionary of the Bible p.395 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:2 why are the Medes (Madai) mentioned, since these people were not mentioned anywhere else until 836 B.C. in the Shalmaneser III text?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Shalmaneser III text was after Moses’ time of 1407 B.C., but silence in preserved early writings does not prove non-existence. The Assyrians only noted when they fought and traded with the Medes for horses. According to Persia and the Bible p.35 "I.M. Diakonoff believes that the arrival of the Indo-Iranian tribes on the Iranian plateau took place in the first half of the second millennium B.C. [2000-1500 B.C.]. But the earliest archaeological evidence of newcomers seems to date to the early part of the second half of the second millennium B.C. [1500-1300 B.C.].
In contrast to this, the mighty Minni people were mentioned in Jeremiah 51:27. However, the Minni only go back as far as 1200 B.C., and the Minni are not mentioned in Genesis, because Genesis was written earlier.
In summary, archaeology supports the Medes existing in Moses’ time. See Persia and the Bible p.33-50 for more information.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:2, who were the Javan people?
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[FONT=&quot]A: They are the Ionian Greeks. In Hebrew this was yawan which is equated to the Greek iaones or iawones in Homer’s Illiad 8.685, and yamanu in inscriptions of Sargon II and Darius I. Ionians are mentioned in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> from the time of Rameses II (c.1300 B.C.). Isaiah 66:19 and Ezekiel mention them, and the Septuagint translation translates this as "<st1:place w:st="on">Hellas</st1:place>".
See the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.885 and the New Bible Dictionary (Eerdmans’ 1962) p.600 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:2, who were the Tubal people?
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[FONT=&quot]A: They were called the Tabal (or Tabali) by the Assyrians and lived in modern-day <st1:country-region w:st="on">Turkey</st1:country-region> in the region of <st1:place w:st="on">Cappadocia</st1:place>. The Greek historian Herodotus knew of them as the Tibarenoi. They are mentioned in Ezekiel 27:13; 28:2-3; 39:1, and Isaiah 66:19.
The Assyrian king Shalmaneser III (859-824 B.C.) received tribute from the 24 kings of Tubal. The Assyrians dethroned the king of Tubal in 732 B.C. Sargon mentions that precious metal containers came from Tubal. Sargon also crushed a revolt by Tubal, the Mushki (Meshech) and Ararat. See the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.1751 and the New Bible Dictionary (Eerdmans’ 1962) p.811 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:2, who were the Meshech people?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Assyrians first mentioned as the "Mus-ka-a-ia" as having an army of 20,000 during the time of Tiglath-pileser I (c. 1100 B.C.). They are also mentioned under Shalmaneser III (859-824 B.C.). The Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.1105-1106 also says they originally lived between Cilicia and the Caspian Sea, but in the time of Sargon II (722-705 B.C.) they lived in the region of Phrygia in modern-day <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Turkey</st1:place></st1:country-region>. Herodotus 3:94 lists them as the "Moschoi", who comprised one of the 19 satrapies of Darius.
The New Bible Dictionary (Eerdmans’ 1962) p.811 also says they are equated with the Phrygians.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:2, who were the Tiras people?
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[FONT=&quot]A: We do not know much about the Tiras. While Josephus claims the Thracians came from them, people today think they were the Tursenich/Tyrsenians, who were pirates. The Egyptians mention a "Thrusa" (Tw-rw-s3) people invading <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> around 1250 B.C. The apocryphal Book of Jubilees says the Tiras lived on four islands. See the New International Dictionary of the Bible p.1019 and the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.1716 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:3, where was Togarmah?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Togarmah was about <st1:metricconverter productid="70 miles" w:st="on">70 miles</st1:metricconverter> (<st1:metricconverter productid="113 km" w:st="on">113 km</st1:metricconverter>) west of the town of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Malatya</st1:place></st1:city>. The Hittites called it Tegarama. The Assyrians called it Tilgarimanu, and they conquered it in 695 B.C. The Greeks called it Gauraena. The Armenians claim they descended from Haik, a son of Torgom, so they might be descendants of Togarmah. See the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.1721 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:5,20,31, since there were different tongues, why did all the earth have one speech in Gen 11:1?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 10 is an overview, and Genesis 11 speaks of one event within Genesis 10. Genesis 10:5 says, "from these...", 10:18 "Later...". These imply that Genesis 10 says how the descendants later spread. Genesis 11:1 talks of the event of the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">tower</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Babel</st1:placename></st1:place>, that occurred prior to the spreading out of people. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.87-88 and When Critics Ask p.44-45 for more info.
A curious clay tablet fragment in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Babylon</st1:place></st1:city> tells of one temple that the offended the gods. They destroyed it in one night and scattered the people with strange speech. See Can Archaeology Prove the Old Testament? p.25-26 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:6,13, 1 Chr 1:8,11 why is <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> not mentioned among these nations? (A Christian puzzled over this)
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[FONT=&quot]A: It is mentioned. The Hebrew word for <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> is Mizraim.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:8-12, were the deeds of Nimrod an amalgamation of the feats of Lugal-Zaggasi, Sargon of <st1:place w:st="on">Agade</st1:place>, Hammurabi, and Shalmaneser I, as Asimov’s Guide to the Bible says (p.52)?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. While we do not know much about these ancient Sumerian kings except for the tens of thousands of Sumerian tablets that have been preserved, the similarities between those conquerors and Nimrod are remote. The Bible simply mentions that Nimrod was a mighty hunter before the Lord, that Nimrod’s career began in four cities in <st1:country-region w:st="on">Shinar</st1:country-region> (<st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sumer</st1:place></st1:country-region>), and later he went into Assyrian built four closely spaced cities there, which later became very influential. The Bible does not say anything else about Nimrod, so it is hard to make a comparison. Nimrod could not have been Hammurabi, because Hammurabi (1803/1793-1760/1750 B.C.) lived long after Abraham. Nimrod might in fact be a Biblical reference to Sargon, except that we know too little about both Sargon and Nimrod to say.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:9, was Nimrod a good hunter "before the Lord", or an ungodly predator "in defiance of the Lord"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Probably the best translation of the Hebrew word here paniym is "before". Like the English word "before", paniym is used in many contexts. For example, a leader could be before the congregation in Joshua 20:6,9, <st1:country-region w:st="on">Israel</st1:country-region> was defeated before the Philistines in 1 Samuel 4:2, and <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region> fled before the Philistines 1 Samuel 4:17.
In this case, paniym probably means an ungodly description, as in "fighting before" This name is related to the Hebrew word marad for meaning "to rebel" (The Bible Knowledge Commentary : Old Testament p.42) or "we shall rebel" according to the New Geneva Study Bible p.25. After the <st1:placetype w:st="on">tower</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Babel</st1:placename>, Nimrod built the city of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Babylon</st1:place></st1:city> in defiance of the Lord.
Nimrod being a "mighty hunter before the Lord" is a negative ungodly connotation for Nimrod according to The Believer’s Bible Commentary p.45-46, Unger’s Bible Dictionary p.794,
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:9, exactly what ethnic group was Nimrod/Nimrud?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There are three possibilities.
Assyria is called the <st1:placetype w:st="on">land</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Nimrud</st1:placename> in Micah 5:6, the city of <st1:city w:st="on">Calah</st1:city> is also called <st1:city w:st="on">Nimrud</st1:city>, and the Babylonian city of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Borsippa</st1:place></st1:city> is also called Birs Nimrud.
Descendent of Kassites of Kish, who lived in Mesopotamia and ruled <st1:city w:st="on">Babylon</st1:city> c.3200 B.C., and Genesis 10:8 said that <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Cush</st1:place></st1:country-region> was the father of Nimrod. Nin-Maradda is a non-Semitic name of a town southwest of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Kish</st1:place></st1:city>, according to Unger’s Bible Dictionary p.794. This view is also compatible with the first view.
Ubaidians were very early (c.3800-3500 B.C.) non-Semite inhabitants of Sumeria and <st1:place w:st="on">Mesopotamia</st1:place> before the Sumerians who came from the south. Genesis 10:8-10 indicates Nimrod was first in Babylonia, and then went north to <st1:place w:st="on">Assyria</st1:place>. We know very little about the Ubaidians, but with a connection to Ham they might have been related to the darker-skinned Harappan people of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">India</st1:place></st1:country-region>. See the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.1207-1208 for more on this view.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:11 (KJV), should it say, "Out of that land went forth [the person] Asshur"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: It should say, "Out of that land he [Nimrod] went to [the place] Asshur". This is essentially the meanings translated in the NIV, NKJV, uNASB., and .NET Bible
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:22, how do you pronounce "Arphaxad"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Cruden’s Concordance and the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary say it is pronounced as "ar-FAKS’-ad" with the accent on the second syllable and no long vowels. While we do not know for sure if this was a tribe or just a collection of descendants, Ptolemy in his history (chapter 6:1-2) mentioned a region called Arrapachitis which was between Lake Van and Lake Urmiah in Armenia. See the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.155 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 10:22 and Gen 22:21, was Aram supposedly born twice, as the skeptical Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.88 says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, but there are two possible answers:
Multiple individuals: There were not just two, but three individuals in the Bible named <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Aram</st1:place></st1:country-region>.
1. Genesis 10:22 says Aram Syria was a descendent of Shem. (The Hebrew is the same for son and descendent, just as the Hebrew is the same for father and ancestor.)
2. Genesis 22:21 mentions <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Aram</st1:place></st1:country-region>, who was descended from Kemuel (nephew of Abraham), who was from Nahor, who was from Terah, who was descended from Shem.
3. Much later in 1 Chronicles 7:34 there was an <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Aram</st1:place></st1:country-region> son of Shamer of the tribe of Asher.
The Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.122 and The New International Dictionary of the Bible p.74 also mention three people.
One individual: Note that the two <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Arams</st1:place></st1:country-region> in Genesis 10:22 and 22:21 are both descendents of Shem. So they could in fact be one individual, with the Table of Nations mentioning Shem as an ancestor of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Aram</st1:place></st1:country-region>.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11, did men have such a "low" concept of heaven that men could try to build the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">tower</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Babel</st1:placename></st1:place> up to it?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This was not the view of Moses, but of the people building the tower. Genesis 11 records, without endorsement, some of men’s foolish ideas. Of course, what is a foolish idea for the masses could be shrewd for the priests to ensure the people held them in awe.
The NIV Study Bible p.23 lists other pyramids/ziggurats archaeologists have found with similar pretentious titles.
Larsa: House of the Link between Heaven and Earth
Borshippa: House of the Seven Guides of Heaven and Earth
Asshur: House of the Mountain of the Universe
Babylon: House of the Foundation-Platform of Heaven and Earth
The Bible Knowledge Commentary : Old Testament (p.44) notes the Babylonian Enuma Elish VI lines 55-64 said Babylon was built by the gods in heaven as a celestial city. Babili means "the gate of God."
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11, what was sinful about building the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Tower</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Babel</st1:placename></st1:place>?
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[FONT=&quot]A: It was not the construction of a building, but the arrogant motivation of (foolishly) thinking they could ascend to Heaven on their own. At the core of much of idolatry is the belief that people should be religious however they want, in "their own way", instead of seeking the One True God. God’s reaction does not seem to be one of punishment but rather preventing them from additional evil. Wise parents do not want their children to totally ignore the law and their own commands, and God does not want people, whom He created, to do that either.
See Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.226-229 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11, what do we know about the Sumerian language?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Sumerian was written in cuneiform, and it is not an Indo-European language. It has some similarities to Turkish, Hungarian, and some languages of the <st1:place w:st="on">Caucasus Mountains</st1:place>. Scholars can read Sumerian today, and they know how the words were pronounced. Sumerian had no f, i, j, th, soft ch, v, w, or umlaut sounds. They had an "ng" (like Cantonese and Vietnamese), and they did not have inflections at the end of words like most Indo-European languages. There were also a number of Sumerian dialects. Just like there were ancient versions of English and Chinese, the Encyclopedia Britannica mentions there were four periods of Sumerian: archaic, classical, new, and post-Sumerian. Abraham lived at a time when they spoke "New Sumerian".
Hebrew came in part, from Sumerian. Like Sumerian, Hebrew had no "j" sound. Read The Sumerians by Noah Kramer especially p.306-307 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Was Gen 11 out of sequence?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, nothing indicates it was out of sequence. Think about it. If all mankind were wiped out except for 8 people who were related by blood or marriage, it is very likely they all spoke the same language. However, somewhere along the line, people would start speaking different languages, and that would happen about the time they became geographically isolated. As an interesting sidenote, non-religious linguists think they can trace all Indo-European languages (from Celtic tongues to German, to Greek to even Sanskrit), to a common origin, which they think was spoken in the <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ukraine</st1:place></st1:country-region> about 4,000 B.C.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11:1-9, why was there one language before <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Babel</st1:place></st1:city>, since Gen 10:5,20,31 says there were many languages that began after the flood?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Both are true, because Genesis 10 tells how the tribes propagated both before and after <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Babel</st1:place></st1:city>. Three points to consider in the answer.
Genesis 10:5 states it is telling how the Sea peoples "spread out into their territories". This spreading out occurred after <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Babel</st1:place></st1:city>.
Genesis 10:20 likewise states it is referring to the territories of the sons of Ham, and the Hamites moving to their territories would be after the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">tower</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Babel</st1:placename></st1:place>.
Genesis 10:31 is almost identical to Genesis 10:20, except that it refers to the sons of Shem.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.118 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11:5 and Gen 18:21, since God is everywhere, how did "the Lord came down to see the city..."?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This is an expression to communicate that God took special notice of the city. See When Critics Ask p.45 for more info, and Now That’s A Good Question p.20-22 for a different answer.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11:7, as far as we know, were early beliefs always polytheists with monotheism being a later development, as the skeptical Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.18 says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. As far as we know from history, the early Chinese religion was monotheistic, as well as some other southeast Asian cultures. The early Chinese name for this monotheistic God was Shang-di, which is used for God in Chinese Bibles today.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11:7-9, was the confusion of tongues at the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">tower</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Babel</st1:placename></st1:place> copied from the Greek story of Aloadae?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Origen (230-<st1:metricconverter productid="254 A" w:st="on">254 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) investigated this in Origen Against Celsus book 4 ch.21 p.505 and concluded it could not be because:
a) No Greek person was known to him (or us) that had heard of this prior to Homer.
b) Homer lived centuries after Moses.
By the way, there are conflicting dates about when Homer lived. The ancient Greek historian Aristarchus says 1044 B.C., authorities in Philostratus says 1159 B.C., and pseudo-Herodotus The Life of Homer puts it as 1102 B.C.. In contrast to that the historian Theopompus said Homer lived as late as 685 B.C.. Herodotus says it was not earlier than about 730 B.C.. The Exodus was about 1447 B.C. See The Encyclopaedia Britannica under Homer for more info.
Theophilus to Autolycus (168-181/188 A.D.) book 3 ch.20 p.117 also points out that "Moses and his followers are proved to be 900 or even 1000 years prior to the Trojan War." However, it is actually a little over 400 years after, not 900 to 1000 years after.
Conclusion: Either the Greeks picked up the story from the earlier Hebrews, the Greeks picked up the story from somewhere else outside of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Greece</st1:place></st1:country-region>, or the Greek and Bible accounts are based on the same event.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11:9, was deriving the name "<st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Babel</st1:place></st1:city>" from the Hebrew word balal meaning "mixed, confused, or confounded" false, because the in Babylonian Bab-ilu means "gate of God", as the skeptical Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.55 says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. Asimov assumes that <st1:city w:st="on">Babel</st1:city> is on the site of the city of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Babylon</st1:place></st1:city>. The Bible does not say the Babylonians or Sumerians said it was because the languages were mixed, confused, or confounded. Rather, Genesis was saying that wherever <st1:city w:st="on">Babel</st1:city> was, the people afterwards, (including the Hebrews who read Genesis), could call it <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Babel</st1:place></st1:city> because the languages were confused there.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11:11, how old was Shem when the flood came?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Here is what one can observe from the scriptures, and then the conclusion:
Genesis 11:11 says that Shem was 100 years old two years after the flood.
Genesis 5:32 says that Ham, Shem, and Japheth were born when Noah was 500 years old.
Genesis 7:6 says that Noah was 600 years old when the flood came on the earth.
Nothing in scripture indicates that Ham, Shem, and Japheth were triplets. Genesis 7:6 was a round number; the three were born, probably one at a time, when Noah was approximately 500-600 years old.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11:18-24, is there any extra-Biblical record of Reu, Serug, and Nahor?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No one can expect that we have we have an independent record of every individual. However, in this case we probably do have an independent record. The Assyrian chronicles record villages in modern <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Syria</st1:place></st1:country-region> named Paligg, Reu, and Sarugi, and Nakhur. The Mari records also mention Nakhur.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11:22, how do you pronounce "Nahor"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Cruden’s Concordance and the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary both say it is pronounced as NA-hor with a long "a" and the accent on the first syllable.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11:24, how do you pronounce "Terah"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Cruden’s Concordance says it is pronounced as TAR-a with no long vowels and the accent on the first syllable. The Wycliffe Bible Dictionary and Harper’s Bible Dictionary say the "e" is long, and the accent is also on the first syllable.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11:27 and Gen 17:5, what is the etymology (origin) of the names "Abram" and "Abraham"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: According to the New Bible Dictionary (1962) p.5, and the KJV footnote, the origin of the name is uncertain. It is a West Semitic name, and probably means "the father is exalted" or "exalted father". The name "Abraham" means, "father of multitudes" or "father of a multitude".
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 11:27 teach that Abram, Nahor, and <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Haran</st1:place></st1:city> were born in any specific order?
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[FONT=&quot]A: While some mistakenly think a list in the Bible always implies who was born first, that is not true. For example, in 1 Chronicles 3:15, Zedekiah was listed as Josiah’s third son, and Shallum/Jehoahaz was list as fourth. Yet when Jehoahaz became king in 609 B.C., he was 23 years old, and Zedekiah was only ten years old. For another example, Ham is mentioned before Shem and Japheth, yet Genesis 9:24 shows that Ham was younger. Thus if the Bible gives a list without saying they are in order, we should not try to read in to the Bible what is not there.
In this particular case, since Abram was 75 when he left <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Haran</st1:place></st1:city> after Terah died (Genesis 12:4), and Terah died at 205 years (Genesis 11:32), Abram was not the son who was born when Terah was 70. Abram was not born until Terah was at least 130.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11:28, was Abram from the city of Ur, or was he from the town of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Haran</st1:place></st1:city> in Gen 24:4?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Abram was originally from <st1:city w:st="on">Ur</st1:city> of the Chaldeans in southern Mesopotamia, but prior to coming to Canaan, Abram and his relatives first settled in the town of <st1:city w:st="on">Haran</st1:city> in modern-day <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Syria</st1:place></st1:country-region>. See When Critics Ask p.35, 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.33-34 and Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.88-89 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Why does Gen 11:28 mention <st1:city w:st="on">Ur</st1:city> of the Chaldeans, since <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city> was a Sumerian city?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Chaldeans and Sumerians of Iraq were assimilated in Moses’ time, and Moses mentioned the land of modern-day <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Iraq</st1:place></st1:country-region> as it was known in Moses’ time. Also, <st1:city w:st="on">Ebla</st1:city> documents mention a town called Uru which was in Padan <st1:country-region w:st="on">Aram</st1:country-region> (modern <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Syria</st1:place></st1:country-region>). So just to be sure there was no mistake, instead of just saying "<st1:city w:st="on">Ur</st1:city>", it said "<st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city> of the Chaldeans". See 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.32 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11:28, could Abraham have left from another city named <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city>?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. There was a city near <st1:city w:st="on">Haran</st1:city> called Ur/Urfa (modern day <st1:city w:st="on">Edessa</st1:city>), a Hittite town called Ura in Northeast Anatolia / <st1:country-region w:st="on">Armenia</st1:country-region>, and a Hittite seaport also called Ura near <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Tarsus</st1:place></st1:city>. However, these towns are first mentioned 500 years after Abraham. See the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.1761 and the Wycliffe Dictionary of Biblical Archaeology p.602,603 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11:28, what do we know about the Mesopotamian city <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city> apart from the Bible?
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[FONT=&quot]A: We know much about <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city>, thanks to extensive excavations. The city was probably the largest in the world at that time, with a population of estimated at 180,000, 200,000, and 300,000. It was oval shaped, and the mound is <st1:metricconverter productid="3000 ft" w:st="on">3000 ft</st1:metricconverter> long by <st1:metricconverter productid="800 feet" w:st="on">800 feet</st1:metricconverter> wide. It had a three-stage Ziggurat, <st1:metricconverter productid="70 foot" w:st="on">70 foot</st1:metricconverter> above the plan. The walls were <st1:metricconverter productid="30 feet" w:st="on">30 feet</st1:metricconverter> high. It was a wealthy city, with spectacular artwork. The people of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city> were relatively sophisticated, with a mathematical text showing cube roots.
Geography: <st1:city w:st="on">Ur</st1:city> had the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placename w:st="on">Euphrates</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">River</st1:placetype></st1:place> on one side, and canals on the other sides. The land was somewhat alkaline, but great for wheat and barley with irrigation. There were about 50 kinds of fish in the Tigris and <st1:place w:st="on">Euphrates</st1:place> rivers. There were no trees around, so they imported wood from <st1:metricconverter productid="400 miles" w:st="on">400 miles</st1:metricconverter> away.
Civilization: About 40% of all grain was used to make beer. A board game was found. The had one and two story mud brick houses, and unpaved streets. Often a family tomb was beneath the house.
Literature: The first Sumerian writing was about 3,200 B.C., 1,200 years before Abraham. 100,000 tablets have been recovered from <st1:city w:st="on">Ur</st1:city>, Umma, <st1:city w:st="on">Lagash</st1:city>, Puzrish-Dagan, and <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Nippur</st1:place></st1:city>.
Science: A mathematical tablet of cube roots was found. They did not have a decimal system, but instead used 1, 10, 60, 600, 3600, 36,000 etc. A relic of this is that we divide circles into 360 degrees. Their calendar had 360 days, and they practiced astrology. The main Ziggurat was very well built.
<st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Temples</st1:place></st1:city>: The main Ziggurat was to the moon god (not goddess) named Nanna/Nannar in Sumerian, and Sin in Akkadian/Semitic. The main Ziggurat had three tiers. The lowest, 210 by 140 by 20 feetwas built by Ur-Nammu and Dungi. Ur-Nammu lived around the time of Abraham. Nabonidus (c.560 B.C.), built the second tier, and a small building was the third tier. There were temples to E-num-mah, Nirgal/Ningal (Nanna’s wife), and the shrine of Nannar.
History: The first Dynasty of Ur (2600-2500 B.C.) had kings named Mesanepada and Aanepada. The Gutians conquered <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city> and ruled it from 2150-2070 B.C. until Ur-Nammu threw them off and started the Third Dynasty of Ur. The people of <st1:city w:st="on">Ur</st1:city> sacked <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Susa</st1:place></st1:city>, the Elamite capital about 50 years later. Abraham left <st1:city w:st="on">Ur</st1:city> before 2000 B.C., when <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city> might have looked like one of the safest places to live. In 2004 B.C. (some say 1950 B.C.) the Elamites sacked <st1:city w:st="on">Ur</st1:city>, and the city of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city> never regained its prior prominence. So if Abraham had disobeyed God and stayed in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city>, either he or his descendants would probably have been enslaved or killed.
See The Sumerians, TimeFrame 3000-1500 B.C: The Age of the God-Kings, Encyclopaedia Britannica (1956) vol.22 p.885, Unger’s Bible Dictionary p.1126-1127, The Anchor Bible Dictionary vol.6 p.766-767, 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.34, the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.1758-1760, the Wycliffe Dictionary of Biblical Archaeology p.596-604 The New International Dictionary of the Bible p.1045-1046 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 11:31, did Abram leave for Canaan from <st1:city w:st="on">Ur</st1:city>, or from <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Haran</st1:place></st1:city> as Gen 12:5 says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 12 does not say Abram was in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Haran</st1:place></st1:city> when God called him. There is no mention that Genesis 11:31 is chronologically before Genesis 12. Many modern biographies are strictly chronological, but there is no requirement that they be so, and often it is was not strictly chronological in the Old Testament and the Gospels. We can only be sure it was intended to be in chronological order when the writer makes a claim that it is in chronological order. Genesis 24:4 dos not say "land of by birthplace" in Hebrew, but rather "my country", meaning where Abram lived for a while and where his closest relatives still lived.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 12:1, 28:10-15; 32:22-32, why did God choose the Jews instead of the Chinese or someone else?
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[FONT=&quot]A: First of all, God has the right to choose whomever He wishes. Here God did not choose a people, but rather one man: Abraham. Later the covenant and offspring were reckoned through Isaac in Genesis 17:21 and 21:12. Later Jacob was chosen in Genesis 26:23-24. Abraham was willing to leave his culture and city (<st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city>), which was probably the largest city (100,000 to 180,000 population) and most civilized city on the earth at that time. Many people have some desire to do what is right, but fewer wealthy men would be willing to sacrifice their ties to their culture and religion to follow God above all, even to a place he did not know (Hebrews 11:8).
Today, Romans 10:12 and Galatians 3:24 teach there is no difference to God between believers who are Jewish and non-Jewish. See 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.171 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 12:1, is there any evidence, outside of the Bible, of the true God revealing Himself to anyone else in Abraham’s time, or before?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes. First two background facts from the Bible, and then the answer.
B1. In Genesis 14:18-20, Melchizedek was a king of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Salem</st1:place></st1:city> and a priest of the Most High God, whom he called El Elyon. However, we will not count Melchizedek as he is only mentioned in the Bible, and Melchizedek could have been a pre-incarnate appearance of Christ.
B2. In Genesis 24:50, Abram’s relatives in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Syria</st1:place></st1:country-region> (among the Arameans) believed in the Lord.
The answer:
A1.
Ugaritic texts (from the culture that was in modern-day Syria and Lebanon), also mention, a personal God named "El", and used the phrase "El Elyon" for God most high, as Melchizedek did. Unfortunately, for the Ugaritic culture, syncretism was at work and they eventually only worshipped "El" as one god among many.
A2. In <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">China</st1:place></st1:country-region> prior to Buddhism coming just after Christ, and prior to Confucianism and Taoism a few hundred years before Christ, they worshipped a number of idols. However prior to that, they worshipped one Supreme God, whom they called Shang-di. The earliest written references to Shang-di in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">China</st1:place></st1:country-region> are dated at 2600 B.C., which are about 400-500 years prior to Abraham! Unfortunately, during the Zhou Dynasty, about 1000 B.C, they decided that nobody was good enough to worship Shang-di except the Emperor, and worship of Shang-di among the masses died out. A few centuries ago, Christians in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">China</st1:place></st1:country-region> disagreed greatly about whether the Chinese Bible should always use the generic term for deity Sheng, or also use the ancient word Shang-di. The latter party prevailed, and Chinese Bibles use Shang-di as well as Sheng.
The Chinese Emperor worshipped Shang-di by sacrificing a bull on a white marble altar during the "Border Sacrifice" which was recorded by Confucius in the Shu Jing (Book of History), where he said Emperor Shun (2256-2205 B.C.) practiced it. It stopped in <st1:metricconverter productid="1911 A" w:st="on">1911 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.. Here is part of what was said during the sacrifice
"Of old in the beginning, there was the great chaos, without form and dark. The five elements [planets] had not begun to revolve, nor the sun and moon to shine. You, O Spiritual Sovereign, first divided the grosser parts from the purer. You made heaven. You made earth. You made man. All things with their reproducing power got their being." For more info on Shang-di, see an article by Ethel Nelson in Creation ex Nihilo vol.20 no.3 June-August 1998 p.50-53. See also The Notions of the Chinese Concerning God and Spirits p.24-25 by James Legge (Hong Kong Register Office 1852), and God’s Promise to the Chinese (Read Books, 1997).
Koreans have a similar ancient tradition of a Shang-di, whom they call Hananim. An ancient Korean Tan-gun tradition said that Hananim had a son who desired to live among people. You can read more about Shang-di, Hananim, and other early revelations that were apparently of the true God in the book Eternity in Their Hearts.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 12:1-3,7, how did God keep His promises to Abraham?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God kept them unconditionally, regardless of what Abraham did.
God made Abraham into a great nation. Actually Abraham was the ancestor of both the Israelites and many of the Arabs. (Genesis 12:2)
God would bless Abraham. Abraham lived and died a very wealthy man, as well as having many descendants. (Genesis 12:2)
God made Abraham’s name great. His name is in high regard wherever Christians, Jews, and Muslims are found. (Genesis 12:2)
God will bless those who bless Abraham, and curse those who curse Abraham. Countries that welcomed Jews have seen a great blessing, and those that cursed them, such as Nazi Germany have suffered greatly. (Genesis 12:3)
Abraham’s offspring have had the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">land</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Palestine</st1:placename></st1:place>. (Genesis 12:7)
See 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.34-35 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 12:1-5 is God speaking to Abram here, or is this a duplicate of when God spoke to Abram in Gen 12:4b-9?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This is not a doublet. In Genesis 12:1-4a God commanded Abram to do something without saying whether or not Abram did it. Genesis 12:4b-9 tells us that Abram did what God said, except that Abram took <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place> also.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 12, could Abraham have written what the Mormons view as scripture, called The Book of Abraham?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. First some background on the Mormon "Book of Abraham", and the importance of the fraud, and then proof that it is a fraud. This material was taken from previously written material on Mormonism.
Background:
The Mormon Book of Abraham is a part of the Mormon Scripture the Pearl of Great Price. It is the basis for the Mormon anti-black doctrine, that kept blacks from ever getting the Mormon priesthood. The anti-black doctrine was altered (by the Mormon god?) in 1978.
The Mormon Book of Abraham was written from ancient Egyptian scrolls Joseph Smith obtained in July 1835, which he stated contained the writings of Abraham and Joseph. He did not know ancient Egyptian, which few could read at that time. He proclaimed that God divinely inspired him to translate some of these scrolls into English, and this is how the Mormon Book of Abraham came to be.
These Egyptian scrolls were once thought lost and destroyed, but eleven of them were found in the <st1:placename w:st="on">Metropolitan</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">Museum</st1:placetype> in <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">New York</st1:place></st1:state> and given to the Mormon church in 1868.
Importance of the fraud:
The Book of Mormon was said to be translated from the same language as the Book of Abraham. If Joseph Smith could not translate the one then he did not translate the other, and none of his scripture can be trusted. Moreover, if the scroll is a pagan scripture to an idol god Joseph Smith would be a Prophet, Seer, and revelator of his guide, the idol of the scroll.
Here is what Joseph Smith stated about translating: "A Translation of some ancient Records, that have fallen into our hands from the catacombs of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>. -- The writings of Abraham written by his own hand, upon papyrus." Pearl of Great Price p.29.
Proof of the Fraud:
There are three ways we know these are the Egyptian scrolls Joseph Smith tried to translate.
1. Three of the four handwritten original Book of Abraham manuscripts had the Egyptian Hieroglyphs in the margin. Of the eighty-odd Egyptian hieroglyphs on the scroll, 20, 13, and 10 hieroglyphs were written on manuscripts #1, #2, and #3 respectively. When there were gaps in the scroll 7, 6 and 6 restored hieroglyphs were added on the three manuscripts. From this we can be confident this Egyptian scroll was the one Joseph used.
2. Joseph invented a language of the Egyptian language. The bound, thirty-four page book, called the Egyptian Alphabet and Grammar, is still in the church’s possession. This language book illustrates many of the Egyptian hieroglyphs of the scroll. A very similar English "translation" is in the Egyptian Alphabet and Grammar as in the Book of Abraham. Some view this as one of the more damaging facts against the inspiration Joseph claimed to have.
3. The pictures at the beginning of both the Egyptian scroll and Smith’s Book of Abraham are the same. The only difference is a penciled in spot on the Egyptian picture that was filled in on the Mormon picture. Not only are the pictures copied the same, but the captions in pictures #2 and #3 referring the Egyptian idols are also copied into the Mormon scripture.
The Actual Translation:
Smith thought he was translating these hieroglyphs. Read the actual translation by Dr. Klaus Baer on the next page. (Dialogue: A Journal of Mormon Thought: Autumn 1968 p.119-120.)
"Osiris shall be conveyed into the Great Pool of Khons --and likewise Osiris Hor, justified born to Tikhebyt, justified --after his arms have been placed on his heart and the Breathing Permit (which [Isis] made and has writing on its inside and outside) has been wrapped in royal linen and placed under his left arm near his heart; the rest of his mummy bandages should be wrapped over it. The man for whom this book has been copied will breathe forever as the bas of the gods do." (bas are souls.) On p.111 Dr. Baer stated, "Joseph Smith thought that his papyrus contained the Book of Abraham." [/FONT]
 
Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

<meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"><meta name="ProgId" content="Word.Document"><meta name="Generator" content="Microsoft Word 11"><meta name="Originator" content="Microsoft Word 11"><link rel="File-List" href="file:///C:%5CDOCUME%7E1%5CADMINI%7E1%5CCONFIG%7E1%5CTemp%5Cmsohtml1%5C19%5Cclip_filelist.xml"><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="State"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="PlaceName"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="PlaceType"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="City"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="country-region"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="place"></o:smarttagtype><o:smarttagtype namespaceuri="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:eek:ffice:smarttags" name="metricconverter"></o:smarttagtype><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:WordDocument> <w:View>Normal</w:View> <w:Zoom>0</w:Zoom> <w:HyphenationZone>21</w:HyphenationZone> <w:punctuationKerning/> <w:ValidateAgainstSchemas/> <w:SaveIfXMLInvalid>false</w:SaveIfXMLInvalid> <w:IgnoreMixedContent>false</w:IgnoreMixedContent> <w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText>false</w:AlwaysShowPlaceholderText> <w:Compatibility> <w:BreakWrappedTables/> <w:SnapToGridInCell/> <w:WrapTextWithPunct/> <w:UseAsianBreakRules/> <w:DontGrowAutofit/> </w:Compatibility> <w:BrowserLevel>MicrosoftInternetExplorer4</w:BrowserLevel> </w:WordDocument> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <w:LatentStyles DefLockedState="false" LatentStyleCount="156"> </w:LatentStyles> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if !mso]><object classid="clsid:38481807-CA0E-42D2-BF39-B33AF135CC4D" id=ieooui></object> <style> st1\:*{behavior:url(#ieooui) } </style> <![endif]--><style> <!-- /* Font Definitions */ @font-face {font-family:Calibri; panose-1:2 15 5 2 2 2 4 3 2 4; mso-font-charset:0; mso-generic-font-family:swiss; mso-font-pitch:variable; mso-font-signature:-1610611985 1073750139 0 0 159 0;} @font-face {font-family:"Agency FB"; panose-1:2 11 5 3 2 2 2 2 2 4; mso-font-charset:0; mso-generic-font-family:swiss; mso-font-pitch:variable; mso-font-signature:3 0 0 0 1 0;} /* Style Definitions */ p.MsoNormal, li.MsoNormal, div.MsoNormal {mso-style-parent:""; margin-top:0cm; margin-right:0cm; margin-bottom:10.0pt; margin-left:0cm; line-height:115%; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:11.0pt; font-family:Calibri; mso-fareast-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-bidi-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-fareast-language:EN-US;} @page Section1 {size:612.0pt 792.0pt; margin:70.85pt 3.0cm 70.85pt 3.0cm; mso-header-margin:36.0pt; mso-footer-margin:36.0pt; mso-paper-source:0;} div.Section1 {page:Section1;} --> </style><!--[if gte mso 10]> <style> /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Tabla normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0cm 5.4pt 0cm 5.4pt; mso-para-margin:0cm; mso-para-margin-bottom:.0001pt; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:10.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]Smith translated thousands of English words from these hieroglyphs. Joseph said this was the writing of Abraham and the word of his god. Actually it was a variant of the Book of the Dead a pagan Egyptian magic book filled with heathen gods and goddesses, often buried with mummies.
Dr. Richard Parker of <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placename w:st="on">Brown</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">University</st1:placetype></st1:place> in a personal letter to Marvin Cowen dated Jan. 9 1968 said, "5. I have seen Joseph Smith’s Egyptian Alphabet and Grammar. The interpretation of the signs purported to be Egyptian have no resemblance to the meaning ascribed to them by Egyptologists."
Fifty years ago Dr. A.B. Mercer said, "Any pupil of mine who would show such absolute ignorance of Egyptian as Smith does, could not possibly expect to get more than zero in an examination in Egyptology." (Improvement Era, vol. 16, p 615.) This is still true today.
Dr. John A. Wilson said, "...as far as I am concerned I see pieces of two or possibly three different papyri and every one of them looks like a traditional Book of the Dead." (letter Jan. 5, 1968.)
Details of the Pictures
Let’s look next at the three pictures in the Book of Abraham and the accompanying captions from one of the scrolls and Times and Seasons volume 3.
The writing and pictures are typical Egyptian funeral scenes of Egyptian idols. Joseph taught these images represented Abraham and the Real God.
Facsimile #1:
Hor Justified son of the holder of the same titles.
Facsimile #2
Grant that the soul of Osiris Sheshonk may live
I (Min) am a copulating bull without equal.
May this tomb never be desecrated.
Facsimile #3
O gods of . . ., gods of the Caverns, gods of the south, north, west, and east, grant well-being to Osiris Hor justified
Conclusion:
Smith’s god deceived him. Joseph Smith’s translation is worthless. If you seek the Lord, dear Mormon I pray you leave the Mormon Church reject Joseph’s hoax, and give your life to the Most High God through Jesus Christ His Son.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 12:4, how could Abram be 75 years old when he left the town of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Haran</st1:place></st1:city> after Terah died? In Gen 11:26, since Terah was 70 when he had his three sons, Acts 7:4 says Abram left Haran after Terah died, and Terah died at 205 (Gen 11:32), then his three sons would be 135 years old.
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[FONT=&quot]A: Unless Abrah, Nahor, and <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Haran</st1:place></st1:city> were triplets (which is unlikely), Genesis 11:26 refers to Terah being 70 years old when he started having children. Abram was not born until Terah was at least 130. See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.136-137, Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.378, When Critics Ask p.45-46, and 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.309-310 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 12:8 have archaeologists unearthed the town of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ai</st1:place></st1:city>?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. They have not found the remains of a small town that was said to be totally destroyed.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 12:10-19, is there any extra-Biblical evidence of people from Canaan or other parts of the Mideast coming to <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes there is. A tomb painting at Beni Hasan in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> shows "Asiatics". Tomb 3, of Khnumhotep, shows 37 Semites coming to <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> for trade. They had black hair, pointed beards, long cloaks, bows, and throw sticks. The Wycliffe Dictionary of Biblical Archaeology p.139 says this is dated at 1892 B.C.
The alphabet was first known to be used by Semites in <st1:country-region w:st="on">Egypt</st1:country-region> in 1800 B.C. or earlier north of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Luxor</st1:place></st1:city>. (See BAR Jan/Feb 2000 p.12)
Camels on wall paintings on the <st1:placetype w:st="on">temple</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Hatsheput</st1:placename> near <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Thebes</st1:place></st1:city> also date back to Abraham. See Can Archaeology Prove the Old Testament? p.26 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 12:10-19 did Abraham say his wife was his sister in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>, or did Isaac do so in Gerar in Gen 26:2-11? (A liberal Christian brought this up as a doublet, showing that multiple authors wrote Genesis.)
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[FONT=&quot]A: This is not a duplication; these are two separate events. Isaac probably got this bad idea from the example of his father.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 12:10-20 and Gen 20:1-18 did God condone Abram lying?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. The Bible honestly recorded, but never approved Abram’s lying because of His lack of faith in God’s protection. Even great men of God still sin, and so we should not lose heart when we sin.
God blessed Abraham because of His faith, not because he was sinless, but despite his sin.
Only God is perfect. Our goal is to strive toward perfection, which we will attain only in Heaven. See the discussion on Genesis 19:30-36. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.89-90, When Critics Ask p.46, Hard Sayings of the Bible p.118-120, and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.35 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 13, did <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place> choose where Abraham would live, or did God give Abraham the Promised Land to live?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Both. "Concurrency" is the doctrine that God uses events and people, even misguided and evil people, to accomplish His will and keep His promises. Abram (Abraham) allowed Lot to choose either the east or west side of the <st1:country-region w:st="on">Jordan</st1:country-region>, and <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place> chose the east side. While God had Abram move into the general area, God also specifically planned that Abram would have the western side of the <st1:place w:st="on">Jordan River</st1:place>. God used <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place>’s choice to accomplish His will.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 13:8, how do you pronounce "Mamre"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Cruden’s Concordance and the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary both say it is pronounced "MAM’-re", with a long "e" and the accent on the first syllable.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 13:8, 29:15, how were these men brothers?
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[FONT=&quot]A: In Genesis 13:8 Abram is calling <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place> his brother, while in Genesis 29:15, Laban is calling Jacob his brother. The Bible is recording that Abram and Laban were expressing both their close feelings and their blood kinship, but they were not actually brothers.
The skeptical Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.819-820 does not see any problem with this, but adds that in these cases enough genealogical material is usually given so that we know the exact relationship. This is not the case with Jesus’ brothers, so they likely were biological half-brothers.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 13:12, did Lot pitch his tent near <st1:city w:st="on">Sodom</st1:city>, or did Lot live in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sodom</st1:place></st1:city> in Genesis 14:12?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Both are most likely true, at different times. Being nomadic meant that you could easily move around. Lot certainly had his tent far from <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sodom</st1:place></st1:city> prior to separating from Abram’s group. Then he certainly had it near <st1:city w:st="on">Sodom</st1:city>, and in the surrounding area controlled by <st1:city w:st="on">Sodom</st1:city> (greater <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sodom</st1:place></st1:city>) later. Then he lived in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sodom</st1:place></st1:city> (in either a tent or a house.). Later in Genesis 19:3, Lot had a house in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sodom</st1:place></st1:city>.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 14:1, how do you pronounce the name "Chederlaomer"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Cruden’s Concordance says it is "KED-ur-LA-o-mer", with the u and first e short, the last e with a tilde over it, and the a and o long. The accents are on the first and third syllables. The Wycliffe Bible Dictionary and Harper’s Bible Dictionary. It says the same, except that it places the accents on the first and fourth syllables as KED-ur-la-O-mer.
In general, in the Old Testament "ch" is pronounced as "k", with cherubim being an exception. When in doubt on accents, the accent usually falls on the first syllable.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 14:1-2, who are these kings?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This occurred around 2000 B.C., so it is not surprising we cannot find some of these rulers. However, Elam was a major power, having conquered Abram’s city of Ur around 2004 B.C. Shinar is the word the both the Old Testament and Egyptians used for Babylonia. Chederlaomer sounds like kudur (Elamite for servant) and Lagamar (an Elamite goddess). Cheder (=Kudur) was the first part of the name of many Elamite kings. Tidal seems related to the Hittite name Tudhaliya, and there were at least five later Hittite kings named Tudhaliya. Towns of Si-da-mu (<st1:city w:st="on">Sodom</st1:city>) and I-ma-ar (<st1:city w:st="on">Gomorrah</st1:city>) are mentioned in the <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ebla</st1:place></st1:city> tablets, written 2400-2250 B.C. We do not have a record of Arioch of Ellasar, but there is independent historical evidence of a king Ariochu of Larsa, a major Sumerian city. Also, History of Israel p.61 says that Arriyuk(ki) or Arriwuk(ki) is know in both Mari and Nuzi as a Hurrian name. See When Critics Ask p.46-47 and Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.90-91 for more info.
According to John Warwick Montgomery in Evidence for Faith p.157, people formerly identified Amraphel with Hammurabi, but this is incorrect. He also says that Arioch is preferred over Ariochu, because Arioch was a common name of that time. It was a Hurrian name, also a name of a king of Mari (about 1750 B.C.), and in the tablets at the city of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Nuzi</st1:place></st1:city> (1500 B.C.) Since it was a common name, any number of kings from any number of minor provinces unknown to the modern world.
In summary, these strange names were only used during this narrow time period. It is highly unlikely anyone would have written these names, unless they had accurate knowledge of history at this time.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 14:1-2, how could you have "confederacies" of kings fighting?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There would be very few confederacies of kings prior to the fall of the strong city-state of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city> in 2004 B.C. There would be very few confederacies after the rise of Hammurabi of Old Babylon around 1700 B.C. However, between the time the Elamites destroyed <st1:city w:st="on">Ur</st1:city> in 2004 B.C., and the Elamites raided <st1:city w:st="on">Babylon</st1:city> in 1725 B.C., <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Montgomery</st1:place></st1:city> notes that confederacies were common.
Nobody in Moses time would try to make up a credible-sounding history of confederacies of kings, because monolithic Empires predominated. For someone to mention confederacies like this shows that he had an accurate knowledge of that time-period. According to Evidence for Faith p.157-<st1:metricconverter productid="164, a" w:st="on">164, a</st1:metricconverter> letter found at Mari mentions coalitions of ten, fifteen, and twenty kings. In addition, at least five other confederacies are known. See 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.35-36 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 14:1-17, is there any extra-Biblical evidence for <st1:city w:st="on">Sodom</st1:city>, <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Gomorrah</st1:place></st1:city>, and the other cities?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes. There used to be none until archaeologists found the <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ebla</st1:place></st1:city> tablets. They mention si-dam-mu (<st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sodom</st1:place></st1:city>) and sa-ba-i-im (Zeboiim). (Julius Africanus 200-<st1:metricconverter productid="245 A" w:st="on">245 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) calls this Seboim.) I-ma-er is probably <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Gomorrah</st1:place></st1:city>. For a discussion of the <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ebla</st1:place></st1:city> tablets see Ready with an Answer : For the Tough Questions About God p.282-286.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 14:5, what does Ashteroth-Karnaim mean?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There are two possibilities according to both the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.160 and the New Bible Dictionary (Eerdmans’ 1962) p.97.
1. It could possibly mean Ashtarte of the two horns, since this goddess was shown wearing two horns at <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Gezer</st1:place></st1:city> and Beth-Shan.
2. It more probably means the town Ashteroth which is near Karnaim, to distinguish it from other towns names after the goddess.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 14:5-6, 36:20, and Dt 2:12,22, who are the Horites?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Horites came from modern-day <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Armenia</st1:place></st1:country-region>, according to the Archaeological Encyclopedia of the Holy Land p.176. They were first mentioned in the time of Sargon of Akkad in the 24th century B.C..
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 14:7, how do you pronounce the word "Amalekite"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Cruden’s Concordance says it is pronounced as "AM-a-le-kit" with the "i" and second "a" long, and the accent on the first syllable. Harper’s Bible Dictionary has only with "i" with a long vowel, and the accent is also on the first syllable. The Wycliffe Bible Dictionary says the accent is on the second syllable.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 14:14, how could Abram and his allies, only 318 men, defeat an invading army of an alliance of 4 great kings?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 14:15 suggests this was not a pitched battle. It was probably a surprise night raid by mounted troops on an unprepared army. There would be few horses in the desert, and few people east of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> had camels, except for Abraham. So a lightning attack by mounted troops would be totally unexpected from the desert. Second, Abraham was allied with three other chiefs, and their participation in the spoils showed that they were apart of the raid too. Of course, God may have helped also.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 14:14, how does Abram’s raid compare to other surprise attacks in history?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The army apparently retreated from Dan to <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Damascus</st1:place></st1:city>, around <st1:metricconverter productid="40 miles" w:st="on">40 miles</st1:metricconverter> (<st1:metricconverter productid="64 km" w:st="on">64 km</st1:metricconverter>) away, so Abram’s army won "the field of battle". Let’s look at surprise attacks, attacks against larger armies, and finally let’s look at it from the enemies’ perspective. Some of these numbers are from the Encyclopedia Britannica.
First we will look at surprise attacks.
In the Battle of San Jacinto in 1836, Sam Houston and 743 raw troops made a raid in the daytime against 1,800 Mexican troops and won.
In the Battle of Trenton, <st1:state w:st="on">Washington</st1:state> crossed the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Delaware</st1:place></st1:state> at night surprising the Hessian mercenaries and capturing 1,000 of them.
At Teutoberg Wald, Arminius the German kills 14,000 seasoned Roman troops in a surprise battle.
Now let’s look at victories against great odds.
At the Battle of Marathon in 490 B.C., 10,000 Greeks defeated 20,000 Persians.
At Canae in 216 B.C., 56,000 Carthaginians (with effectively used cavalry) defeat 86,000 Romans.
At al-Qadissiyat in 636/7 A.D., 30,000 Muslims defeat 120,000 Persians.
At <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Pharsalus</st1:place></st1:city> in 48 B.C., Julius Caesar and 20,000 troops defeated Pompey and 45,000 troops.
At Dorylaeum in 1091, 70,000 Crusaders defeated 250,000 Muslims, killing about 30,000 of them. (The Crusaders had armor, but then again Abram’s soldiers might have had armor while the invading army had taken theirs off.)
Alexander the Great against the Persians, Julius Caesar against the Gauls and the Helvetians, Belisarius, Napoleon, and others also defeated vastly superior forces, though on a larger scale. We do not have the numbers for these armies, except that Julius only had 10,000 men when he invaded <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">England</st1:place></st1:country-region>.
The enemies’ perspective: Suppose you are an Elamite soldier, picked to be a part of an elite group to go on a mission far away to punish <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sodom</st1:place></st1:city>. You know there are a large number of the enemy just outside your tent, but they are captives; unarmed and well-guarded. In the middle of the night you are awakened by mounted troops from a new, unknown enemy swooping in and killing your comrades. Not only are they doing that, but if they run off your animals, or free and arm the captives, then you are doomed. You do the sensible thing and flee in the opposite direction of the attack, regrouping with your comrades later.
Of course, apart from all these factors, God likely aided Abram’s troops to cause panic and route the enemy. For an even greater example of God aiding a successful surprise attack, see the battle of Gideon and the Midianites in Judges 7:6-25.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 14:18-19, how could Melchizedek, presumably a cursed Canaanite, be in a position to bless Abraham?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Melchizedek is a mysterious person in the Bible. Some think Melchizedek was pre-incarnate appearance of Christ. Others say Melchizedek was a godly man (perhaps Canaanite or perhaps not) who was simply a type of Christ. Even if Melchizedek were a Canaanite man, God is not restricted from teaching and sanctifying people of any nationality. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.120-121 and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.35-36 for more info.
As a side note, the Jewish sect at <st1:place w:st="on">Qumran</st1:place> placed great importance on Melchizedek as a heavenly deliver, who will proclaim God’s salvation. See the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.441 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 14:18, how old is the city of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city>?
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[FONT=&quot]A: We think it was founded about 3000 B.C. Early Egyptian chronicles call the city "Urusalim", which implies that the "<st1:city w:st="on">salem</st1:city>" part of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jerusalem</st1:place></st1:city> goes back as least as far as the "Jebus" part.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Does Gen 14:18 teach a "Melchizedek priesthood" of people as Mormons teach?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. Genesis 14 only mentions one individual named Melchizedek. Hebrews 7:23-24 says this Melchizedek was a type of Jesus. Nothing in the Bible suggests we need any more priests today besides Jesus. See When Cultists Ask p.27-28 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 14:23 (KJV), why are shoe latchlets mentioned, when they did not have shoes with latchlets back then?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This King James Version expression is better translated as "sandal thongs".
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 15, what exactly is a covenant, and how was the covenant between God and Abraham unusual?
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[FONT=&quot]A: A covenant is a mutual agreement between parties; the parties can be equal, such as a trade agreement, or it can be between a high king and a lower vassal. Besides being a covenant between man and God, this covenant was unusual because it was unilateral promise from God; Abraham did not have to do anything.
See 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.37 for more a more extensive answer..
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 15, did God make a covenant with Abram here, or in Gen 17 after Ishmael was born? (A liberal Christian brought this up as evidence that multiple authors wrote Genesis.)
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[FONT=&quot]A: Both the original covenant in Genesis 15 and later confirmation in Genesis 17 are true. In Genesis 15, God made a formal covenant with Abram, complete with a sacrifice, and promised him a child. In Genesis 17:2, after Ishmael was born, God confirmed his covenant with Abram, and a sign of it was the rite of circumcision. The confirmation of the covenant was essential here, because God needed to correct Abram’s thinking. Abram mistakenly thought that the promises of the covenant would occur through Ishmael.
For a second example of confirming a covenant, after God allowed the Israelites to be defeated at Ai, they confirmed the covenant the made at <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Mount</st1:placetype> <st1:placename w:st="on">Ebal</st1:placename></st1:place> in Joshua 8:30-35.
Sometimes a Christian, who has already made a covenant with God, should have a time of confirming his covenant too.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 15:2, what is unusual about Eliezar’s name?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Perhaps nothing, but The Expositor’s Bible Commentary volume 2 p.131-132 says it "could hardly be a coincidence" that the value of the letters of Eliezer’s name in Hebrew is 318, the same number of warriors Abraham had in Genesis 14:14.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 15:12, was Abraham wrong not to cut the birds in half, as the false Christian teacher Rev. Moon teaches in the Divine Principle 5th ed. 1977 p.269,507?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. Priests were never to cut birds in half in Leviticus 1:17 and 5:9.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 15:13, were the Israelites in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> for 430 years, or oppressed for 400 years?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Both are true. See the discussion on Acts 7:6 for how the Israelites lived in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> for 30 years before they were enslaved for 400 years.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 15:16, how could the Israelites be enslaved for only four generations, since they were enslaved for 400 years in Gen 15:13?
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[FONT=&quot]A: In Genesis 15:13,16, Abraham, who would likely have understood a generation as 100 years, was told: 400 years, 4 generations. Moses for example, lived to 120.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 15:16 did the Exodus occur in the fourth generation, or the sixth as 1 Chr 2:1-9 and Mt 1:3-4 imply?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Two points to consider in the answer.
1. It all depends on how long you consider a generation. Abraham and Sarah had Isaac when they were 101 and 91. God was speaking to Abraham here.
2. Hypothetically, there would be no error even if the Bible had said it would have been any number, as long as the same passage had defined a generation appropriately. Actually, "four generations" in Genesis 15:16 is defined as being enslaved exactly "400 years" in Genesis 15:13.
See When Critics Ask p.47 and Haley’s Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.416 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 15:17 and Gen 19:23, why does the Bible claim the sun "goes down" and "comes up"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: I will tell you after sundown. Seriously, just as we employ common idioms and slang to express ourselves, the Bible uses Hebrew and Greek idioms, too. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.93 and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.38 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 15:18, what is the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">River</st1:placetype> of <st1:placename w:st="on">Egypt</st1:placename></st1:place>?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This is not the <st1:placename w:st="on">Nile</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">River</st1:placetype>, but a small stream called the Wadi el-Arish, that is in the eastern part of the <st1:place w:st="on">Sinai Peninsula</st1:place>. See The Bible Knowledge Commentary : Old Testament p.56, The NIV Study Bible p.28, the Believer’s Bible Commentary p.54 and the New International Bible Commentary p.126 for more info. The New Geneva Study Bible p.35 and The Nelson Study Bible p.33 say it could either be the Wadi el-Arish or else the eastern branch of the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placename w:st="on">Nile</st1:placename> <st1:placetype w:st="on">River</st1:placetype></st1:place>.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 15:18, since God gave Abram’s descendants all the land up to the Euphrates River, why did they not receive the land?
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[FONT=&quot]A: David and Solomon’s kingdoms did extend to the <st1:place w:st="on">Euphrates</st1:place>. Also, they may have the land in the future Millennium.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 16:1, since Abraham and Sarai had no children, how could Abraham have more children after Isaac? (a Muslim asked this)
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[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 16:1 shows it was Sarai, not Abraham, who was sterile. Abraham had more children (with his wife Keturah), but Sarai did not. See When Critics Ask p.54 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 16:1-4, did Abraham commit adultery with Hagar? (a Muslim brought this up)
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, Ishmael was not the product of adultery; he was not illegitimate. Four points to consider in the answer.
Concubines were legal: Polygamy was permitted in the Old Testament, and Sarah gave Hagar to Abraham as a concubine. So what Abraham did was "legal" according to both God had revealed to Him and later Mosaic Law, as well as Mesopotamian law of the time.
Similar examples: Furthermore this is not so unusual as it might seem to some modern readers. According to Hard Sayings of the Bible p.121-122, similar examples of a maidservant standing in for a barren wife are found in the laws of the Code of Hammurabi, the Nuzi Tablets, the Alalakh Tablets, and the Mari Tablets. However, if something is both commonly practiced and "legal", that does not necessarily mean it pleases God. Genesis 16:4-5 shows that Sarah soon regretted her action.
Hagar was proud of her status: Hagar did not have any objection to becoming Abram’s wife. In fact, Hagar later taunted Sarai (Genesis 16:4,5). In the Old Testament, while marrying a captive was OK, nowhere was sex outside of marriage justified as anything but wicked immorality.
In contrast, Muslims are permitted to force their captives to have sex with them, even though they are not married to them. See Bukhari vol.3 book 46 ch.13 no.717,718 p.431-432 p.432; vol.9 book 93 ch.18 no.506 p.372; Sahih Muslim 2:3371-3374; Abu Dawud vol.2 no.2150,2167 for more info.
In conclusion, God is holy, Abraham was not an adulterer, and Christians have a higher standard of holiness than Mohammed had for his companions in the Hadiths.
See 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.38 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 16:1-8, since Hagar was a slave, was Abraham’s sexual union with her forced rape, like some Muslims are permitted by their religion to do? (See Bukhari Hadiths vol.3 book 46 ch.13 no.717,718 p.431-432)
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[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 16:4 says Hagar became Abram’s wife, and she apparently did not object. In fact, Hagar was proud of her pregnancy and mocked Sarai (Genesis 16:4,5). In the Old Testament, while marrying a captive was OK, nowhere was sex outside of marriage justified as anything but wicked immorality.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 16:3; 17:20; 21:13 does Hagar being the mother of Ishmael refer to Mohammed?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Hagar the concubine of Abraham and her son Ishmael are mentioned in the Bible. There is some uncertainty about ‘Adnan (Mohammed’s ancestor) descending from Ishmael though. The noted early Muslim historian al-Tabari vol.6 p.37 says, "The genealogists do not differ concerning the descent of our Prophet Muhammad as far as Ma’add b. ‘Adnan, … they differ concerning what comes after that." However, in the end this is a red herring, because Ishmael being in the Bible does not show Mohammed is from God.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 17:1; 28:3; 35:11; 43:14; 48:3; Ex 6:3, what exactly does the name El Shaddai mean?
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[FONT=&quot]A: El-Shaddai is a name for God that most literally means El "God" Shaddai "Almighty" according to Unger’s Bible Dictionary p.1000-1001, The New NIV Dictionary of the Bible p.309-310, and the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.695. This name was one of the main names for God that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob knew. Even if they had been taught God’s "personal" name of Yahweh, God Himself did not reveal Himself to them as Yahweh as he did to Moses according to Exodus 6:2,3.
Names for God apply to Jesus as a member of the Holy Trinity, but there is no suggestion that El Shaddai applies to Jesus more than to the Father or Holy Spirit.
The Hebrew word el was used very similar to the way we use the English word "God/god" today. We refer to the One and Only Almighty Creator as God, we refer to an idol as a "god", etc. The word Shaddai (Almighty) without el is used in Genesis 49:25; Numbers 24:4,16; Ruth 1:20,21; 31 times in Job 5:17-40:2; and Psalms 68:14; 91:1.
Some liberal critics claim that El-Shaddai was derived from a pagan term for "mountain god", but there is no evidence the Bible means this.
El Shaddai is used in Genesis to Abraham in 17:1; to Jacob in 28:3; 35:11; 43:14; 48:3; and Moses in Exodus 6:3.
Similar names for God are El Elyon "Most High God" used by Melchizedek in Genesis 14:18; Numbers 24:16; Deuteronomy 32:8; 2 Samuel 22:14; Psalm 9:2; Isaiah 14:14; Lamentations 3:35,38), El Hai "Living God" Joshua 3:10, or simply El "God" in many places.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 17:5 what is the significant of changing Abram to Abraham?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This could be considered "a joke come true." While Abram means "father", an ironic name for a childless man, the name Abraham really takes the cake, meaning "father of a multitude". As 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answers p.39 puts it, "We can almost hear the snickers as childless Abram announced to his many herdsmen and their families that from now on he was to be called Abraham." Having children was very important in ancient society, yet you can see how childless Abraham’s faith in God would make him so easy to laugh at. Yet God fulfilled His promise, and Abraham in heaven could smile at the joke God played to fulfill Abraham’s heartfelt wish.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 17:12, why did God command circumcision on exactly the eighth day?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture does not say. However, newborn infants do not have blood that clots as well as adults. After they eat and taken in vitamin K, their blood has more prothrombin, which is used in clotting. For babies who are not given shots of vitamin K, prothrombin levels peak on the eighth day. So this was the ideal day for performing circumcision.
As a side note, the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.354 records that the Egyptians practiced male circumcision; one picture shows it being done on a 13-year-old boy. It says that most Semitic peoples apparently practiced circumcision. Later Ethiopians also practiced circumcision. Circumcision was not practiced by the Philistines, Babylonians, Assyrians, and later Edomites. Arabs, who trace their descent from Ishmael, also practiced circumcision prior to Islam.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 17:12, what other peoples practiced circumcision?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Greek historian Herodotus in his History book 2 ch.104 p.69 says that only the Egyptians, Ethiopians, and Colchians practiced circumcision. He makes the case that the Colchians emigrated from <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>. He also said some Phoenicians and Syrians practiced this some, they themselves claiming they learned this from the Egyptians.
The early writer Bardesan/Bardesanes (154-224-<st1:metricconverter productid="232 A" w:st="on">232 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) says that the people of the Roman province of Arabia practiced circumcision, but the Romans made them stop when they conquered it. This is in The Book of the Laws of Diverse Countries p.730
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 17:17 and Gen 18:12, did Abraham and Sarah laugh with disbelief, or did Sarah laugh with joy in Gen 21:6?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Both verses are complementary. Abraham and Sarah laughed with disbelief before Isaac was conceived. Sometimes when a person really wants something, and someone offers to give it to them, human nature can be such that they disbelieve and laugh it off to protect themselves from disappointment.
However, Sarah laughed again with joy when Isaac was born.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 17:17 and Gen 18:12-15, why did God rebuke Sarah for laughing and not Abraham?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Laughing in surprise the first time you learn of something is different from laughing in skepticism in subsequent times after you have already been told. The Hebrew word for laugh, sahaq, means both. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.122-123 and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.39 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 17:19, was Abram’s child of promise named Isaac here, or in Gen 21:3?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Prior to Isaac’s birth, God said he should be called Isaac in Genesis 17:19. This verse does not specify whether they named him that or not. After Isaac was born, Genesis 21:3 tells us they did name him Isaac. It is sort of like the angel Gabriel telling Mary to name her son Jesus, and after he was born, they obeyed what the angel said.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 17:27, why did Abraham circumcise all males born in his house, whether slave or free?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Abraham was not just interested in his own offspring being a part of God’s covenant family on earth, but all in his household. This would signify that their children would also be apart mean that their descendants would also be a part of God’s covenant people.
Philo the Jew (15/20 B.C. to <st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) gave basically the same answer in Questions and Answers on Genesis, III (62) p.863.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 18, what were the Christophanies and theophanies in the Old Testament?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Christophany is a term to describe an appearance of Christ on earth, prior to His being born of Mary. A theophany is an appearance of God, whether it be the Father, Son, Spirit, or Trinity. Since some disagree on a Christophany versus a theophany, and sometimes it is unclear whether an angel is an appearance of Christ or just an angel, here is a list of possible theophanies of the Old Testament.
In the Garden of Eden before the Fall. Gen 1:29-3:24)
Possibly Melchizedek (Gen 14:18-20)
Abraham’s three visitors (Gen 18:1-33)
God appearing to Abram (Gen 17:1-2)
Probably not Jacob’s ladder, as this was only a dream (Gen 28:12-15)
Probably not Jacob wrestling with the angel (Gen 32:30)
God appearing to Jacob at Bethel (Gen 35:9-15)
Moses and the burning bush (Ex 3:2-22)
The dense cloud (Ex 19:9)
At Mt. Sinai (Ex 19:11-12; 24:10)
Moses seeing the back of God (Ex 33:19-20)
Joshua and the Commander of the Lord’s army (Josh 5:13-15)
Gideon seeing an angel (Jdg 6:11-24)
Angel appearing to Samson’s mother (Jdg 13:3-5)
Cloud on the ark of the Covenant (1 Ki 8:11-13)
Elijah in the cleft of the rock (1 Ki 19:9-18)
Leaving the Temple (Ezek 10:3-18), and Isaiah 6 probably do not count, since these were visions.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 18:2, since Abraham bowed before kings, does this support the Catholic and Orthodox practice of bowing before images?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No, veneration of images is unbiblical because we are not to have graven images for worship according to the Second Commandment. However, regardless of a persons’ belief about veneration of images, this verse cannot be used to support bowing to images. In contrast to images,
1. Abraham bowed to show respect to a real person.
2. Abraham was showing respect to a pagan king, there was no veneration or any kind of religious honor.
3. Abraham did not pray to these kings. He also did not pray to God through these kings, as Orthodox claim to pray through the images to God.
One reader claimed that veneration is no different than respect within orthodox Christianity. However, that is not true, because the eastern orthodox pray to (or more precisely through), images to God and various saints. Yet they would not take their wife, child, parents, or someone else they respect, put them in front of them, and pray to them.
See When Cultists Ask p.28 for five additional reasons.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 18:16-33, how could God be talked out of destroying <st1:city w:st="on">Sodom</st1:city> and <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Gomorrah</st1:place></st1:city>? (The Bible critic Bart Ehrman says that Marcion brought this up in Lost Christianities p.196)
A:[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] Three points to consider in the answer.
1. God was not talked out of destroying <st1:city w:st="on">Sodom</st1:city> and <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Gomorrah</st1:place></st1:city>; he did destroy them.
2. God did not need Abraham to plead, any more than he learns knowledge from our prayers.
3. Rather, God interacts with us, in ways that we understand. While sometimes God’s revealed will changes when we change, even in this case Genesis 18:16-33 gives no indication that God changed what he intended to do as a result of talking with Abraham. Sometimes God has condescended to let us know what He was thinking and why.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 18:10,14 and Gen 21:1,2, does this teach that God impregnated Sarah, as Born Again Skeptic’s p.217 claims?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. The atheist missed the point that God was not returning to impregnate Sarah, but God returned after the son was born. God only said three things about Sarah’s son.
1. God would visit them again next year as Genesis 18:10,14 says
2. God would fulfill his promise of Sarah having a Son as Genesis 21:1 says.
3. Most importantly, the son will be from Abraham (Genesis 17:15,17). To be precise, the son was from Abraham’s own body as Genesis 15:4 says.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 19, was the sin of <st1:city w:st="on">Sodom</st1:city> and <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Gomorrah</st1:place></st1:city> really a lack of hospitality as Ezekiel 16:49 says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Many homosexuals quote Ezekiel 16:49 but ignore Ezekiel 16:50, which mentions "committing abominations." Genesis 19:5-7 emphasizes the homosexuality. Jude 7 also speaks of the "sexual immorality and perversion." Genesis 13:13 shows that <st1:city w:st="on">Sodom</st1:city>’s wickedness was prior to <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place>’s arrival. See When Cultists Ask p.28-29 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 19:8, why did <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place> offer his virgin daughters to a crowd? (An atheist asked this.)
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[FONT=&quot]A: Scripture does not tell us of <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place>’s motives for this evil action, but we can see three things.
1. <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place> was in a desperate situation, and he perhaps panicked.
2. The men of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sodom</st1:place></st1:city> had no interest in his daughters.
3. Lot had lived in <st1:city w:st="on">Sodom</st1:city> for a long time, and <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place> probably knew these men had no interest in his daughters. <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place> was probably trying to stall them.
The Bible does not condone <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place>’s action here; it merely records it. If the Bible were merely "propaganda", you would expect it to record every positive thing and never mention anything negative. However, the Bible is not propaganda, but God’s true word, and it honestly talks about people’s lives, warts and all.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 19:24-26, exactly how were <st1:city w:st="on">Sodom</st1:city> and <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Gomorrah</st1:place></st1:city> destroyed?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Bible simply says the LORD rained down burning sulfur, and that <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place>’s wife who stayed back became a pillar of salt. While we do not have more details, we know that the area is rich in pitch (petroleum) and asphalt on the surface. Image a storm, wind, and lightning that would ignite the pitch. The resulting fire would cause its own wind, and the whole area is not somewhere you would want to be. See 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.39 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 19:26, doe we know of others since then besides <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place>’s wife who have become "a pillar of salt"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Physically, people and dogs have been instantly killed and their bodies preserved by being covered with ash at <st1:city w:st="on">Pompeii</st1:city> when <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Mt.</st1:placetype> <st1:placename w:st="on">Vesuvius</st1:placename></st1:place> erupted. Undoubtedly this happened during other major eruptions too.
Metaphorically, <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place>’s wife was hardened into insensibility by her love for the life left behind. Many since then, have been hardened by their love for the world too. As obvious examples, the drug addict, when looking for a fix, the alcoholic, when looking for a drink, are not really aware of the simple joys of life around them. Sin in general, or desiring anything above God, can make you less mindful of the good things God has given us. Clement of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Alexandria</st1:place></st1:city> (wrote 193-217/220 A.D.), was among the first to see this application in Exhortation to the Heathen ch.10 p.201.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 19:30-36, why does the Bible teach that <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place> had sex with his daughters? I just cannot believe this was right.
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[FONT=&quot]A: Good. The Bible does not say it was right. Incest and fornication are evil, and the Bible was honestly recording what <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place> did.
In Lot’s defense, Irenaeus Against Heresies ch.31 (wrote 182-<st1:metricconverter productid="188 A" w:st="on">188 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) points out the Bible shows that <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place> did not participate because of lust, but involuntarily after too much to drink.
Origen (225-<st1:metricconverter productid="254 A" w:st="on">254 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) said that stories such as <st1:place w:st="on">Lot</st1:place> and his daughters are in sacred scripture to the Bible show the desire for truth of the Bible writers, who would not conceal even what was to their discredit. Origen in Against Celsus book 4 ch.45 p.518
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 20 and Ex 23:31, how could the Philistines be in Israel in Abraham’s time, about 2000 B.C.?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The skeptical Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.85 mentions this. While there was a massive migration in 1200 B.C., the earliest levels of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ashdod</st1:place></st1:city> were occupied way back in the 17th century (H.F. Vos, Archaeology in Bible Lands). Somebody lived in that fertile land back then, and there is no historical evidence which says it was not the Philistines. After the Egyptians defeated the Philistines in 1190 B.C., they came to <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Palestine</st1:place></st1:city> in force, and makes sense they would retreat to where they already had towns. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.94-96, When Critics Ask p.50, and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.40 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 20:3,6 why did God contradict say Abimelech was a dead man, yet Abimelech lived?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God does not change (Malachi 3:6; James 1:17; Hebrews 13:8). However, Ezekiel 33:12-20 shows that God’s revealed will towards people can change when they change.
See the discussion on Ex 33:5-6; Dt 20:17; Jer 15:6; Jon 3-4; Jon 3:10; and Jon 4:1-2 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 20:3,8-10, Gen 26:1, Jdg 8:31, and Jdg 9:1, what does Abimelech mean?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Ab means father, and melech means king or ruler. It either means father of the king, or father is king. Besides being the name of two kings of Gerar, and Gideon’s son, Cyril Aldred in Akhenaten King of Egypt p.186 records that Abimilki was a ruler of Tyre mentioned in the Amarna letters (1400-1370 B.C.). Photographs of a couple of the Tell el-Amarna (ancient Akhetaten) letter tablets are in The New International Dictionary of the Bible p.80 and The Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.1828.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 20:12, why did Abram marry his half-sister Sarai?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Incest was not expressly forbidden then. Also, Abram was not necessarily a believer when he married. See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.139-141 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 21:14, was Abraham right to send Hagar away?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Normally, it would be wrong to send Hagar and her teenage boy away alone without protection and with little water, and this is why Sarah’s request greatly distressed Abraham in Genesis 21:11. However, in this particular case, God told Abraham to go ahead, and that everything would be all right. God himself gave Hagar and Ishmael water (Genesis 12:17-19), and God was with Ishmael as he grew up (Genesis 21:20).
As a side note, Hagar was actually a Semitic name according to The Expositor’s Bible Commentary vol.2 footnote 15 p.307. There were many Semites who lived in the northern part of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.123-124 and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.41 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 21:14 If you read the Old Testament, it is clear that in Genesis the first born son (meaning God’s chosen, the inheritor of his father), is ISHMAEL and the lies interpolated by the Jews into the Old Testament to disinherit him (why? Because they could not accept someone from outside their tribe) clearly becomes visible when they wrote that ISHMAEL with his mother HAGAR were banished away from the tribe of ABRAHAM forever?, but when we read more of Genesis we find that the true story is that "ISHMAEL died in the presence of all his brethren" (family) and further "ISAAC" died in the presence of all his brethren". These statements from the Bible clearly show up a further Jewish interpolation which is that they had to make up the incident about the permanent banishment of HAGAR and ISHMAEL so that they could replace ISHMAEL who was the original "only son of ABRAHAM" at the time when ABRAHAM was willing to sacrifice anything for the love of and obedience to God’s will, it also shows that the promise of the savior of mankind was made through ISHMAEL (firstborn son) and not ISAAC (second son). (A Muslim said this)
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[FONT=&quot]A: First of all, some Muslims might not be aware that the Qur’an does not specify whether the son that was offered in sacrifice was Ishmael or Isaac.
Your assertion that Ishmael died in the presence "of his family" fails to prove he was not banished. The only thing the Bible says on that is Genesis 25:17b where is says "He breathed his last and died, and he was gathered to his people." This was a common euphemism for saying he died. Of course his children and in-laws could have been near him. This cannot prove he was buried with his ancestors, because Abraham too was "gathered to his people" in Genesis 25:8, and that does not mean he was buried back in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ur</st1:place></st1:city> of the Chaldeans.
Contrary to your question, it never said, Abraham was to sacrifice his firstborn son. Rather, Abraham was to sacrifice his only son, because Ishmael had already been sent away and Isaac was the only child of promise.
I have a question for you though, could the Qur’an be wrong?
1. Sura 32:23 "We did indeed aforetime give the book to Moses. Be not then in doubt of its reaching (thee): and We made it a guide to the children of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>." So do you agree that the Torah, as it was originally given, was correct and from the true God?
2. Sura 5:46 "And in their [the prophets’] footsteps we sent Jesus the son of Mary, confirming the Torah that had come before him: we sent him the gospel; therein was guidance and light. And confirmation of the Torah that had come before him: a guidance and an admonition to those who fear Allah". So do you agree that the Torah in Jesus’ time, as he confirmed it, was the true word of Allah?
3. The <st1:place w:st="on">Dead Sea</st1:place> Scrolls contain many copies of Old Testament manuscripts from the time of Christ and before. Three points where you think the Bible of being in error are:
3.1. Isaac was the child of promise, the covenant. Genesis 17:19,21
3.2. Ishmael and Hagar were banished Genesis 21:8-19
3.3. Abraham sacrificing Isaac vs. Ishmael Genesis 22:1-18
The Dead Sea scrolls mention that Isaac is the child of promise. Philo was a Jewish scholar who lived in <st1:city w:st="on">Alexandria</st1:city> <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region>, dying in <st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D. He wrote a commentary on Genesis, and his commentary, on Genesis in his time, shows it is the same as we have today.
Clement of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Rome</st1:place></st1:city> was an early Christian bishop, probably the Clement mentioned by Paul, who wrote a letter to the Corinthians in 97/98 A.D. He mentions that the son Abraham offered to sacrifice was the son of his old age. [He does not actually say Isaac though].
4. You cannot blame Christians for judging your accusations against the Gospel of both Jesus’ time and Mohammed’s because of Sura 5:47. It says, "Let the People of the Gospel Judge by what Allah hath revealed Therein...." ? So do you agree that Christians should judge by the Gospel, of which we have copies long before Mohammed’s time? If not, then is the Qur’an wrong?
Sura 5:48 says, "To thee (People of the Book) We sent the scripture in truth, confirming the scripture that came before it, and guarding it in safety: so judge between them by what Allah hath revealed, and follow not their vain desires, diverging from the truth that hath come to thee....". If you are a Muslim who disagrees with these words, then how does Allah differentiate between His words, which He allows devout worshippers to learn only in corrupted form, and His words that remain uncorrupted?
Most Muslims believe in the hadiths, which are the authoritative collections of the sayings and doings of Mohammed, as the highest authorities after the Qur’an. Of the six major recognized hadith collections, Bukhari is the highest. I thought you would like to read what it says about Hajar [Hagar] and Ishmael.
Bukhari vol.4 book 55 ch.9 no.583 p.373 "Abraham brought her [Hagar] and her son Ishmael while she was suckling him, to a place at the Ka’ba under a tree on the position of Zam-zam, at the highest place in the mosque. During those days there was nobody at <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Mecca</st1:place></st1:city>, nor was there any water. So he made them sit over there and place near them a leather bag containing some dates, and a small water-skin containing some water, and set out homeward. Ishmael’s mother followed him saying, "O Abraham! Where are you going, leaving us in this valley where there is no person whose company we may enjoy, nor is there anything (to enjoy)?" She repeated that to him many times, but he did not look back at her. Then she asked him, "Has Allah ordered you to do so?" He say, "Yes". ... (p.374 same hadith) "The Prophet said, "This is the source of the tradition of the walking of people between them (i.e. Safa and Marwa). When she reached the Marwa ( for the last time), she heard a voice and she asked herself to be quiet and listened attentively. ... She saw an angel at the place of Zam-zam digging the earth with his heel (or his wing), till water flowed from that place." So your view is not consistent with either Bukhari of the Bible.
The famous early Muslim historian al-Tabari (839-<st1:metricconverter productid="923 A" w:st="on">923 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.), investigated whether it was Ishmael or Isaac that was almost sacrificed, and he said it was Isaac, not Ishmael (al-Tabari vol.2 p.68). He had a ten-page discussion of the Muslim authorities who said it was Isaac and the ones who said it was Ishmael (al-Tabari vol.2 p.82-92), while concluding it was Isaac.
However, I think that this issue, of which of Abraham’s sons was which, is a small thing compared to being able to answer the question of Proverbs 30:4f: "Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!" (NIV)
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 22:1 (KJV), how could God "tempt" Abraham, since Jms 1:13 says God does not tempt people?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The word "tempt" is only in the King James version, translated 400 years ago. Both modern translations and the Hebrew word here, nâcâh, mean "to test or prove". The difference between tempt and test is that God does not entice us to do evil, but God does allows us, like Abraham and Job, to have tests of our faith. See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.207-208, Now That’s A Good Question p.475-476, and Hard Sayings of the Bible p.124-125 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 22, why did God encourage human sacrifice with Abraham and Isaac?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Four points to consider in the answer.
1. Abraham had already shown that He loved God more than His people and culture, but God tested Abraham to see if He loved God more than his own dear son.
2. The Ten Commandments (do not murder, etc.) were not given until Moses at <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Mt.</st1:placetype> <st1:placename w:st="on">Sinai</st1:placename></st1:place>.
3. Even in this solitary case of God initially commanding the sacrifice, God stopped it from being carried out. No person died.
4. God the Father did not ask Abraham for anything that He did not do Himself, in sacrificing Jesus for us.
See The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.48-49, When Critics Ask p.51, Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.96, Difficulties in the Bible 57-60, Hard Sayings of the Bible p.125-127, 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.41, and Now That’s A Good Question p.573 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 22:1-18, could the boy who Abraham almost sacrificed be Ishmael, not Isaac, as Muslims claim? Otherwise, how could Isaac be Abram’s "only son"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: It was Isaac who was sacrificed and not Ishmael for at least four reasons:
Even the Qur’an does not say it was Ishmael: Genesis 22:2 says it was Isaac. For Muslims, while the Muslim Qur’an discusses this in Sura 37:99-111, no where in the entire Qur’an does it say whether it was Ishmael or Isaac.
Only boy Abram had at the time: Ishmael was 14 when Isaac was born based on Genesis 17:25 and Genesis 18:10. Hagar and Ishmael were sent way to a different place the day Isaac was weaned in Genesis 21:8-10. Abraham was tested "a long time" after this in Genesis 21:34, and a "boy" was on the altar in Genesis 22:12.
Only son in God’s eyes: God declared that is was through Isaac and not Ishmael that Abraham’s offspring would be reckoned in Genesis 21:12. Abraham did not have Ishmael because Ishmael and his mother were "gotten rid of" by being sent away according to Genesis 21:10-12.
Only heir in this world: Isaac was the only heir, and only son also means "beloved son". While the culture of the time accepted taking concubines for procreation, inheritance and the right of the firstborn would go to sons of actual wives, not the sons of concubines. See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.141 for more info.
Only son of promise: Genesis 21:12 says, "through Isaac your offspring shall be reckoned". Abraham had other sons too, but they were born after this.
See When Critics Ask p.52 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 22:2, how was Isaac Abram’s "only son"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: While Ishmael was born first, he was sent away by this time, and Isaac was the only son Abram still had with him. Isaac was the only heir, and only son can also mean beloved son. Genesis 21:12 says, "through Isaac your offspring shall be reckoned". Abraham had other sons too, but they were born after this. While the culture of the time accepted taking concubines for procreation, inheritance and the right of the firstborn would go to sons of actual wives, not the sons of concubines. See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.141 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 22:2, does the Holy Spirit ever lead people to disobey what has been revealed in the Bible?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. Three points to consider in the answer.
1. Of course, God did not lead Abraham to do anything against revealed Scripture, since no Scripture was written down in Abraham’s time.
2. Since scripture has been revealed, God does not tell anyone to do things contrary to His revealed commands. Even when the Holy Spirit also drove Jesus out into the wilderness, where Jesus was tempted by Satan, the Holy Spirit did not tempt Jesus or tell Jesus to do anything wrong.
3. God does not desire anyone to perform actions contrary to His desires. Even when God commanded Abraham to take Isaac as a sacrifice, God did not permit Abraham to carry through killing Isaac.
So God could tell Abraham that back then, because the Mosaic Law was not written yet. But then as well as today, God never wants someone to go through sacrificing a person.
See Now That’s A Good Question p.67-69 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 22:12, since God said "Now I know that you fear God", did God not know what Abram would do?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Of course God knew, but the expression means that it was at this point in time that Abraham proved what he would do.
Isaac was Abraham’s most important natural thing in life. But was Isaac more important than God? Abraham showed that God was first in his life. James 1 says that the testing of our faith produces perseverance. But while we might want a faith that never takes risks, that is not the faith that God grew in Abraham or others. Abraham had no choice in the type, circumstances, or timing of the test of his faith, and we usually do not either.
See When Critics Ask p.52 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 23, did the Hittites really exist?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Modern archaeologists found out about the Hittites as early as 1892. However, some scholars still doubted their existence even ten years later (1902, E.A.W. Budge). See Evidence That Demands a Verdict volume 2 p.339-341 for more information. Today entire books have been written on the Hittites. One excellent and very readable one is The Secret of the Hittites by C.W. Ceram (Dorset Press 1955).
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 23 and Ex 3:8, how could the Hittites be in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Palestine</st1:place></st1:city>?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Hittites were a wide-ranging people, and a colony settled in the mountains of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Palestine</st1:place></st1:city>. The Indo-European Hittites sacked <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Babylon</st1:place></st1:city> in 1590 B.C. Others believe this refers to the Hatti, a non-Indo-European people who were conquered before 2000 B.C. Hatti and Hitti are written the same in Hebrew. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.96-98 and When Critics Ask p.52-53 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 23:2, why was it mentioned that Kiriath-Arba is also called <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Hebron</st1:place></st1:city>?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There are two possible complementary reasons why <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Hebron</st1:place></st1:city> is mentioned here.
Remember that while Abraham lived around 2000 B.C., the Book of Genesis was written in Moses’ time, 1447-1407 B.C., so that town might have been called <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Hebron</st1:place></st1:city> by the Israelites and/or the Canaanites in Moses’ time. The Israelite spies knew the geography of <st1:place w:st="on">Canaan</st1:place> and perhaps used this name for the city in Moses’ time.
Regardless, the Israelites called the city only <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Hebron</st1:place></st1:city>, not Kiriath Arba, shortly after the conquest under Joshua. This simple explanatory note saying Kiriath Arba is now <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Hebron</st1:place></st1:city>, might have been added shortly thereafter.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 23:5, why did the Hittites consider Abraham a mighty prince among them?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Abraham was very wealthy. Abraham also had apparently cultivated close relations with them and they counted him as not only a friend, but also one of their own.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 23:9, how do you pronounce "Machpelah"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Cruden’s Concordance, the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary, and Harper’s bible Dictionary all say it is pronounced as "mak-PE-la", with only the "e" as long and the accent on the second syllable.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 23:15-16, why did Abraham have to weigh out the silver?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The shekel was a unit of weight, and only later became a unit of money also. Abraham had to "weigh" out the silver because coins were not used until about 800 B.C. according to Can Archaeology Prove the Old Testament? p.27. Likewise Achan stole gold and silver "weighing" 50 and 200 shekels. The Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.1798 says the first known coins were from <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Lydia</st1:place></st1:country-region> about 700 B.C. It also notes that the Latin word pecunia (from which English gets the word pecuniary meaning monetary) came from the Latin word pecus which is a word for cattle.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 24:1, why does God allow some of His children to suffer from old age?
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[FONT=&quot]A: We do not suffer from old age in Heaven, and the eternity of bliss in Heaven will make our brief time of troubles on earth seem small. See the discussion on Joshua 13:1 for the answer.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 24:15, what was the relation between Isaac and Rebecca?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Rebecca was daughter of Abraham’s nephew, which would make her the daughter of Isaac’s cousin.
Isaac and Rebecca could not have disobeyed Leviticus 18, because it was not written yet. However, it turns out their marriage was still within the guidelines of the future rules in Leviticus.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 25:1 was Keturah a wife or a concubine?
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[FONT=&quot]A: A concubine is considered a type of wife. Genesis 25:1 can mean either wife or concubine. See When Critics Ask p.53 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 25:2, what happened to Keturah’s sons?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Abraham and Keturah had six known sons.
Zimran is possibly the ancestor to an Arabian tribe, the Zimri in Jeremiah 25:25. Today there is a town of <st1:city w:st="on">Zambran</st1:city> on the Red Sea west of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Mecca</st1:place></st1:city>.
Jokshan, is never heard of again, except that he was the ancestor of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Sheba</st1:place></st1:country-region> and Dedan. <st1:country-region w:st="on">Sheba</st1:country-region> was a nation in the southwest corner of the <st1:place w:st="on">Arabian peninsula</st1:place>. The Dedanim of Isaiah 21:13 were Arabs who probably were descended both from Jokshan and Ham through Cush (Genesis 10:7; 1 Chronicles 1:9). The city of Dedan was <st1:metricconverter productid="100 miles" w:st="on">100 miles</st1:metricconverter> (<st1:metricconverter productid="160 km" w:st="on">160 km</st1:metricconverter>) southwest of Tema on the el-’Ula oasis, <st1:metricconverter productid="175 miles" w:st="on">175 miles</st1:metricconverter> (<st1:metricconverter productid="280 km" w:st="on">280 km</st1:metricconverter>) north of Medina. Dedan is also mentioned in proto-Arabic Sabean and Minaean inscriptions.
<st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Medan</st1:place></st1:city> is possibly mentioned outside of the Bible. The Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.1093 says that the consonants "m" and "b" are interchanged often in Arabic, so these might be the Bedana tribe, which the Assyrian Tiglath-pileser III conquered.
Midian was a well-known tribe that oppressed the Israelites in Judges 8.
Ishbak started a tribe that settled in north <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Syria</st1:place></st1:country-region> and was mentioned in the Assyrian Annals of Shalmaneser III (858-824 B.C.).
Shuah was apparently the tribe from which Bildad the Shuhite came in Job 2:11.
See the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary for more info on these names.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 25:6, how many wives and concubines did Abraham have?
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[FONT=&quot]A: While it does not really matter, we do not know the exact number. After Sarah died, Abraham had Keturah as a wife in Genesis 25:1. Hagar was one of his concubines, but Genesis 25:6 indicates that Abraham had more than one concubine. See Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.284 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 25:8,17 and Gen 49:33, how did the patriarchs "give up the ghost"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This is a rough translation of the Hebrew word gâva’, which literally means to breathe out or expire. A more precise translation would be "breathed his last".
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 25:8,17 and Gen 49:33, Abraham and Jacob were "gathered to his people", so how could there be life after death?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This is an expression meaning the person died, and it sounds much better than "kicked the bucket". See the previous question, Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.98-99, and Hard Sayings of the Bible p.127-129 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 25:13, do the references to Kedar relate to Mohammed?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 25:13 mentions Kedar, the son of Ishmael, but there is doubt on Mohammed’s ancestry of Ishmael and Kedar. Regardless, though, Genesis 25:13 mentioning twelve sons of Ishmael, including Kedar, does not say anything good or bad about them. al-Tabari vol.6 p.6, records three things:
1) There are differences among genealogists about Mohammed’s ancestry after ‘Adnan, (p.37)
2) Many but not all genealogies include Mohammed … ‘Adnan … Nabt b. Qaydhar [Kedar?], b. Isma’il [Ishmael]
3) "These differences arise because it is an old science, taken from the people of the first Book (the Old Testament)."
So if the early Muslim historian al-Tabari acknowledges that they took genealogy names from the Jews and the Old Testament, it is not a completely independent witness.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 25:22-23, Rebekah’s question concerned the present and near future, yet God’s answer told of the far future. Why does God do that?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Five points to consider in the answer.
1. God apparently wanted to reveal this prophetic truth about Jacob and Esau.
2. Like good human teachers, God knows that a point will be remembered better if it is an answer to a student’s question.
3. Regardless of whether God caused the babies to jostle solely to prompt Rebekah to ask the question, the jostling did prompt here to ask the question.
4. Perhaps Rebekah was not thinking long-term at this point, but here question was open-ended enough that God’s revelation still answered her question.
5. When we ask things of God, we should ask in an "open way" and not just on our terms. We should be prepared for God to show us truths we did not expect and for which we did not directly ask.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 25:31-33, was Jacob’s birthright gained by buying, or by lying?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Both.
1. Jacob "bought" it from Esau for a bowl of lentils (Genesis 25:29-34).
2. Jacob later deceived Isaac in giving the birthright Esau had already chosen to relinquish. (Genesis 27:19)
Haley’s Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.345 points out that Jacob bought only the birthright, but lied to get the blessing.
Independent of both the purchase and the deception, God chose to have His people, the Jews, come through Jacob Genesis 26:24-24). See When Critics Ask p.55 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 26:2, were the Israelites supposed to go down to Egypt, or not?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Isaac was told not to go down to <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> in Genesis 26:2. Jacob, not Isaac, was told to go there in Genesis 46:3. In a similar way, In 2 Samuel 7:5,12-13 David was told that is was not he, but his son that was to build the Temple in Jerusalem. The lesson here is not that going to <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> is good or bad, but that that we should go where God wants us to go, when God wants us to go.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 26:3-5, Gen 12:1; Gen 17:1, 9-14; and Gen 22:16 did God bless Abraham because of Abraham’s works?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. For either Abraham or people in general, there are two distinct issues here: salvation and blessings.
Salvation: Abraham’s works were not important, in the sense that they did not get him to Heaven. Abraham’s works were very important in being the visible expression of his faith in God, and inseparable from his faith in God.
Blessings: Because of works, both Abraham and us often receive both blessings this life and rewards in the next.
James gives Abraham as an example of Abraham being justified by works. Abraham "believed God and it was creditied to him as righteousness" a decade or two before he almost sacrificed Isaac.
God’s covenant had both an invariant element and a conditional element. Leviticus 26:44-45 shows that even if God’s people fail on the conditional element, the invariant element still stands. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.129-130 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 26:6-7, why is Isaac a role-model for us, since Isaac lied here?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. See the answer to Genesis 12:10-20.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 26:8-9, was this the same Abimelech of Gerar as in Gen 20:2-3?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Based on the name, probably not. Abimelech means "Father is king". On one hand there are many instances of a father and son or descendant having the same name. On the other hand, here it is probably a title, not a personal name, as 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.42 say.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 26:33, did Abraham name the town of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Beersheba</st1:place></st1:city>, or did Isaac?
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[FONT=&quot]A: In Genesis 21:31, it was called <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Beersheba</st1:place></st1:city> in Abraham’s time because of the oath between Abraham and the Abimelech. Isaac certainly knew this from living in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Beersheba</st1:place></st1:city> with his father in Genesis 22:19. In order to remind Abimelech, who was probably the son of Abimelech in Abraham’s time of the previous covenant, he named a new well a similar name, "Shibah". See When Critics Ask p.55-56 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 26:34 and Gen 36:2-3, who were Esau’s four wives?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Wives 1-2: At 40, Esau married two Hittites, Judith and Basemath daughter of Elon (Genesis 26:34-35).
Adah, daughter of Elon the Hittite (Genesis 36:2), is probably another name for Basemath.
Wife 3: After Jacob left, Esau married the Ishmaelite Mahalath, sister of Nabaioth (Genesis 28:8-9)
Basemath, the daughter of Ishmael and sister of Nabaioth (Genesis 36:3), is probably another name for Mahalath.
Wife 4: Esau married Oholibamah daughter of Anah (Genesis 36:3).
Judith was probably not mentioned in the genealogies in Genesis 36, because she bore no children.
See When Critics Ask p.56 and Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.99-101 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 27, why did God allegedly approve Jacob deceiving Isaac, and tricking Laban in Gen 31:20?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God did not approve of Jacob’s lies. First, the Bible accurately and honestly records the evil things as well as the good things people did. Second, even God’s people in the Bible have done wrong things. As 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.43 says, "God did not bless Jacob because he lied and used deceit but in spite of it." See also Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.101-102 and When Critics Ask p.57-58.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 27, why was the blessing important?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Normally, the firstborn got the blessing, which meant a double share of inheritance, as well as being the family head. A 15th century B.C. tablet from Nuzi tells of a lawsuit between three brothers, as to who would marry a woman named Zululishtar. One brother won because he could show that his father authorized the marriage on his deathbed. See 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.42-43 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 27:29, what does the Hebrew word "lord" literally mean?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Hebrew word here, gebiyr (pronounced gheb-EER) can be translated two ways: master or hero. In the case of Esau and his descendants it was an [unwanted] master. In our lives, if God has placed someone over you that you dislike, you can choose to treat them as an unwanted master or a hero.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 27:39-40, why couldn’t Isaac bless Esau as he blessed Jacob?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Bible does not say why Isaac held the belief (whether right or wrong) that he could not bless both of them. However, Evidence That Demands a Verdict vol. 2 p.328-329 says that according to the tables of that time found in the city of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Nuzi</st1:place></st1:city>, deathbed wills were considered valid and irrevocable. See also the answer to the next question.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 27:39-40, why did God not bless Esau as he blessed Jacob?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There are three complementary reasons.
1. Romans 9:10-15 shows that God can do as He pleases without telling us his reasons.
2. Esau was heathen (godless) (Hebrews 12:16), and Jacob was a deceiver; God would have been just to curse both. Instead both received blessing (Hebrews 11:20).
3. God has the right to choose to give special mercy and love to only some as He sees fit. — just ask Paul.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 27:42-44 did Jacob go to the town of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Haran</st1:place></st1:city> to flee Esau, or to get a wife?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Both. Sometimes there are multiple reasons to do one thing. Rebekah told Jacob to go to flee Esau in Genesis 27:42-46, but she told Isaac the reason was to find a wife in Genesis 27:46. Isaac’s reason to send Jacob was to find a wife in Genesis 28:1-6. See When Critics Ask p.56-57 and Haley’s Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.345 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 27:45, does "both" refer to Jacob and Isaac or Jacob and Esau?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The NIV Study Bible p.47 says it could be either way. However, it is more likely to be Isaac and not Esau because Isaac was near death, Esau would kill Jacob right after that, and there was no threat to Esau.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 27:46, were Esau’s wives Hittite, or Canaanite?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Can someone be both a Texan and an American? The Hittites in Canaan were one of the peoples of <st1:place w:st="on">Canaan</st1:place>.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 28, were Rebekah and Jacob successful in getting what they wanted?
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[FONT=&quot]A: On the surface yes, but in actuality, no. They wanted Jacob to have the birthright, and by wrong means, lying and deception, they got it, so they were successful.
However, the son with the birthright usually had an honored place in the family afterwards; yet, Jacob had to flee for his life. Rebekah succeeded in helping her favored son; yet, she would never see Jacob on earth again. As Women in the Bible points out, Rebekah would have to live with the son she had wronged for the rest of her life. See Women in the Bible (by Georgia B. Settle 1978) for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 29:15-25, why should we admire Laban in the Bible, since he deceived and lied to Jacob?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Whoever said we should admire Laban? We should not. This question presupposes the Bible can only talk God’s people in a vacuum, and it cannot mention the other people with whom they had to deal. Of course the Bible talks of evil people as well as good people. Furthermore, the Bible shows us that even the good people were not good all the time either.
An analogy might help here. Someone might say, "you cannot admire American heroes. Look for example at John Wilkes Booth, who shot Abraham Lincoln." Well, we can read how John Wilkes Booth played a significant role in American history, but he was no American hero.
Laban played a role in the history of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>, but he was no hero either. The analogy of Booth might seem a bit silly, since no one looks up to Booth as a hero, but bringing up Laban to criticize people who we should look up to in the Bible, (as an atheist actually did), seems out of place, too.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 29:21-30, when was Rachel given to Jacob?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Jacob worked for seven years, was given Leah, waited a week, and then was given Rachel at that time in return for the promise of another seven years. See When Critics Ask p.57, 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.44, and Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.101 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 29:28, why did Jacob marry two sisters, since Lev 18:18 forbids marrying two sisters while both are alive?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Leviticus 18:18 was a part of the Mosaic Law, which was given over 400 years after Jacob married his wives. Certainly one could not demand Jacob obey a law he had not heard, and God had not commanded them yet.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 29:31, why did God not just tell Jacob to love Leah too, instead of just making Rachel barren?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Sometimes people can only learn lessons the hard way. Are we any different?
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 30:8, how do you pronounce "Naphtali"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Cruden’s Concordance, the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary, and Harper’s Bible Dictionary all say it is pronounced "NAF-ta-li", with short, a long i, and the accent on the first syllable.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 30:14-15, doesn’t using mandrakes sound like a superstition?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Much of folk medicine does not work. The long time Rachel was childless afterwards clearly indicates that mandrakes had nothing to do with God opening Rachel’s womb. This passage shows that even believers can make mistakes and hope in foolish cures.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 30:27, how could Laban use divination to find out about Jacob?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Assuming Laban was telling the truth here, sometimes people get correct answers by divination. However, even if divination gave all truth instead of a mixture of truth and error, believers should not follow Laban’s example because God said not to practice divination in Deuteronomy 18:10,14. By the way, Laban’s divination did not give him the result he desired in Genesis 31:1-2,9.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 30:37-43, doesn’t Jacob "causing" sheep and goats to become spotted sound like superstition?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: There is no hint of superstition, only faulty ideas about animal genetics. God blessed Jacob without regard for this, as Jacob himself knew in Genesis 31:7-13.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 31:23 and Gen 37:25, is Gilead an anachronism, since Num 26:26 says that Manasseh was the grandfather of <st1:place w:st="on">Gilead</st1:place>?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Not at all. First a point that is not relevant to the answer, and then the answer.
Not a part of the answer: <st1:place w:st="on">Gilead</st1:place> was a somewhat common name. Gilead was not only a descendant of Manasseh (Numbers 26:29-30 and Joshua 17:1), but a different Gilead was Jephthah’s father (Judges 11:1), and a third <st1:place w:st="on">Gilead</st1:place> was from Gad (1 Chronicles 5:14).
The answer is that the word "<st1:place w:st="on">Gilead</st1:place>" shows the time of the writing. Jacob and Joseph would not have called the region <st1:place w:st="on">Gilead</st1:place>, but nobody claims the Book of Genesis was written in the time of Jacob and Joseph. Rather, Genesis was written in Moses’ time. The two and a half <st1:place w:st="on">Transjordan</st1:place> tribes were already going to receive their land before Moses died.
An anachronism is when a document that claims to be written at one time uses words or terms that would only be used at a later time. It is not an anachronism to use words at the time of writing to describe a prior time. For example, it is no anachronism, when someone in the twentieth century says the region of Gilead was in the country of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jordan</st1:place></st1:country-region>. Jacob, Joseph, and Moses did not know of the modern country of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jordan</st1:place></st1:country-region>, but then, nobody claims that they did.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 31:32,34, how could the Bible [allegedly] approve Rachel stealing idols from her father?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: It does not approve of Rachel’s theft. The household gods not only had religious connotations, possessing them meant the right of inheritance according to the tablets, written around Moses’ time found in the city of Nuzi.
Hard Sayings of the Bible p.130-131 gives the text of the Nuzi tablet, but it also advocates that Rachel’s religious attachment to these idols might be involved. Can Archaeology Prove the Old Testament? p.28 also mentions these tables.
While some might sympathize with Rachel’s spiteful attitude, the Bible does not condone this, it only records this. Rachel died in childbirth only a few years after taking the Gods in Genesis 35:17-19, so those household gods certainly did not do her any good. The Bible is not a book about perfect superheroes, but about very real people who had many faults, — like we have. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.101-102, When Critics Ask p.58, and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.45 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 31:47, since Genesis was written at an early date, why are two Aramaic words in this verse?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: This indicates that Aramaic existed side by side with Hebrew at an early date. Remember, the Arameans were living in Syria where Laban lived. Jacob’s wives were from there. Alternately, these may be words common with early Hebrew.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 32:22-32, was Jacob renamed to Israel here, or was Jacob renamed to Israel in Gen 35:9-10? (A liberal Christian mentioned this as evidence that multiple authors wrote Genesis.)
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 32:22-32 is very detailed, and tells how Jacob wrestles with God, and is renamed Israel. Genesis 35 gives a summary of Jacob’s life, and two verses, 35:9-10 mention Jacob being renamed so that we can place where the narrative in Genesis 32 occurred. Yes, these two verses are repetition, but this is helpful to the story, not an inadvertent inclusion of something twice. Today, when people write, they often repeat what they say in the body of an essay in the conclusion, but that does not mean the different parts of the essay were by multiple authors.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 32:27-28, why was Jacob renamed Israel?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: While the Bible does not say there are two possibilities, and both may be true.
The act of renaming showed that God is in control of their whole life, even their name, and that they were a different person, with a different destiny, because of God. I suppose when we get to heaven we can just ask Abram, Simon and Saul of Tarsus about this, or rather should I say Abraham, Peter, and Paul.
Names had great meaning in those times, and Israel apparently means "God perseveres" or else "He perseveres with God." as 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.45-46 says, and is linked to "you have struggled with God" according to The Expositor’s Bible Commentary vol.2 p.210.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 32:24,27, since Jacob wrestled with a man, who turned out to be an angel or God, is God an angel or man?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: God can appear as even a burning bush, but that does not make God a plant. While still being everywhere, God can also have a localized presence as anything He desires. See also the answer for Genesis 3:8 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 32:24-32, was Jacob wrestling with a literal angel, or was he just wrestling with an issue?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Nothing indicates we can add to Scripture that this was not a real angel.
See Now That’s A Good Question p.571-572 for more on the following three points:
1. Taking the Bible literally is the only honest way to interpret it
2. Taking the Bible literally does not mean to impose a wooden, concrete literalism
3. Taking the Bible literally means to interpret the book as it was written.
While the Jews Josephus and Philo interpreted Jacob’s wrestling as a dream, dreams do not leave hip joints permanently out of socket. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.131-133 and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.46 for more info.
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Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

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mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0cm 5.4pt 0cm 5.4pt; mso-para-margin:0cm; mso-para-margin-bottom:.0001pt; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:10.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <o:shapedefaults v:ext="edit" spidmax="1027"/> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <o:shapelayout v:ext="edit"> <o:idmap v:ext="edit" data="1"/> </o:shapelayout></xml><![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 32:24-30, is the Allah [God] of Christianity so weak that He takes all night to wrestle Jacob, as a Muslim mentioned?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: First of all it was God’s angel (whom Jacob called a man), not God Himself who wrestled. Jacob said He saw God face to face, but Jacob only encountered God through the angel. Regardless though, God sent this angel, who had the power to crush Jacob.
If a father wrestles his strong-willed two year old, and even let’s the two year old win at times, that does not make him a weak father. In like manner, God’s intention was to contend with Jacob’s stubbornness, not to destroy Jacob and his tenacity. God wanted to bring Jacob to an understanding of who he was, not kill him.
Imagine how great it would be if your body was the same except that it was 1,000 times stronger. You could excel at athletics, break through walls, and run very fast. However, every time you tried to pick up a flower, you crushed it, every time you held a little child’s hand you broke it, and every time you held your spouse, she went to the hospital. Maybe just having your muscles be 1,000 times stronger is not so good after all.
God is all-powerful, but God also has gentleness and finesse. God is infinitely times more powerful than us, but God has greater control over His own strength than we do of ours. Zephaniah 3:17 (NIV) gives an example of how the Almighty is gentle: "The LORD your God is you, his is mighty to save. He will take great delight in you, he will quiet you with his love, he will rejoice over you with singing."
In 1 Kings 19:11-13 God tells Elijah he will experience the presence of the Lord. It was not in the ensuing powerful wind, the earthquake, or the fire, but in a gentle whisper.
So to summarize, Christians worship a God who is gentle without being any less the Almighty.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 32:30, can someone see God’s face, since Ex 33:20 says nobody can and live?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Jacob saw an appearance of an angel; he at first thought it was a man, and he certainly did not see God in his glory face-to-face. See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.213-214, Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.399, and When Cultists Ask p.29-30 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 33 and Gen 36:7 did Esau and Jacob separate because their possessions were too great, or because of Jacob’s fear of Esau?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Both.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 33:18-19 and Josh 24:32, did Jacob purchase the land at Shechem, or did Abraham purchase it as Acts 7:15-16 and Gen 23:16-20 say?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Abraham purchased land in Mamre near <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Hebron</st1:place></st1:city> for Sarah in Genesis 23:16-20, but that is not in the same place. As for the land purchased in Shechem, there are two possible answers.
Jacob and Abraham bought it: Both Joshua 24:32 and Genesis 33:18-19 say Jacob, Abraham’s grandson, was the person who purchased the land near Shechem. Regardless of whether Abraham came to witness the purchase of the land with the money he passed on to Isaac or not, one could say that the clan of Abraham purchased the land. Even today, a teenager, with his father’s consent, can buy a car in his father’s name.
Stephen might be mistaken: Since Jacob purchased the land his sons were buried on, yet Jacob himself was buried at Mamre with Abraham, Stephen might have been accidentally combined these two separate events. Even if Stephen were mistaken, the Bible would still be inerrant. The Bible simply recorded, inerrantly, what Stephen said, mistake and all.
See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.142-145, 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.309, Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties 379-381, and the discussion on Genesis 50:13 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 33:18-19 what else do we know about the city of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Shechem</st1:place></st1:city>?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Though the city was in ruins in Abraham’s time, the site of the city was known, as Can Archaeology prove the Old Testament? p.26 says. Abraham did not purchase the city, but rather land near Shechem.
The Wycliffe Dictionary of Biblical Archaeology p.518-522 gives a lot of detail on Shechem. It was always being rebuilt because it was on a hill that could be fortified and had an excellent spring. Shechem was rebuilt around 1900 B.C., but Pharaoh Senusert III (ca.1880-1840 B.C.) captured it. Shechem was destroyed again about 1750 B.C. It was rebuilt, but was destroyed again by the Egyptians c.1550 B.C.. It was rebuilt, in the time of the Amarna letters (1500-1370 B.C.) which mention it as the center of the king Lab’ayu who was in confederation with the "Habiru" invaders. It was rebuilt, but destroyed by the Assyrians by the Aramaeans, King Menaham of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Israel</st1:place></st1:country-region>, and the Assyrians in 723 B.C.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 34:13-17, how could God [allegedly] condone Jacob’s sons replying deceitfully about Dinah?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God did not condone it, and Jacob’s two sons who killed the Shechemites were cursed for that.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 34:25-30, how could Simeon and Levi alone destroy an entire city?
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[FONT=&quot]A: They led the raid, but they had other servants, hired soldiers, and/or relatives under their leadership.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 35:1-5, what was the sequence of events here?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Here is the order.
1. Jacob was apparently lax about permitting foreign idols among his nomadic group.
2. God told Jacob he wanted Jacob to live in <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Bethel</st1:place></st1:city> and build an altar to Him.
3. Jacob correctly saw that if they were going to build an altar to God, it would not do to have any idols among them.
4. Once they fully dedicated themselves to the Lord, they had nothing to fear from the surrounding peoples.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 35:21, were all of Jacob’s sons born in Migdal Eber, or were they born earlier as other parts of Genesis say? (A liberal Christian brought this up as a contradiction.)
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 35:21-26 does not say every single son of Jacob was born in Migdal Eber, especially since in Genesis 35:19-20, Rachel, mother of two sons, had just died prior to them moving there. Genesis 35:21-26 simply lists the sons, following the account where Israel (=Jacob) pitched his tent beyond Migdal Eber.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 36, why should people be concerned with the genealogy of Esau’s descendents?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Admittedly this is not the most important chapter in the Bible. However, this chapter does show the claim of historical accuracy and attention to historical detail.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 36:2 was Zibeon a Hivite city, or a Horite city as Genesis 36:20 reads?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There are two possibilities:
Misspelling: Many scholars assume this is a misspelling in the Masoretic text, since in Hebrew Hivite is hwwt, and Horite is h[o]rrt. The Septuagint has Horites in Genesis 34:2 and Joshua 9:7.
Two names for one group or two merged groups: Horites (Hurrians) also settled in Palestine in the areas where Hivites lived, as evidenced by Hurrian personal names. Even the prince of Jerusalem in the 14th century B.C. had the Hurrian name of Abdi-Hepa.
See the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.801 for more info on both views.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 36:31, does the phrase "before any Israelite king reigned" show the date of authorship as Saul’s time or later?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. Not only was Moses able to know there would be a king over Israel (Deuteronomy 17:14-15), but all the Israelites back to Jacob’s time, would know Israel would have a king from Judah, because of Jacob’s prophecy in Genesis 49:10.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 37:3,23,32, is there any extra-Biblical evidence for a coat of many colors?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes, though not Joseph’s actual robe. Archaeologists have found "Asiatics", with coats of many colors, were drawn on the walls of the tomb of an Egyptian noble named Khnumhotep. See Pharaohs and Kings : A Biblical Quest p.332,360 for pictures and more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 37:17, is there any extra-Biblical evidence of making people "disappear" by throwing them into wells?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes. Joseph’s brothers were near Dothan, and Can Archaeology Prove the Old Testament? p.29 says a cistern at Dothan was found with several skeletons in it.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 37:17, were Joseph’s brothers planning to kill him, or did they decide to sell Joseph to Midianite traders as Gen 37:28-29 says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Both are true, because people can change their plans. Originally they planned to kill Joseph, except that Reuben planned to rescue him. However, when the saw the Midianite traders, they figure they could make some money off of Joseph and changed their plans. Naturally speaking one might think Joseph would have a "right" to become bitter over this. However, Joseph followed God, and hard times did not make him bitter, only better.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 37:25, were the traders Ishmaelites, or Midianites as Gen 37:28 says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: From a distance the brothers could not tell which people were coming, or if there were some of each. It did not matter to the brothers though, they just wanted the money. Either the word Ishmaelite or the word Midianite might be a copyist error. Or, the brothers thought they were Ishmaelites, but they actually were Midianites.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 37:28, was 20 shekels of silver about the right price for a slave like Joseph?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes. According to K.A. Kitchen in Ancient Orient and Old Testament Introduction p.52-53, this is the correct price about 1800 B.C. Centuries earlier they were 10 to 15 silver shekels, they were 30 silver shekels about the time of Moses, and later they were more expensive. In Hosea 3:2, a slave was worth about 30 shekels. See the Biblical Archaeology Review volume 21 no.2 p.53 for a graph of the price of a slave versus time.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 38:1-21, why is this account of Judah and Tamar in the Bible?
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[FONT=&quot]A: On a scale from a low (not as bad) of 1 to a high (worst) of 10, with sexual immorality being a 10, what would you call intentionally never intending to keep a promise someone was depending on for the rest of her life? - It certainly is more than a 1. There are at least three things we can learn from this.
1. Lest we think that Judah and the other patriarchs were more righteous than everyone else, this and other accounts bring us back to the reality that they were not particularly righteous.
2. The Bible gives us a candid, accurate account of how people lived back then. The Bible does not sugarcoat their history in the least. We can learn from what they did wrong as well as what they did right.
3. This shows a type of sin that is present today but is not often discussed: shirking responsibility. This is considered a very serious sin in God’s eyes, since Onan was killed because of it. Judah too did not act responsibility toward his daughter-in-law, and he broke his own word. Judah did not give his son in marriage to Tamar, because he feared for his son’s life, because he mistrusted God’s goodness. Obviously, Jacob did not think Onan deserved death for refusing to fulfill his responsibility.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 38:29-30, what do Zerah/Zarah and Perez/Pharez mean?
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[FONT=&quot]A: First what they mean, and then two applications. Strong’s, Bible dictionaries, and commentaries all agree that Perez/Pharez means breakthrough or a breach. He breached or opened the womb. There is a slight difference of opinion on Zerah/Zarah though.
Scarlet: Because of the scarlet thread tied on his hand, "Zerah therefore may mean ‘scarlet’" according to the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.1844.
It means brightness or redness according to the New International Bible Commentary p.139.
It means ‘scarlet’ according to The Bible Knowledge Commentary : Old Testament p.89.
Rising: Zerah comes from the Hebrew word Zerah, ‘rising’ according to The New International Dictionary of the Bible p.1085.
A reason for the difference of opinion can be found in Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance (word 2226).It says it is the same as 2225 "zerach, zeh’-rakh from 2224; a rising of light:- rising." 2224 says "zarach, zaw-rakh’; a prim. Root; prop, to irradiate (or shoot forth beams), i.e. to rise (as the sun); spec. to appear (as a symptom of leprosy): - arise, rise (up), as soon as it is up. So the word Zerah came from the sunrise, and it could refer to the actual rising, or it could refer to the scarlet red color of the dawn.
The Messianic line in Matthew 1:3 briefly mentions the births of both Perez and Zerah. In His first coming Jesus said that He would bring division in Luke 12:51. Paul speaks of the brightness of Christ’s second coming in 2 Thessalonians 2:8. So the twins came in the order of the two comings of Christ. However, on the other hand, John 1:5,9 mentions that Jesus was the true light that gives light to every man, and that He came into the world.
Achan, who was executed in Joshua 7 was a descendant of Zerah. so a person having a special or godly ancestry does not guarantee they are necessarily righteous or can escape judgment. It has been said that "God has no grandchildren." In other words, either you are child of God or you are not. But you cannot claim a relationship with God solely because of your parent’s faith and not your own.
See also the Believer’s Bible Commentary p.73 and The Expositor’s Bible Commentary p.232-244 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 39:7-10, since the Ten Commandments were not written yet, what would have been wrong with Joseph sleeping with his master’s wife?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Joseph did not need the Ten Commandments to know that doing this would totally betray the trust his master had in him. Joseph also said this would be a sin against God.
Some people operate according to the letter of the law, only. However, that was not the way Joseph acted, and that is not the way Christians are supposed to act. Instead of just asking "can I get away with this", or "is there any absolute black-and-white prohibition against this", we should instead be asking "what would be pleasing to God".
There is an interesting Arab tale illustrating the mindset of only obeying the letter of the law. Once a man made a deal with an evil genie. They both signed a paper, where the genie’s part of the deal was to provide him with the most beautiful woman he could imagine as his wife and that the genie would not harm him. The genie disappeared, and later a beautiful woman came and wanted to be his wife. Unknown to the man, the woman was the genie in disguise. One night the "woman" asked the man to see the agreement. When the man picked up the agreement, the genie caused some wax from the candle to cover over the word "not" in "not to harm the man", and the genie killed the man.
It is interesting that, to some, a bit of candle wax is all that was required to justify invalidating the promise the two made. Today some people think it is fine and proper to renege on an agreement for reasons that are hardly any more substantial. For true believers in God, not only do we keep our word to the letter, but we also keep the intent of our word, and do not let flimsy reasons serve as excuses for being dishonest.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 40:15, how was Joseph carried off from the land of the Hebrews?
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[FONT=&quot]A: On one hand Jacob was coming from the land that was the promised and future possession of the Israelite Hebrews. On the other hand, we think of Hebrew as synonymous with Israelite, but it was not the case back then. A Hebrew, or ‘Apiru, also meant a nomad, and Abram was called a Hebrew. Thus, Joseph either meant his descent from Abraham and living in Abraham’s new land, or else that he was from a land of nomads, or both.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 40:20-22, Mt 14:6, and Mk 6:21, are birthdays bad to celebrate since the only birthdays [allegedly] in the Bible are when Pharaoh executed the baker and Herod executed John the Baptist?
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[FONT=&quot]A: No. Jehovah’s Witnesses try to use an argument from silence to prohibit birthday celebrations. Both Pharaoh and Herod were cruel, arbitrary rulers who killed people on non-birthdays too, but there are two stronger reasons why celebrating a special day for someone’s birth is OK.
Job was a godly man, and each of his sons celebrated banquets at their house "on their own day" in Job 1:4. The phrase "their own day" means their birthday as showed by Job cursing "his day", which was the day he was born in Job 3:1-3.
Also, the angel Gabriel announced that many will rejoice over the birth of John the Baptist (Luke 1:14) and if angels could celebrate the birth of Jesus, it is OK for us to celebrate His birth too.
See Jehovah’s Witnesses Answered Verse by Verse p.24-26 for a more extensive discussion.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 41:32, why would Pharaoh make a non-Egyptian second-in-command?
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[FONT=&quot]A: While kings can sometimes do strange things, in this case it made very good sense. If Joseph tried to rebel, Egyptians would not follow him. It is recorded that Canaanites, such as Meri-Ra, Ben-Mat-Ana, and a Semite Yanhamu deputy of Amenhotep III had high positions in the Egyptian Court. (Amenhotep III became Pharaoh after the Israelites had left Egypt.) See Evidence That Demands a Verdict vol.2 p.331, Can Archaeology Prove the Old Testament? p.29, and 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.47 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 41:45, was Joseph’s Egyptian name, Zaphenath-Paneah, a title or an Egyptian name?
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[FONT=&quot]A: It probably meant "he who is called life" or similar. There is no evidence of any Egyptians having a title like this, so it probably was a name. Pharaoh probably wanted Joseph to be able to appear more Egyptian to many of his officials. It does not mean Joseph abandoned his original name though. It is sort of like when people came from China to the West, many times they also assume a western name, and when people go from the West to China, many times they also assume a Chinese name.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 41:45, is there any extra-Biblical evidence for Joseph’s Egyptian name, Zaphenath-Paneah?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes. While scholars do not know any of the names of the viziers of Egypt during the centuries around Joseph’s time, archaeologists have found a connection.
Zaphenath: Joseph’s Egyptian name in Genesis 41:45 was probably transmitted down to us with the ‘t’ and ‘p’ switched. Zat-en-aph means "he who is called" which was a common phrase. Papyrus Brooklyn 35.1446 shows many examples of Asiatics given Egyptian names. Many of these names have "he/she who is called as the first part.
Paneah: "Pa" or "Pe would represent the Egyptian Ipi or Ipu. "anea" is similar to the Egyptian ankh, which means "life" or ankhu which means "is alive". Pharaohs and Kings : A Biblical Quest p.350 concludes by saying the name Ipiankhu and variations were common in the time of Joseph but not very common earlier or later.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 41:51, how do you pronounce "Manasseh"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Cruden’s Concordance says it is pronounced as man-A-sah with the first "a" as long and the accent on the second syllable. The Wycliffe Bible Dictionary and Harper’s Bible Dictionary do not have any long vowels, but also have the accent on the second syllable.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 41:57, since the famine was severe in all the world, why did every place in the world not experience famine?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This phrased expressed that the famine was severe beyond Egypt too.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 42:6-20, why did Joseph treat his estranged brothers this way?
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[FONT=&quot]A: While the Bible neither approves nor criticizes this strategy, this proved shrewd on Joseph’s part. Joseph wanted to know what their attitude was toward the other son of his mother, and what they had learned over the years. He wanted to see what was in their hearts before opening his heart to them.
While no one today will likely be in the same situation, the general principle is still valid of trying to know something of what is in a person’s heart before taking them into your confidence. In a different context, Jesus said not to throw your pearls before swine in Matthew 7:6.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 43:9 (KJV), what is "surety"?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This means a guarantee. The King James Version translated this accurately; however most people today might not know what this means, so "formal guarantee" is a better translation today.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 44:5, how could Joseph, a godly man, claim to use divination?
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[FONT=&quot]A: It does not say Joseph ever used that cup, only that he told his brothers he used that cup for divination. According to Genesis 44:15, Joseph was apparently not very concerned about the cup. We should avoid even the appearance of evil (2 Corinthians 8:22; 1 Thessalonians 5:22), and even Joseph was not a perfect person.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 45:6 and Gen 47:28, did the Israelites become slaves while Joseph was still alive?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Yes. Looking at Genesis 37:2; 41:1; 41:29-39; 45:6; 47:28, Joseph was in Egypt for 71 years of his 110-year life. So the Hebrews became slaves again while Joseph was still alive, because they were slaves in Egypt for 400 years, and in Egypt for a total of 430 years.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 45:8, 50:19, does God enslave godly people? Did God enslave Joseph, or Joseph’s brothers?
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[FONT=&quot]A: This is an example of the theological concept called concurrence. God not only knew the evil they would freely and voluntarily decide to do if in that situation, God enabled them to be in that situation and carry out their heart’s intent. Furthermore, God planned for and used their evil to bring about good. As Romans 8:28 says, "...in all things God works together for good for those who love Him...". All things include even evil things.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 46:3-4, is God speaking to Joseph as an individual, or his descendants?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Both. God is merging the two when he tells Jacob that "you" will be made into a great nation. While Jacob did die in Egypt, his body was brought back to Palestine for burial. This was a sign that "you" plural would come out Egypt 430 years later.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 46:4, why did Jacob die in Egypt, since God promised he would take him out of there?
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[FONT=&quot]A: People thought in terms of their descendants as well as themselves. Jacob’s descendants were taken out of Egypt. In addition, Jacob’s body was taken out of Egypt in Genesis 50:13-14. See When Critics Ask p.59 and Haley’s Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.345 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 46:8-27, are there 12, 13, or 14 tribes?
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[FONT=&quot]A: There were 12 sons of Israel (10 + Levi + Joseph)
There were 12 fighting divisions and tribes with land (10 + Joseph’s two sons Manasseh and Ephraim and not Levi.)
See When Critics Ask p.59-60 and Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.103 and for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 46:33, is there any extra-Biblical evidence that shepherds were detestable to the Egyptians?
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[FONT=&quot]A: We do not have any direct proof, but we do have a couple of pieces of information.
1. When the foreign Hyksos ruled Egypt, later Egyptians called the despised foreign rulers "the shepherd kings".
2. During the time of Joseph, archaeologists say a large group of Asiatics lived in the Nile Delta. According to Pharaohs and Kings: A Biblical Quest p.354 analyzing the skeletal remains of sheep showed that about this time Asiatic settlers first brought long-haired sheep into the Nile Delta region of Egypt.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 47:11, how could Jacob’s family live in the region of Rameses, when the city of Rameses had not been built yet?
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[FONT=&quot]A: They settled in the region of the Nile Delta where the Hebrew slaves would later build the city of Rameses. While it was not known as that when Jacob settled there, the city of Rameses had been built by the time Moses wrote Genesis.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 47:20-21, how could God approve of Joseph enslaving the people of Egypt to Pharaoh?
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[FONT=&quot]A: God did not comment on it, but allowed this income tax of 20% in Genesis 47:23-26.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 47:31, did Jacob die at the head of his bed, or leaning on his staff as Heb 11:21 says?
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[FONT=&quot]A: While one could be in a bed leaning on a staff to sit up to speak, there is a simpler explanation. The consonants for "bed" and "staff" are the same in Hebrew, and the Old Testament was originally written with only consonants. The Masoretic text put the vowels in to make this "bed", while the Septuagint translated this as "staff". Hebrews 11:21 in Greek says staff. See When Critics Ask p.522-523 and Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.421 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 48:5, what was the significance of Jacob saying that Manasseh and Ephraim belonged to him?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Apparently in the future dividing up of the land, Manasseh and Ephraim were considered in the same category as Jacob’s immediate sons. Thus, Joseph’s descendants received two shares of land, not one. Often the firstborn received a double share. While Joseph was not the firstborn chronologically, he had been given the right of the firstborn.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 49 and Dt 33, how were these prophecies fulfilled?
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[FONT=&quot]A: For each son, a summary of the prophecies is given, and then the fulfillment. In general, Genesis 49 gave many prophecies, and Deuteronomy has only a few hints of the future in Moses’ prayers.
Reuben, though biologically the firstborn, would excel no longer. Reuben settled on the east side of the Jordan River, and was never a large tribe. According to the Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.103, Moab subjugated Reuben in the ninth century (900-800 B.C.), according to an inscription on the Moabite stone (850 B.C.). This was after the time of Solomon between the reigns of Asa and Joash in Judah.
Simeon would be dispersed in Israel. Simeon settled in the middle of Judah (Judges 1:3), and they lost much of their tribal identity as they were dispersed within Judah.
Levi would also be dispersed in Israel. The Levites were not given land, only towns to live in throughout Israel. They were to be the teachers of Israel. During the days of the divided kingdom, many of them moved south to Judah.
Judah will be praised of his brothers, his hand will be on the neck of his enemies, and other sons will bow down to him. Judah will be like a lion. The scepter will not depart until Shiloh comes. David and subsequent rulers of the southern kingdom all came from the tribe of Judah. Jesus was from David’s descendants, both biologically through Mary, and "legally" by His adopted father, Joseph. Genesis 49-10-12 are Messianic according to the Targum Jonathan, the Targum pseudo-Jonathan, the Targum Onkelos, and the Babylonian Talmud.
Zebulun will live by the sea and his border extended toward Sidon in Phoenicia. This prophecy of their location was fulfilled.
Issachar would be in a good and comfortable resting place, and will do forced labor. Issachar was subject to foreigners along with the other northern tribes under the Assyrians in 732 B.C.
Dan will provide justice, like a vicious serpent. Like a lion’s cub, he would spring out of Bashan. Dan inherited in the central part (far from Bashan), but when they viciously attacked Laish in Judges 18, they moved to the north near Bashan.
Gad will be attacked, but will attack them in return. They are blessed who enlarge Gad’s domain. This might prophetically refer to Jephthah the Gadite, who defeated the Ammonites.
Asher would have rich and delicate food. Asher will be strong all his days. Asher had few difficulties in warfare, though they had some assimilation into the Phoenician culture.
Naphtali will be like a female deer that bears beautiful fawns. Naphtali will inherit southward to the lake. Naphtali did not play a major role in many wars, and they settled by the Sea of Galilee.
Joseph will be a fruitful vine, whose branches climb over a wall. Archers will shoot at him, but his bow will remain steady. Like a prince among his brothers. Joseph will have abundance. The two half-tribes of Joseph, Ephraim and Manasseh, were the most populous after Judah. Indeed Ephraim later became a synonym for the northern kingdom, just like Judah became a synonym for the southern kingdom.
Benjamin would be a ravenous wolf. Ehud the Benjamite was a judge who killed Eglon of Moab. Benjamin, though a small tribe, fiercely fought against the other tribes in Judges 20.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 49:3 and Dt 21:17, what does "the beginning of a man's strength" mean? Some translations suggest this is talking about the beginning of a man's procreative ability or his virility. Ps 127 may suggest something else in reference to the term when it speaks about the children of a man's youth being like arrows in the quiver of a mighty warrior.
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[FONT=&quot]A: A man can be fertile and never have kids, though without children it is not proven that he is fertile. But to split hairs, there are four possibilities for its precise meaning.
a) a baby, which also shows that a man can have more children after this.
b) a male son, who can support the family when the man is old and fight for the country.
c) This is a phrase of the right of the firstborn son.
d) a descendant, which means the man can have an enduring line.
I think d) is probably in view here, because having offspring to carry on the line was very important in that culture. In fact, when a married man died with no offspring, his brother was to marry his wife and the first son would carry the dead brother's name.
c) is definitely also in view in Deuteronomy 21:16-17
But I also think b) is in view here, as Psalm 127:4-5 says.
However, "the beginning..." is not something multiple children have, or that they together were "the beginning". This implies that the child was the beginning of the man's strength when the child was born, which would show that a) was in view. Reuben lost the right of the first born, but in Genesis 49:3 he was still biologically the firstborn, the "first sign of my strength".
So my view is all of the above.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 49:5-7, how could Jacob curse Levi, since Moses later blessed Levi in Dt 33:8-11?
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[FONT=&quot]A: Levi’s descendants were scattered throughout Israel because of this cruel act. Levi’s descendants were blessed by being given the privilege of teaching Israel. There is a lesson to learn here. A curse, when we bear up under it and follow God, can turn into a blessing. See When Critics Ask p.60-61 for more info.
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[FONT=&quot]Q: Since Gen 49:10 says the scepter will not depart until "Shiloh" comes, how could this be the Messiah?
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[FONT=&quot]A: The Greek and Latin translations have "the one to whom it belongs." This was understood to be Messianic by historic Jewish interpreters, as the Aramaic targum translates this "Messiah". This is also Messianic according to the Targum Jonathan and the Targum Pseudo-Jonathan (=Targum Yerushalmi I, = Targum Ezez). The Jews lost the right to capital punishment in <st1:metricconverter productid="11 A" w:st="on">11 A</st1:metricconverter>.D., as the Babylonian Talmud mentions in Sanhedrin chapter 4 following 51b; chapter 4 following 37; recto. Ezekiel 21:27 has a parallel construction as Genesis 49:10.
Others would see this as the official ruler of Palestine. Under the Romans, the Jewish king Archelaus was dethroned and the Roman procurator Coponius replaced him.
As a side note, The Expositor’s Bible Commentary vol.1 p.224 says the Babylonian Talmud states the Targum Jonathan was written by Jonathan bin Uzziel, who lived in the first century B.C. and was Hillel’s most prominent pupil.
In a Dead Sea Scroll Commentary on Genesis (4Q252 [=4QpGen(a)), fragment <st1:metricconverter productid="2 in" w:st="on">2 in</st1:metricconverter> discussing Genesis 49:10, says "Whenever Israel rules, there shall [not] fail to be a descendant of David upon the throne. For the ruler’s staff is the Covenant of kingship, [and the clans] of Israel are the divisions, until the Messiah of Righteousness comes, the Branch of David. The Dead Sea Scrolls in English 4th ed. p.300-302 also points out that this commentary sees the Jewish Hasmonean kings as illegitimate rulers, since they were not from Judah.
Josephus in his book, Wars of the Jews (93-<st1:metricconverter productid="94 A" w:st="on">94 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) book 2 chapter 8 says, "And now Archelaus’ part of Judea was reduced into a province, and Caponius, one of the Equestrian order of the Romans, was sent as a procurator, having the power of life and death put into his hands by Caesar." Josephus also mentions that the Sanhedrin lost power over capital cases in Antiquities of the Jews 20.9. (written about 93-<st1:metricconverter productid="94 A" w:st="on">94 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.)
The Jews themselves understood this as a Messianic prophecy. In the Babylonian Talmud, Sanhedrin, chapter 4 following 37, recto. Rabbi Rachman said, "When the members of the Sanhedrin found themselves deprived of the/their right over life and death, a general consternation took possession of them; they covered their heads with ashes, and their bodies with sackcloth, exclaiming: ‘Woe unto us, for the scepter has departed from Judah, and the Messiah has not come!’" This happened around <st1:metricconverter productid="7 A" w:st="on">7 A</st1:metricconverter>.D. (Taken from Josh McDowell’s Evidence That Demands a Verdict vol.1 p.169., and Jesus Before the Sanhedrin by Augustin Lemann, 1886 translated by Julius Magath, NL#0239683, Library of Congress # 15-24973. See also Pugio Fidei, Martini, Raymundus, published by De Vosin in 1651 (p.148).
Babylonian Talmud, Sanhedrin 98b, Rabbi Johanan wrote, "The world was created for the sake of the Messiah, what is this Messiah’s name" The school of Rabbi Shila said ‘his name is Shiloh, for it is written; until Shiloh come." (p.147)
Talmud "A little more than forty years before the destruction of the Temple, the power of pronouncing capital sentences was taken away from the Jews." Jerusalem Talmud, Sanhedrin folio 24. (p.147)
Targum Onkelos says, "The transmission of dominion shall not cease from the house of Judah, nor the scribe from his children’s children, forever, until Messiah comes." (The Messiah: An Aramaic Interpretation; The Messianic Exegesis of the Targum, Samson H. Levy (Cincinnati: Hebrew Union College Jewish Institute of Religion 1974) p.2 (p.146)
Targum Pseudo-Jonathan on Genesis 49:11a, "Kings and rulers shall not cease from the house of Judah … until King Messiah comes" ibid p.7
An additional Jewish source that indicates the Jews understood this was a Messianic prophecy are Targum Jonathan on Genesis 49:10,11a. (See Evidence That Demands a Verdict vol.1 p.148 for more info.) Justin Martyr (wrote about 138-<st1:metricconverter productid="165 A" w:st="on">165 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) mentions this as referring to Christ in his First Apology ch.32.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.134-135 and The Creator Beyond Time and Space by Mark Eastman and Chuck Missler for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 49:10 what exactly does the Hebrew word Shiloh mean here?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: The original Hebrew text did not have vowels, and because of that there is some uncertainty.
a) It could be a name referring to a person: Shiloh
b) It could mean "whose it is" or "belonging to him" siloh / selloh. The NIV uses it this way. There is some support for this from the Septuagint and Syriac Peshitta. Ezekiel 21:26-27 relates to this.
c) It could mean "tribute to him" say loh. This is in the NIV margin. This would be a parallel to the verse after this.
d) It could be the place Shiloh, according to the New Geneva Study Bible p.87
e) Finally, as The New International Bible Commentary p.146 reminds us, there are many wordplays in the Bible. so it could be more than one of these.
See also The Bible Knowledge Commentary : Old Testament p.98 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 49:10 says of the royal scepter, until "Shiloh" comes. How could this warlike prophecy refer to Jesus?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Jesus was spiritually warlike in defeating Satan in His first coming. In addition, Jesus will be warlike and kill many in His Second Coming in Revelation 19:11-16.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 49:10, since the scepter would not depart from Judah until the Messiah came, why were there no kings from Judah after the exile except the Maccabees?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Genesis 49:10 did not guarantee there would be independent kings. It only says there would be a ruler, and Gedaliah and many others did so as governors under Babylon, Persia, and other governments.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 49:10, since Judah was to reign until the Messiah came, why was Saul from the tribe of Benjamin?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: There was no king when this prophecy was given. Saul was rejected as king, but once David (from Judah) was king, it was recognized that Judah was the royal line until the Messiah came. Jesus was from Judah "legally" as Joseph was his legal father, and biologically, as Mary was also from Judah. See When Critics Ask p.62 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 49:14-15, why did Jacob prophesy slavery for Issachar, but Dt 33:18-19 prophesy blessing?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Both prophecies were fulfilled. Issachar had great blessing in their fertile land. However, in the time of the Assyrians, they became slaves and their tribe remained that way. God’s blessings, when we take them for granted, can tend to make us be lazy and prone to submit to sin. See Judges 8:27,33 for another sad example in Gideon.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 50:3, why did they take 40 days to embalm Jacob’s body, and not more or less?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: There is no need to try to read in an allegorical meaning here, when the Bible gives the reason. Genesis 50:3 says that 40 days was the time required for embalming. The Magazine KMT : A Modern Journal of Ancient Egypt vol.3 no.3 Fall 1993 p.7 says that experiments on mummification of rats shows that forty days is the time needed to complete the drying of the body with natron salts. It also mentions that forty days is still the mourning period in modern Egypt.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 50:13, was Jacob buried in the cave that Abraham bought near Mamre, or were some of the Patriarchs buried near Shechem as Acts 7:15-16 implies?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: First three points related to the answer, and then two possible answers.
First, The two were distinct places, as the distance between Mamre and Shechem was roughly <st1:metricconverter productid="45 miles" w:st="on">45 miles</st1:metricconverter> (<st1:metricconverter productid="72 kilometers" w:st="on">72 kilometers</st1:metricconverter>).
Prior to the Exodus, Genesis 50:13 says that Jacob was buried near Mamre. Genesis 50:24-26, says Joseph’s body was embalmed and stored in a coffin in Egypt, with the anticipation that it would later be buried in the Promised Land.
After the Exodus, over 477 years later, Jacob’s sons were buried near Shechem as Acts 7:15-16 says. Joshua 24:32 also adds that Joseph’s bones were buried in the tract of land near Shechem.
Here are two separate answers.
"they": Acts 7:15 says "both he [Jacob] and our fathers died." (NIV) "They" in Acts 7:16 refers to the twelve sons of Jacob (our fathers) who were buried after the Exodus, and not Jacob, who was buried over 477 years earlier.
Stephen’s mistake: If Stephen had incorrectly "merged" these two events as one when he spoke, then Acts 7:15-16 is still inerrant. Acts 7:15-16 inerrantly records a trivial mistake that Stephen made. Nothing indicates Stephen had to be inerrant in all that He spoke. However, given Stephen’s track record on other things in Acts 7, one might favor the first answer.
However, even if the second answer is the correct one, there is a lesson for us. When believers today are in the center of God’s will, and speaking to others as God wants us to, God has not promised that all our words and doctrines are inerrant, either. But that is OK. God works in us despite our mistakes, and even through our mistakes to get out His truth.
Regardless of whether Stephen did not use modern precision with his pronouns or whether Stephen was mistaken on a small point of history, God’s message is not whether Jacob was included in the "they" buried at Shechem or not. God’s message is that God guided the Israelites in a Covenant relationship with Him, and God used the Israelites for thousands of years to set the background for the greatest event of all time, the coming of God’s own Son, Jesus Christ.
See also the discussion on Genesis 33:18-19 and Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.142-145 for more info, and 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.309 for more on the cave of Machpelah.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 50:16, did Joseph’s brothers lie when they said Jacob commanded Joseph not to harm them?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: The Bible does not say whether Jacob ever explicitly commanded this, so the brothers might have been lying. On the other hand, certainly Jacob implicitly desired that Joseph not get revenge on his brothers. Today, we hear many things from people without knowing for certain whether the person is completely telling the truth or not. We still need to respond wisely, and the way God would want us to reply, even when we cannot prove or disprove the truthfulness of what is said.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 50:19-20, how can we make our own choices, since God "intends" that we make the choices we make?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Three simple points that explain this concurrency.
God never coerces people to sin or makes them choose this evil. God does not tempt anyone, according to James 1:13.
God foreknew their choices and allowed them to make those choices. Charles Hodge refers to this concept as "permissive decrees".
God used their evil choices as a part of His plan. Indeed, everything is included in God’s plan, according to Ephesians 1:11 and Proverbs 16:4. Louis Berkhof coined the term "concurrence" for this concept.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.135-136 for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen 50:23, how do you pronounce "Machir"?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Cruden’s Concordance says it is pronounced as "MA-ker", with no long vowels and the accent on the first syllable. The Wycliffe Bible Dictionary and Harper’s Bible Dictionary both have a long vowel mark on the "a" and the accent is also on the first syllable.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen, why was the word Elohim mentioned 33 times in the first 34 verses, followed by Yahweh-Elohim 20 times in 45 verses, followed by Yahweh 10 times in 25 verses (Evidence That Demands a Verdict volume 2 p.121). Does this indicate multiple authors?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: This was not coincidence, but was to deliberately express first the universal, transcendent nature of God, followed by His more personal aspects. See Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.189-190 for more info. Evidence That Demands a Verdict volume 2 mentions a very similar situation in the Qur’an. The word "Allah" predominates in later, Medina suras, while "Lord", not "Allah" is mainly used in the earlier, Meccan suras. Here is my count in the Medinan Suras. 4(~211x), 9(~152x), 24(75x), 33, 48, 49, 57(33x), 58(37x), 59(29x), 60-66. Here is my count of the word Lord in the Meccan suras, followed by the approximate number of times the word Allah is used. 15(3x), 32(1x), 50-53, 54-55(0x), 56(2x), 67(4x), 68(0x), 75(0x), 78(0x), 85-96(9x), 100-109(1x), 110-112(6x), 113-114(0x).
Likewise in the Book of Hebrews I the New Testament, chapter 1 never uses the words "Christ" or "Jesus" but only refers to Him as the "Son". But "Jesus" and "Christ are used frequently in the rest of the book of Hebrews.
This does not show that the Qur’an had multiple authors, or that the Book of Hebrews had multiple authors, any more than the evidence shows that Genesis had multiple authors. Rather, this shows asymmetric use of names was not unusual in Mideastern literature.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen, when was this book written?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Early Jewish and Christian writings unanimously say it was written by Moses. Whether Moses actually held the pen, or a scribe under his direction did, it was still in Moses’ time.
The liberal Julius Wellhausen in 1885 said they were created during or after the Babylonian exile (598-539 B.C.). Nobody, not even liberals, believe that today though. See 735 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.13 for more info.
Liberals today believe it was written centuries after Moses’ time.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen, how do we know that what we have is what was originally written?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: As Christians we trust that the Old Testament that Christ validated the Old Testament we have. For that matter, for Muslims their Qur’an says that Jesus was given the Torah in Sura 5:46. We have early manuscripts from the time of Christ, which the next question addresses. However, there is an additional line of evidence. Philo of Alexandria was a Jewish scholar who lived from 15/20 B.C. to <st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D. He wrote a commentary on Genesis, and answered questions on the Old Testament. He wrote in Greek, but it is curious that his Greek quotes of the Old Testament agree more closely with the Hebrew Masoretic text instead of the Greek Septuagint. He went into great detail into what different verses mean. Out of 1,533 total verses in Genesis, Philo refered to all or parts of 410 of them. Here are verses he referred to in Genesis.
1:1-2,4,26,27,31; 2:1-10,13-25; 3:1-24; 4:1-12,14,25-26; 5:1,3,23-24,29,32; 6:1-12,14-17; 7:1-2,4-5,10-11,16-17,19,21-24; 8:1-18,20-22; 9:1,3-8,10-11,13,18,20-28; 10:1,6,8; 11:1-2,4,6-8,10,29; 12:1-4,6-7; 13:1,9; 14:1,3,7,17,18,20-24; 15:1-3,5,20; 16:1-9,11-16; 17:16,8,10-22,24,26,27,32; 18:1,3,6,7,9-11,15-17,22,23,27,32,33; 19:4,11,20,20,32,33,35; 20:7,12; 21:1-2,5-7,11-12,14,19-20,33; 22:1-2,4,6,7,9,16,22,62-63,67; 25:5,8,11,17,21,23-25,27,29,33; 26:2,3,5,9,12,32-33; 27:1,20,28,30,33,36,40-43,45; 28:1-2,7,11-17,21-22; 29:4,13,26,31,35; 30:1,2,13,16,18,24,30,36,37,42;
31:3-5,10-14,20,27-28,33,35,43; 32:10,25,28-29,31; 33:5,11; 34:1,3; 35:2,4,16,18,25; 36:12; 37:2-3,7-9,12-13,15,33,36; 38:7,9,11,20,25; 39:1,3,7,21; 40:8-10,15-17,20; 41:17,28,45,49; 42:1,11,16,18,36; 43:9; 45:5,11,16,18,22,26,28; 46:1,4,2733-34; 47:3,9,24; 48:1,5,13,15-16,22; 49:2,15-18,22,33; 50:7-8,19,24
However, there are four differences in his verse references, all in Genesis. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="width: 429.75pt; margin-left: 1.45pt;" border="1" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="1" width="573"> <tbody><tr style=""> <td style="width: 15%; background: none repeat scroll 0% 0% black; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="15%"> [FONT=&quot]Verse[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="width: 40%; background: none repeat scroll 0% 0% black; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="40%"> [FONT=&quot]Masoretic Hebrew[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="width: 45%; background: none repeat scroll 0% 0% black; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="45%"> [FONT=&quot]Philo’s Greek[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="width: 15%; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="15%"> [FONT=&quot]
Gen. 4:13<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="width: 40%; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="40%"> [FONT=&quot]
My crime is greater than I can bear.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="width: 45%; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="45%"> [FONT=&quot]
My crime is too great to be forgiven. [/FONT][FONT=&quot](3 times)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="width: 15%; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="15%"> [FONT=&quot]
Gen. 5:22<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="width: 40%; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="40%"> [FONT=&quot]
Enoch lived 65 years before Methusaleh, and walked with God 300 years<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="width: 45%; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="45%"> [FONT=&quot]
Enoch lived 165 years before repentance, and 200 years after that.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="width: 15%; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="15%"> [FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen. 6:13<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="width: 40%; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="40%"> [FONT=&quot]
It repented God that he had made man upon the earth<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="width: 45%; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="45%"> [FONT=&quot]
God considered anxiously, because he had made man upon the earth; and he resolved the matter in this mind.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> <tr style=""> <td style="width: 15%; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="15%"> [FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gen. 10:29<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="width: 40%; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="40%"> [FONT=&quot]
He was a mighty hunter before the Lord<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> <td style="width: 45%; padding: 0.75pt;" valign="top" width="45%"> [FONT=&quot]
began to be a giant upon the earth<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> </tbody></table> [FONT=&quot]
As you can see by the preceding list, he commented heavily on the earlier chapters of Genesis and was lighter on the later chapters. For any Muslims reading this, in Genesis 22 Philo says that it was Isaac, not Ishmael that was sacrificed, just like the copies of Genesis among the Old Testaments we have today. See The Works of Philo : Complete and Unabridged. new updated version for more info.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen, what are some of the earliest manuscripts that still exist today?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Dead Sea Scrolls: (before Christ) 20 copies or fragments (The Dead Sea Scrolls Translated : The Qumran Texts in English 2nd ed.), estimated as 15 separate copies (The Dead Sea Scrolls Today p.30) or 18 copies The Dead Sea Scrolls in English 4th ed.. The Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.436-438 says 15 copies. These manuscripts are called
1Q1 - fragments of Genesis
2Q1 Genesis
4Q1 Genesis + Exodus
4Q2 Genesis, identical to the Masoretic text
4Q3 Genesis 40-41
4Q4 Genesis 1
4Q5 Genesis, similar to the Masoretic and Samaritan texts
4Q6 - Part of Genesis 48
4Q7 fragments of Genesis 1 and 2
4Q8a Genesis 2:17-18
4Q8b Paraphrase of Genesis 12:4-5
4Q8c Title of a Genesis manuscript
(4Q8a, b, and c are from three different manuscripts)
4Q9 Genesis, similar to Samaritan text
4Q10 Genesis 1-3
4Q11 Genesis 50:26 through Exodus 36
4Q12 Genesis <st1:metricconverter productid="26 in" w:st="on">26 in</st1:metricconverter> palaeo-Hebrew letters
6Q1 a fragment of Genesis 5
8Q1 Two fragments of Genesis 17:12-19 and 18:20-25.
Overall, preserved in the Dead Sea Scrolls are the following verses from Genesis.
1:1-28; 2:1-3,6-7,14-19; 3:1-2,11-14; 4:2-11; 5:13/14; 6:13-21; 8:21; 10:6; 12:4-5; 17:12-19; 18:20-25; 19:27-28; 22:13-15; 23:17-19; 24:22-24; 26:21-28; 27:38-39,42-43; 32:4-5,30,33; 33:1,18-20; 34:1-3,5-10,17-21,30-31; 35:1,4-10,25-29; 36:1-17,19-27;35-37,43; 37:1-2,5-6,22-30; 39:11-23; 40:1,12-13,18-23; 41:1-11,15-18,23-27,29-44;p 42:15-22,38; 43:1-2,5-14; 45:14-22,26-28; 46:7-11?; 47:13-14; 48:1-11,15-17,18-22; 49:1-8; 50:3,26?
See Encyclopedia of the Dead Sea Scrolls vol.2 p.615 and The Meaning of the Dead Sea Scrolls for more info.
Dead Sea scroll commentary on Genesis in cave 4 (The Dead Sea Scrolls Today p.54 and The Dead Sea Scrolls in English 4th ed. p.xlv)
The Septuagint is a Greek translation of the Old Testament and Apocrypha. Manuscripts of the Greek Bible p.62-63 shows a picture of a fragment, Rahlfs 814 Genesis 14:12-15, from approximately the second half of the second century A.D. (150-<st1:metricconverter productid="200 A" w:st="on">200 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.)
You can see a photograph of a leaf of Genesis 42:7-19 of the Chester Beatty Papyrus V (Rahlfs 962), in Manuscripts of the Greek Bible p.72-73. It is from the second half of the third century.
The Complete Text of the Earliest New Testament Manuscripts p.369 says that a Greek copy of Genesis, called inv. 319 is earlier than <st1:metricconverter productid="100 A" w:st="on">100 A</st1:metricconverter>.D. It is unclear whether this is the same as a previously mentioned manuscript or not.
On p7.2 it mentions that Genesis 1:1-<st1:metricconverter productid="5 in" w:st="on">5 in</st1:metricconverter> the Septuagint was written on p12 (Papyrus Amherst 3b). This is dated as 264-<st1:metricconverter productid="282 A" w:st="on">282 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.
The Vienna manuscript was written in the fifth or sixth century A.D. and 24 pages of Genesis are preserved. You can see one page, Genesis 39:9-<st1:metricconverter productid="18, in" w:st="on">18, in</st1:metricconverter> Greek Manuscripts of the Bible p.92-93.
Other Greek manuscripts include
Papyrus Oxyrynchus 656 is a second century A.D. manuscript that contains Genesis in Greek. It is mentioned in The Complete Text of the Earliest Manuscripts of the Greek Bible p.73.
Papyrus Oxyrynchus 1007 is a fragment from the third century A.D.. The scribe had an unusual doubling of the initial yod in the Tetragrammaton according to Manuscripts of the Greek Bible p.34.
Chester Beatty Papyrus 5 contains Genesis 42:7-19. It is dated 350-<st1:metricconverter productid="400 A" w:st="on">400 A</st1:metricconverter>.D. For more info and a photograph see Manuscripts of the Greek Bible p.72-73.
Vaticanus (325-<st1:metricconverter productid="350 A" w:st="on">350 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) for Genesis 46:29-50:26. Vaticanus has all the rest of the Old Testament.
Alexandrinus (c.450 A.D.) for all of Genesis except for Genesis 14:14-17; 15:1-5, 16-19; 16:6-9, which are mutilated.
Sinaiticus (340-<st1:metricconverter productid="350 A" w:st="on">350 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) Genesis 23:19-24:26 (with gaps)
Samaritans made their own copy of the Torah in the second century B.C., though the earliest surviving Samaritan copies are from the Middle Ages. A picture of a Samaritan scroll is in The Bible Almanac p.390. See General Introduction to the Bible p.391-394 and The Dead Sea Scrolls Today p.125-126 for more info.
Early Christian Manuscripts: According to The Encyclopedia of Religious Knowledge p.746, the Chester Beatty Papyrii (2nd-4th century A.D.) contain Genesis.
The Syriac Peshitta translation of Genesis was from the 5th century A.D. (New Bible Dictionary 1978 p.1262)
A Syriac translation of the Septuagint was made by Bishop Paul of Tella (616-<st1:metricconverter productid="617 A" w:st="on">617 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.), which we still have today, according to Manuscripts of the Greek Bible p.35 (footnote).
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: Who are some of the early writers who referred to Genesis?
A: Philo the Jew[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] (15/20 B.C. to <st1:metricconverter productid="50 A" w:st="on">50 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) refers to all or parts of 410 verses in Genesis. One of his works that quotes extensively from Genesis is Allegorical Interpretation, I.
29 pre-Nicene church writers referred to Genesis.
1 Clement (97/98 A.D.) quotes or refers to content in 25 verses of Genesis. Gen 1:26-28; 2:23; 4:3-8 (Septuagint); 5:24; 9:6; 12:1-3; 13:14-16; 15:5,6; 18:27; 19:24; 21:22; 22:17; 27:41; 37:6.
Justin Martyr (wrote 138-<st1:metricconverter productid="165 A" w:st="on">165 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) quotes or refers to Gen 1:26,28; 2:3; 3:15,22; 6:16; 8:10,12; 9:24-27; 11:5,6; 15:6; 18:1,2,10,13,14,16,17,20-23,33; 19:1,10,16-25,27,28; 21:9-12; 26:4; 28:10-19; 31:10-13; 32:22-30; 35:6-10; 49:5,8-12,18.
Meleto/Melito of Sardis (170-177/180 A.D.) listed Genesis among the books of the Old Testament in his letter to Onesimus in On Pascha p.72. This is recorded in Eusebius’ Ecclesiastical History book 4 ch.26.
Theophilus of Antioch (168-182/8 A.D.) quotes vertabim from Genesis 2:8-3:19 in To Autolycus book 2 ch.21 p.102-103. He also quotes form Genesis 2:4-<st1:metricconverter productid="5,7 in" w:st="on">5,7 in</st1:metricconverter> To Autolycus ch.19 p.102.
Irenaeus (wrote 182-<st1:metricconverter productid="188 A" w:st="on">188 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) quotes from many, many passages in Genesis.
Theodotus the probable Montanist (c.200-<st1:metricconverter productid="240 A" w:st="on">240 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) quotes from Gen 1:1 as from Genesis ch.1 p.43
Cyprian of Carthage (248-<st1:metricconverter productid="258 A" w:st="on">258 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.). He quotes from the Book of Genesis, mentioning it as from Genesis in Treatise 12 the third book 20,32 among other places.
Some other pre-Nicene church writers who quoted from Genesis include the Letter of Barnabas, Meleto/Melito of Sardis, Athenagoras, Clement of Alexandria, Tertullian, Hippolytus, Origen, Novatian, Archelaus, Alexander of Alexandria and Methodius.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen, how precise were Philo’s quotes?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Here are quotes Philo uses sequentially in On the Creation:
"In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth" … "darkness was over the face of the abyss." … "called ‘day’". … "Let us make man after our image, and in our likeness." … "they were created male and female" … "this is the book of the creation of the heaven and of the earth, when it took place, in the day on which God made the heaven and the earth, and every green herb before it appeared upon the earth, and all the grass of the field before it sprang up." … "And a fountain went up from the earth and watered the whole face of the earth." … "God made man, having taken clay from the earth, and he breathed into his face the breath of life." … "God brought all the animals to man, wishing to see what names he would give to each." …
Here are quotes he uses non-sequentially in Allegorical Interpretation, I and a small part of II.
"And the heaven and the earth and all their world was completed." … "And on the sixth day God finished his work which he had made." … "God completed his works on the sixth day." … "He caused to rest the things which he had begun." … "Accordingly, on the seventh day, God caused to rest from all his works which he had made." … "And God blessed the seventh day, and hallowed it." … This is the book of the generation of the heaven and earth, when they were created." … "On which day God created the heaven and the earth, and every green herb of the field, before it appeared upon the earth, and all the grass of the field before it sprang up. For God did not rain upon the earth, and man did not exist to cultivate the earth." … "But a fountain went up upon the earth and watered the all the face of the earth." … "And God created man, taking a lump of clay from the earth, and breathed into his face the breath of life: and man became a living soul." … "And God planted a paradise in Eden, in the east: and there he placed the man whom he had formed." … "And the man whom he had formed," … "God placed in the Paradise." … "And God caused to rise out of the earth every tree which is pleasant to the sight and good for food, and the tree of life he raised in the middle of the Paradise, and also the tree of the knowledge of good and evil." … "And a river goes forth out of Eden to water the Paradise. From thence it is separated into four heads: the name of the one is Pheison. That is the one which encircles the whole land of Evilat. There is the country where there is gold, and the gold of that land is good. There also are the carbuncle and the sapphire stone. And the name of the second river is Gihon; this is that which encircles the whole land of Ethiopia. And the third river is the Tigris. This is the river which flows in front of the Assyrians. And the fourth river is the Eup hrates." … "And the Lord God took the man whom he had made and placed him in the Paradise, to cultivate and to guard it." … "And the Lord God commanded Adam, saying, Of every tree that is in the Paradise thou mayest freely eat; but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil ye shall not eat; but in the day on which ye eat of it ye shall die the death." (II) "And the Lord God said, "It is not good for man to be alone: let us make him a help meet for him." … "And God said, Let the earth bring forth living creatures after their kind, four-footed animals, and creeping things, and wild beasts." (He goes on, through Abraham).
Comparing the two sections shows that Philo did not necessarily use the exact same words in quoting the same passage.
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Q: In Gen, what are some of the translation differences between the Hebrew and Greek Septuagint?
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A: Focusing primarily on chapter 1, here are a few of the translation differences in the 1,533 verses of Genesis. According to the Anchor Bible Dictionary vol.5 p.934 The Samaritan Pentateuch agrees with the Pentateuch against the Masoretic text in 1,900 readings. Except where noted, the first phrase is from the Masoretic text (MT) and the second from the Septuagint (LXX).
Gen 1:1 "heavens" (MT) vs. "heaven" (Septuagint)
Gen 1:2 "without form and empty" vs. "unsightly and unfurnished" (Septuagint) vs. "empty and nothing" (Aquila) vs. "fallow and indistinct" (Symmachus) vs. "desolate without human beings or beast and void of all cultivation of plants and trees" (Neophyti I’s Targum [paraphrase]) vs. "void and empty" (Vulgate)
Gen 1:2 "the face of the deep" vs. "the deep"
Gen 1:2 "face of the waters" vs. "water"
Gen 1:5 "day" (MT, Septuagint) vs. "daytime" (Dead Sea Scroll 4QGen(g))
Gen 1:6 "waters" vs. "water" (3 times)
Gen 1:7 "And it was so" vs. (absent) (2 Hebrew words, 3 Greek words)
Gen 1:8 "heavens" vs. "heaven"
Gen 1:9 "it was so." vs. "it was so. And the water which was under the heaven was collected into its places, and dry land appeared." (17 Greek words)
Gen 1:11-12 "tender sprouts" vs. "herbs" (two times)
Gen 1:14 "heavens, to divide" vs. "heavens, to give light upon the earth, to divide"
Gen 1:16 "rule" vs. "regulate" (two times)
Gen 1:16 "and starts to rule the night." vs. "regulating the night, the stars also."
Gen 1:20 "swarmers" vs. "reptiles" (reptilia in Greek)
(Note that in Gen 1:20,21 Green’s Literal Translation mistakenly has birds, when it should be flying creatures since the same Hebrew word refers to bats and winged insects in Leviticus 11:19-22 and Deuteronomy 14:18-20.)
Gen 1:21 "and all that creeps" vs. "and every living reptile"
Gen 1:21-25 "it" vs. "they" (many times) (this is a picky grammatical issue)
Gen 1:22 "multiply" vs. "be multiplied"
Gen 1:24 "cattle and creepers" vs. "quadrupeds and reptiles"
Gen 1:26 "in our image, according to our likeness" vs. "according to our image and likeness"
Gen 1:26 "wild animals and over all the earth" (MT, Septuagint) vs. "wild animals of the earth" (Syriac)
Gen 1:26 "creepers creeping" vs. "reptiles creeping"
Gen 1:27 "in His own image; in the image of God" vs. "according to the image of God"
Gen 1:28 "And God blessed them, and God said to them" vs. "And God blessed them saying"
Gen 1:30 "every living thing" vs. "all wild beasts"
Gen 2:1 "all their host" vs. "the whole world of them"
Gen 4:8 "Abel" vs. "Abel, Let us go out to the field" (Samaritan Pentateuch, Septuagint, Neophyti I targum, Syriac, compare Vulgate)
Gen 4:15 "Therefore" (MT, Targums) vs. "No so. Therefore" (Septuagint, Syriac, Vulgate) (no change in meaning)
The genealogical tables in Genesis 5 and 11:10-26 are a little different in the Samaritan Pentateuch (The Anchor Bible Dictionary vol.5)
Gen 6:4 "sons of God" (MT, some Septuagint), vs. "angels of God" (some Septuagint) vs. "sons of gods" (translation of Aquila the Jew). See Augustine of Hippo’s City of God (413-<st1:metricconverter productid="426 A" w:st="on">426 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.) book 15 ch.23 p.304
Gen 6:5 "LORD" (MT, Targums) vs. "LORD God" (Septuagint) vs. "God" (Vulgate)
Gen 7:22 "breath of the spirit of life" vs. "breath of life" (Septuagint, Vulgate)
Gen 9:25 Some Septuagint and Arabic O.T. manuscripts say the curse applied not to "Canaan" but to "Ham, father of Canaan".
Gen 10:4 "Dodanim" (most Masoretic manuscripts) vs. "Rodanim" (some Masoretic manuscripts, Samaritan Pentateuch, Septuagint)
Gen 10:23 "Mash" (MT) vs. "Meshech" (Septuagint and 1 Chronicles 1:27 Masoretic text)
Gen 11:12 has "Cainan" inserted between Arphaxad and Shelah in the Septuagint as well as in Luke 3:36.
Gen 11:32 Terah died as "205 years" (MT) vs. "145 years" (Septuagint, Samaritan Pentateuch)
Gen 14:1,9 "Arioch of Ellesar" (Hebrew manuscripts) vs. "king Arioch, king Ellasar" paraphrase in Theophilus to Autolycus book 2 ch.31 p.107. Sumerian archaeology has found a "King Ariochu of Larsa".
Gen 14:23 "thong/sandal" (MT) vs. an unknown word in the Samaritan Pentateuch, 1 letter difference, most likely a corruption)
Gen 18:22 "the men remained standing before the Lord" vs. "the Lord remained standing before Abraham" (ancient Hebrew scribal tradition)
Gen 19:17 "he said" vs. "they said" (Septuagint, Syriac, Vulgate)
Gen 20:13; 31:53; 35:7 "Elohim" vs. "El" (Samaritan Pentateuch) (The Anchor Bible Dictionary vol.5). Also in Exodus 22:8.
Gen 21:9 "with Isaac" vs. "with her son Isaac" (Septuagint, Vulgate)
Gen 22:2 "your son, Isaac, your only one, whom you love" vs. "Take your son, the beloved one, whom you have loved, Isaac"
Gen 22:19 "Ram behind [him]" (most Masoretic texts) vs. "Ram" (some Masoretic texts, Samaritan Pentateuch, Septuagint, Syriac)
Gen 23:1 "years, the years of Sarah’s life" vs. "years" (Septuagint, Vulgate)
Gen 24:62 "from coming to" vs. "from" (Syriac Targums)
Gen 30:36 absent vs. "that an angel appeared to Jacob in a dream revealing his portion in Laban’s herds" (Samaritan Pentateuch)
Gen 30:11 "with/in fortune" (MT, Kethib, Septuagint, Vulgate) vs. "A troop" (Qere. Syriac, Targums) (Qere is certain Aramaic words read aloud, differing from the written words in the Masoretic text. Kethib (written in Aramaic) are written words of the Hebrew Old Testament (NKJV note p.xiv))
Gen 31:40 "scorching heat" (MT, Septuagint) vs. "harvest-time (Samaritan Pentateuch, obviously a corruption)
Gen 31:49 "Mizpah" vs. "pillar witnesses" (Septuagint) vs. "the pillar of Mizpah" (Samaritan Pentateuch)
Gen 33:4 "and [he] kissed him" (present but marked with dots in the Masoretic text) vs. absent (Septuagint)
Gen 36:2,14 "daughter of " vs. "son of " [Zibeon/Sebegon] (Pentateuch, Syriac)
Gen 36:3 "Basemath" (MT, Septuagint) vs. "Mahalath" (Samaritan Pentateuch) (The Expositor’s Bible Commentary p.195)
Gen 36:16 "Korah/Core" (MT and Septuagint) vs. (absent) (Samaritan Pentateuch, 1 Chronicles 1:36)
Gen 36:24 "water" (MT, Vulgate) vs. "hot springs" (Septuagint)
Gen 36:39 "Hadar" (most Masoretic texts) vs. "Barad" (Septuagint) vs. "Hadad" (some Masoretic texts, Samaritan Pentateuch, Syriac)
Gen 37:36 "Medanites" vs. "Midianites" (Septuagint, Samaritan Pentateuch, Vulgate, Syriac)
Gen 41:22 "and I saw" vs. "I fell asleep a second time and I saw" (Septuagint, Syriac, Vulgate)
Gen 41:48 "food of the seven years which were in the land" vs. "food of the seven years, in which was the plenty in the land " (Septuagint, Samaritan Pentateuch)
Gen 41:56 "opened all that was in/among them" vs. "all the storehouses (Septuagint, Vulgate, Syriac)
Gen 44:4 "good?" vs. "good? Why have you stolen my silver cup?" (Septuagint, Vulgate)
Gen 46:13 "Puah" vs. "Phua" (Septuagint) vs. "Puvah" (Samaritan Pentateuch, Syriac, 1 Chronicles 7:1)
Gen 46:13 "Iob" vs. "Jashub" (some Septuagint, Samaritan Pentateuch)
Gen 46:16 "Ziphion" vs. "Zephon" (Septuagint, Samaritan Pentateuch, Numbers 26:15)
Gen 46:20 "him" vs. "him, [even] Manasses and Ephraim. And there were sons born to Manasses, which the Syrian concubine bore to him, [even] Machir. And Machir begot Galaad. And the sons of Ephraim, the brother of Manasses; Sutalaam, and Taam. And the sons of Sutalaam: Edom." (Septuagint, compare Dead Sea Scroll 4QExod(a)) (The Expositor’s Bible Commentary volume 2 p.262.)
Gen 46:23 "Hushim" vs. "Hashum"
Gen 46:27 "in Egypt, two souls. All the souls belonging to the house of Jacob coming into Egypt were seventy." (MT) vs. "in the land of Egypt, were nine souls; all the souls of the house of Jacob who came with Joseph into Egypt, were seventy-five souls." (Septuagint)
Gen 47:21 "he removed them to the cities" vs. "he made slaves of them" (Septuagint, Samaritan Pentateuch)
Gen 49:4 "defiled it - he" vs. "defiled it - you" (Septuagint, Syriac, Targums)
Gen 49:5 "Joseph" vs. "them"
Gen 49:7 "their anger is cursed" vs. "their anger is beautiful" (Samaritan Pentateuch) (The Anchor Bible Dictionary vol.5 p.938)
Gen 49:20 "from Asher" vs. "Asher" (Septuagint, Vulgate, Syriac)
Gen 50:16 "they commanded Joseph" vs. "they approached Joseph" (Septuagint, Syriac)
Gen 50:23 "upon the knees of Joseph" vs. "in the days of Joseph" (Samaritan Pentateuch) (The Anchor Bible Dictionary vol.5 p.937 and The Meaning of the Dead Sea Scrolls p.94)
The use of Elohim and Jehovah is scattered differently in the Septuagint vs. the Masoretic text. Julius Wellhausen saw these as the weakest point of his documentary hypothesis theory.
Bibliography for this question: the Hebrew translation is from Jay P. Green’s Literal Translation and the Septuagint rendering is from Sir Lancelot C.L. Brenton’s translation of The Septuagint : Greek and English. The Expositor’s Bible Commentary, The Anchor Bible Dictionary vol.5, and the footnotes in the NASB, NIV, NKJV, and NRSV Bibles also were used. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Plague of the Firstborn<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus 11:4-8[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]12:29-30[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So Moses said, "This is what the Lord says: 'About midnight I will go throughout Egypt. Every firstborn son in Egypt will die, from the firstborn son of Pharaoh, who sits on the throne, to the firstborn son of the slave girl, who is at her hand mill, and all the firstborn of the cattle as well. There will be loud wailing throughout Egypt-worse than there has ever been or ever will be again. But among the Israelites not a dog will bark at any man or animal.' Then you will know that the Lord makes a distinction between Egypt and Israel. All these officials of yours will come to me, bowing down before me and saying, 'Go, you and all the people who follow you!' After that I will leave." Then Moses, hot with anger, left Pharaoh. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]At midnight the Lord struck down all the firstborn in Egypt, from the firstborn of Pharaoh, who sat on the throne, to the firstborn of the prisoner, who was in the dungeon, and the firstborn of all the livestock as well. Pharaoh and all his officials and all the Egyptians got up during the night, and there was loud wailing in Egypt, for there was not a house without someone dead. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
Why would God punish the entire population of Egypt by killing even firstborn infants for something Pharaoh did? While Pharaoh was responsible for bringing the plague upon the people by his refusal to obey God, the Egyptians were also rejecting God by worshiping false gods and by cruelly enslaving the Israelites. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Having lived with the Israelites for over 400 years, the Egyptians would have heard about God and what he had done. They would also have heard about the signs Moses and Aaron performed (e.g. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 7:8-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and seen firsthand the previous nine plagues, noting they affected Egypt but not Israel. This should have been a clear enough sign for anyone that the Israelites' God was powerful and should be listened to. Indeed, some of the Egyptians were able to escape the effects of the plagues when they heeded God's warnings and acted accordingly. Those who took shelter when God warned them of the plague of hail survived ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 9:19-21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Additionally, RBC Ministries points out in their article on [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus[/FONT][FONT=&quot] that the plagues demonstrated the impotence of various Egyptian gods. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As with the other plagues, the Egyptians were warned in advance of the plague on the firstborn. Had an Egyptian family gone to ask the Israelites how to serve their God and avoid the plague, they could have received the instructions for the Passover and thus spared their family. Their failure to do so indicated they still didn't believe God's word and were still rejecting him, hence the plague. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Is original sin an unjust doctrine?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Some people object that the doctrine of original sin is unjust, for it holds other people responsible for Adam's (and Eve's) sin to the extent that they're condemned to hell for something they themselves didn't do. In particular, the objectors say, infants who die are condemned to hell as a result, even though they have not yet consciously sinned. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This version of the doctrine is not held by all evangelical Christians and is not an essential belief of Christianity. Calvinists appear to believe that people deserve hell in part because of original sin, but many believe that infants who die are among the "elect" and are therefore saved by God's grace (see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Infant Salvation[/FONT][FONT=&quot] by Lorraine Boettner). Other Christians, including myself, believe that we suffer the effects of Adam's sin - we are born with a sinful nature and will experience physical death - but we're not individually condemned to hell because of Adam's sin, for, "The soul who sins is the one who will die. The son will not share the guilt of the father, nor will the father share the guilt of the son" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 18:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Get a [/FONT][FONT=&quot]stripped-down copy[/FONT][FONT=&quot] of this page.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The idea that all people are to be punished because of an act of one, a relatively innocuous act at that, borders on the bizarre and is a living refutation of any belief in a biblical God of justice and impartiality" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So once said a leading Skeptic. Bound up in such objections are others as well, involving the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]sins of the fathers[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. But beyond that corrective, what of the original sin issue itself? Are we punished unfairly for the sin of our ancestor? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Before a direct answer is made a caveat is required. Even if the doctrine is such that Adam's guilt is imputed to us (which I will conclude, it is not), it is hardly as though any person would not have enough guilt of their own in the first place. This is like objecting to being sentenced to an extra week in prison for a crime you don't feel you are responsible for, when you have 3,748,983 years to serve for your own crimes. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But since the penalty for any sin is the same (eternal judgment), not even this would matter. Aside from infants and the mentally disabled, none would have any real right or reason to object to being saddled with the guilt of original sin -- and it is doubtful that such people would be made to pay for any sinful act after the same fashion, or that they would not have fallen for the same temptation.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]And now, to the text itself which is the central hub of the original sin "wheel":<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Romans 5:12-19 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law. Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come. But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification. For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.) Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life. For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The highlighted phrases show Paul to be repeating the same idea in different ways -- in good, ancient pedagogical fashion. Now our key question to answer is, What is the exact cause-effect relationship between Adam's sin and our current condition? Are we being "punished" for his sin? If not "punished" then how does it affect us, exactly? And is it "fair" that we are affected thusly?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]For quite some time answers to these questions have been wrestled with by believers. On one hand, many have proposed that Adam as a "federal head" and original representative of humanity, rightfully was able to impute his guilt for sin upon us. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]On the other end, it has been argued that all Paul means here is that we biologically inherited Adam's tendency to sin, and so we have a propensity to "do" our own. The latter is a rough summary of what has been referred to as the Pelagian heresy.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Before attempting an analysis, some background is in order. As always we must read Paul in light of his position as an ancient writer and a member of an ancient collectivist society. We must not let our Western and modern individualism (which is actually a "mutation" from most of the rest of the historical and modern world) interpret the passage directly; we must "strain" it through the filter of ancient, collectivist thought first.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Several factors of collectivism have serious relevance to interpretation of Paul's words. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]As Malina and Neyrey note [Portraits of Paul, 156ff]:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]Within such a society, individuals received their identity in relation to their social unit. They were "group-embedded" -- individuals share "a virtual identity with the group as a whole and with its other members." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]As a consequence, abnormality is not seen as the result of such things as an abusive childhood; abnormality is the result of being embedded in an abnormal relationship matrix. All persons are assumed to have "the same experiences and very similar qualities." No man is an island, and no man is his own master. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]The chief group with which one was embedded was family, and beyond that, one's ancestry. Identity rests "ultimately in the etiological ancestor of the extended family". Hence Paul makes what seems much to us of being a Benjamite; hence the stress on Jesus' Davidic ancestry; hence it is important for Judaeans to refer to Abraham as their father (John 8:33, 39). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It may now be seen what relevance this orientation may have to the doctrine of original sin. By Paul's thinking, and by those of his contemporaries who accepted the Genesis account, we are all "embedded" in Adam, the etiological ancestor of humanity. We have (at least) inherited his faults and sins, and even if the "worst case" scenario is right, this is something that it is only we, as individualists, have a problem with. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]No one in antiquity would have objected that it was "not fair" that we were being to any extent punished for Adam's sin, or referred to it as "bizarre" or "unjust". Indeed it would have been expected that we would somehow pay for Adam's sin, since whoever was designated etiological ancestor, that is who we reap from, good or bad.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
 
Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

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mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <o:shapedefaults v:ext="edit" spidmax="1027"/> </xml><![endif]--><!--[if gte mso 9]><xml> <o:shapelayout v:ext="edit"> <o:idmap v:ext="edit" data="1"/> </o:shapelayout></xml><![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Therefore any objection against original sin is out of tune with the Biblical time. But there does remain the question of how exactly Adam's sin affects us. Most of the highlighted phrases from Rom. 5:12-19 do not actually establish the bones of the cause-effect relationship; in fact it is only verse 12 that offers such a connection:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This verse is understood to be the keystone for the doctrine of original sin. The primary issue here is in that final phrase -- "for that all have sinned" -- and more narrowly, the prepositional word of the phrase. The "federal head" idea follows from the translation of Augustine, who read it in terms of in whom all sinned, and is often paralleled to the passage in Hebrews that says that Levi paid his tithe through his ancestor Abraham, and justified on the grounds that one man, Christ, also paid for all of those sins. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Other suggested meanings have been for this reason, because, that, and because of the one by whom. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Now before Skeptics ask, "why isn't it clear," let us make the points that any lack of clarity is more likely our fault for losing it, than for Paul or God to have not made it clear; and that the Greek phrase itself admits to many shades of meaning; "lexicographical enquiry comes to the conclusion that the meaning of the phrase may vary a good deal" [Dubarle, The Biblical Doctrine of Original Sin, 149n].<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So what is the answer? As we have delved more deeply into the background data, recovering that which we have lost, an answer has come into view which suggests that a more subtle point is in view, and that the "federal head" idea needs fine-tuning, and in a way that happens to render all objections irrelevant. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Henri Blocher, in Original Sin: Illuminating the Riddle, draws upon the findings of Malina that Romans 5 is in a rabbinic style and uses legal terminology [76ff]. From this he concludes that Paul's meaning is that what Adam did was "make possible the imputation, the judicial treatment, of human sins." [emphasis added] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Note how this fits in with what Paul goes on to say:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law. Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In other words, Adam's sin, and the resultant punishment of spiritual and eventually physical death, was a pattern-connection that was established and set the legal precedent for death to be inflicted as the penalty for all sins. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A loose parallel may be found in the incidence some years ago of the crime of carjacking. There was no specific definition of, or remedy for, this crime when it first became popular. When it became more popular, it was defined out as a specific crime (where before, prosecutors had to select from and cobble together charges from existing laws) and given a specific punishment. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The analogy breaks down because there was no previous sin with the original sin, but the point to be drawn is that Adam's sin and punishment was an original example as well as a case of original sin. We pay for, and are punished because of, Adam's sin, only in the same sense that present-day carjackers experience their specific punishment because of a precedent set by their criminal forebears, which engendered a more specific legal reaction.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Of course none of this affects such conclusions as are reached in our item on [/FONT][FONT=&quot]total depravity[/FONT][FONT=&quot] or in any way suggests that things are any easier for the human race in terms of a judgment basis. It merely means that one popular objection -- itself based on a popular, but not precisely correct, understanding of this passage -- is of no relevance. We are not paying for, and being punished for, Adam's sin, in a way that is unfair to us.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Does God enjoy punishing people?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 28:63[/FONT][FONT=&quot]

Just as it pleased the Lord to prosper you and make you increase in number, so it will please him to ruin and destroy you. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezekiel 18:23, 32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]

Do I take any pleasure in the death of the wicked? declares the Sovereign LORD. Rather, am I not pleased when they turn from their ways and live? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]For I take no pleasure in the death of anyone, declares the Sovereign LORD. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Repent and live! <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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[FONT=&quot]
The above passages discuss God's reaction to two different aspects of punishment for sin. (Note: "it pleases the Lord" in Dt 28:63 can't be interpreted as merely "it's his will," just as we sometimes use the phrase "if it please you" to mean "if it's your will," but rather it's used in the sense of actual pleasure - [/FONT][FONT=&quot]compare other translations[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God is just and rejoices when justice is served, which includes punishing those who have done wrong and aren't sorry about it. If God didn't punish evil, he would be unjust, which would be cause for his having sorrow and shame instead. Since God is just, he punishes evil, and can be satisfied that he has done the right thing. If the punishment would move the wrongdoer to repentence, he would also be pleased in the punishment's having that effect. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Yet God loves his creation and hates to see people suffer, even when it's the result of just punishment. When people, even evil people, feel the effects of punishment, God grieves for them. God desires what is best for everyone, and is further grieved when people don't do what is right and thus prevent him from blessing them and increasing their joy. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hence God takes pleasure in doing what is right and executing justice, while simultaneously grieving over the evil that was done and the consequences of it for the evildoer. His pleasure is in the handing down of the punishment, and his pain is in watching it being carried out. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Related articles <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]See the articles about [/FONT][FONT=&quot]hell[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]God's wrath and punishment[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Does God punish children for their parents' sins?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Exodus 20:5-6[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 5:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God, punishing the children for the sin of the fathers to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me, but showing love to a thousand generations of those who love me and keep my commandments. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 24:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Fathers shall not be put to death for their children, nor children put to death for their fathers; each is to die for his own sin. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Ezekiel 18:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The soul who sins is the one who will die. The son will not share the guilt of the father, nor will the father share the guilt of the son. The righteousness of the righteous man will be credited to him, and the wickedness of the wicked will be charged against him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 23:35[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 11:50-51[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]And so upon you will come all the righteous blood that has been shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah son of Berekiah, whom you murdered between the temple and the altar. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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[FONT=&quot]I think these passages can be understood by looking at what God does in the Bible. When parents do wrong or experience punishment on earth, their children share the ill effects - if a parent is put in jail, their children are adversely affected; if a parent is abusive or negligent, their children suffer. This sort of thing occurs in many places in the Bible. For instance, Achan and his family died as a result of his disobeying God ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Joshua 7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). However, while children often shared the earthly punishment of their parents, they would not be punished for their parents' sins in the afterlife. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezekiel 18[/FONT][FONT=&quot] makes it clear that the real guilt belongs to the person who sinned, not their family. Deuteronomy 24:16 is an application of this principle to human-administered justice: while God decreed that some sins merited the death penalty, humans were not to apply the penalty to anyone other than the guilty party. If, as in the case of Achan, a family or nation was to be corporately punished, only God had the authority to decide that corporate punishment was merited. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]On the other hand, God often extends mercy to the families of people who are righteous. Rahab's family was allowed to survive because she respected God ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Joshua 2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). God spared Noah's family because Noah was righteous ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 7:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). And of course the nation of Israel was blessed because of Abraham's obedience to God ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 22:17-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Again, the blessings received by a righteous person's family only affected their life on earth. A person's relatives will not be saved or condemned in the afterlife because of that person's actions; rather each will be judged as individuals. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In other words, the true distinction is between life on earth and the afterlife. People do not receive precisely what they deserve while they are on earth; they are affected by the actions of those around them, and thus can be said to be punished (i.e. experience suffering) for their relatives' wrongs. But this is a temporary state of affairs; when people enter the eternal afterlife, they will be judged as individuals, and what punishment they receive will be only for things they are truly guilty of. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why then would God corporately punish a family when not all of them had sinned? In some cases, the relatives of the wrongdoers shared in their guilt by failing to stop the person from doing wrong or rebuke them for their wrong. In other cases, it's possible that the loss of the wrongdoer's family line was part of their punishment. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Finally, what about the passages in Matthew and Luke, which seem to say the Jews of Jesus' day would be held accountable for murders committed by previous generations? Jesus' statement is true in a figurative sense, i.e. that his contemporaries who rejected him would experience a far greater condemnation than others who rejected him without the benefit of hearing his teaching or seeing his miracles. The Jewish leaders were expected to know the Scriptures and be in close relationship with God, both of which would have enabled them to recognize Jesus as the Messiah. They were given advance notice of the Messiah's arrival by John the Baptist. They also had many opportunities to hear Jesus' teaching, interact with him and witness the miracles he performed, especially since Jesus focused his ministry on the Jews. Since they had far more opportunity to accept Jesus than anyone else, their punishment for rejecting him would be far greater than that of others (see also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Degrees of punishment in hell[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus' statement can also be taken more literally, in that his contemporaries were guilty of their ancestors' sins to the extent that they condoned their actions and committed similar ones. In fact, they weren't just repeating past sins but were committing ones that were far worse, since the prophet they persecuted was God himself. Considering these two factors, one could make a comparison between the punishment they would receive and the aggregated punishment for all martyrdoms in previous history. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why did God kill David's son?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Samuel 12:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]

"But because by doing this you have made the enemies of the Lord show utter contempt, the son born to you will die." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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[FONT=&quot]
While David's son died as a result of David's sin (see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Sam 11[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]12:1-25[/FONT][FONT=&quot] for the full story), the effects ended there; he would not be punished for his father's sin in the afterlife ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 18:19-20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). 2 Samuel 12:14 implies that the death of David's son was meant to be a lesson to others who were disobeying God. When word got around that David had committed adultery and murder, some Israelites would probably have said to themselves, "If the king can do those things and not face any consequences, why can't I?" People in other nations who heard of it wouldn't see it as reason to follow Israel's God, but if they heard of the consequences they would know that God saw and dealt with David's sin. It's possible that his son's death also ensured that David's repentence was permanent, for he would always remember his son and the effects of his adultery. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Did God punish people seven times more than they deserved?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]


[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Leviticus 26:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]vv. 21, 24, 28[/FONT][FONT=&quot])

If after all this you will not listen to me, I will punish you for your sins seven times over. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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[FONT=&quot]
The punishments described in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Leviticus 26[/FONT][FONT=&quot] were a prediction of what would happen if the Israelites failed to follow the laws God had given them as a covenant, or contract, with them - namely the commands to love God, love others, not worship other gods and follow other basic moral principles ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 6:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 19:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 20:2-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). To break the covenant and incur punishment, the Israelites would have to be committing idolatry, murder, rape, theft, adultery, etc. These sins (and others) ultimately deserve hell. Therefore any earthly punishment they received would always be less than what they deserved, not more. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It should be noted that when God says he will punish the Israelites seven times over, it's after the Israelites had already been punished for their sins and had refused to change their ways ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 26:14-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). When one punishment didn't get their attention, God increased the level of punishment until it eventually caused them to realize the magnitude of their wrongs and remember God. When they did finally repent, God was ready to forgive them and keep his part of the covenant in spite of their breaking it ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 26:40-45[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Does God command disobedience?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Isaiah 7:10-14[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Again the LORD spoke to Ahaz, "Ask the LORD your God for a sign, whether in the deepest depths or in the highest heights." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But Ahaz said, "I will not ask; I will not put the LORD to the test." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Then Isaiah said, "Hear now, you house of David! Is it not enough to try the patience of men? Will you try the patience of my God also? Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 6:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Do not test the LORD your God as you did at Massah. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1 Kings 20:35-36[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]By the word of the LORD one of the sons of the prophets said to his companion, "Strike me with your weapon," but the man refused. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So the prophet said, "Because you have not obeyed the LORD, as soon as you leave me a lion will kill you." And after the man went away, a lion found him and killed him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Leviticus 24:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If anyone injures his neighbor, whatever he has done must be done to him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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[FONT=&quot]
The above passages make it seem like God commands people to disobey his own laws. While God is in these cases overriding general laws he's given, he has the right to do so in order to fulfill his good purposes. Many moral principles have exceptions or special cases: for instance, it's generally wrong to cut people with knives, but it's acceptable for a surgeon to cut a patient open when performing needed surgery. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It's usually wrong to "put God to the test" by demanding that he perform some miracle in order to justify one's belief, for this usually indicates a wrong attitude on the part of the asker. But if Ahaz followed God's command to ask for a sign, he would be doing so for the right reasons (i.e. obeying God) rather than his own stubbornness or lack of faith. Ahaz's refusal was a direct rebellion against God, which Isaiah chastised him for. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The prophet who demanded to be struck was following God's instruction to deliver an allegorical message to the king of Israel ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Ki 20:37-42[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). While it is wrong in general for one person to strike another, this was an exception in which the injury would serve a good purpose. Moreover, God has the moral authority to strike a human or command that a human be struck, for he has both perfectly good intentions and the ability to control and even heal the amount of damage done. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The man who refused to strike the prophet would have known he was a prophet (and thus that his request was from God, who had the authority to command such a thing), for they were companions ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]v. 35[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Even if the man didn't know the prophet, it would have been natural for him to ask, "Why should I strike you?" and find out that it was a command from God. The man's disobedience of a direct command from God - ostensibly because he thought it better to follow his own moral judgment rather than God's - was a rejection of God's authority and hence resulted in his death. Also, he apparently erred further by disbelieving God's verdict, else he would have asked forgiveness (and likely have been spared) or stuck to the prophet like glue. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Does God punish the righteous?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezekiel 21:2-4[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Son of man, set your face against Jerusalem and preach against the sanctuary. Prophesy against the land of Israel and say to her: 'This is what the LORD says: I am against you. I will draw my sword from its scabbard and cut off from you both the righteous and the wicked. Because I am going to cut off the righteous and the wicked, my sword will be unsheathed against everyone from south to north." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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[FONT=&quot]Ezekiel prophesied during the siege of Jerusalem and exile and captivity of the Jews ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 1:2-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The destruction of the city of Jerusalem was in punishment for its sins. The righteous people were not killed, but were exiled ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 24:5-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Thus they were cut off from Jerusalem, but without experiencing the violent death of the wicked. Had any of the righteous people remained in Jerusalem, they would have heard Jeremiah's prophecy that those who surrendered themselves to the Babylonians would survive ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 21:8-9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How could prophets and exorcists be condemned?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 7:22-23[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Many will say to me on that day, 'Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and in your name drive out demons and perform many miracles?' Then I will tell them plainly, 'I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!' <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 12:24-27[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But when the Pharisees heard this, they said, "It is only by Beelzebub, the prince of demons, that this fellow drives out demons." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus knew their thoughts and said to them, "Every kingdom divided against itself will be ruined, and every city or household divided against itself will not stand. If Satan drives out Satan, he is divided against himself. How then can his kingdom stand? And if I drive out demons by Beelzebub, by whom do your people drive them out? [/FONT][FONT=&quot]So then, they will be your judges. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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[FONT=&quot]
How could people who had prophesied in Christ's name and performed exorcists and miracles be condemned at the Last Judgment? Matthew 7:23 seems to say these people were never true followers of Christ, so how could they have cast out demons if they were neither Christians nor could have been enabled to do it by Satan (Mt 12:24-27)? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are several possible answers: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]They were lying about what they had done.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]They were mistaken - either they deceived themselves into thinking they were performing good works, or they were deceived by Satan. They could have given false prophecies which they thought were from God, "healed" someone who wasn't actually sick or who recovered through natural causes, etc.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]They actually did prophesy and drive out demons, but remained unbelievers.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The last answer is feasible, for God can work through nonbelievers and use them to do his will just as he can believers. For instance, Balaam was a sorcerer who ultimately rejected God ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 24:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), but God still used him as a prophet ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 23:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]24:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Human Sacrifice in the Old Testament<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Some people have argued that God demanded human sacrifice, based on the following verses: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Leviticus 27:28-29[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (NASB) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Nevertheless, anything which a man sets apart to the LORD out of all that he has, of man or animal or of the fields of his own property, shall not be sold or redeemed. Anything devoted to destruction is most holy to the LORD. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]No one who may have been set apart among men shall be ransomed; he shall surely be put to death. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus 22:29-30[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]You must give me the firstborn of your sons. Do the same with your cattle and your sheep. Let them stay with their mothers for seven days, but give them to me on the eighth day. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]3.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Joshua 6:21[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]They devoted the city to the LORD and destroyed with the sword every living thing in it - men and women, young and old, cattle, sheep and donkeys. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]4.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Numbers 31:25-30, 40-41[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (NKJV) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Now the LORD spoke to Moses, saying: "Count up the plunder that was taken - of man and beast - you and Eleazar the priest and the chief fathers of the congregation; and divide the plunder into two parts, between those who took part in the war, who went out to battle, and all the congregation. And levy a tribute for the LORD on the men of war who went out to battle: one of every five hundred of the persons, the cattle, the donkeys, and the sheep; take it from their half, and give it to Eleazar the priest as a heave offering to the LORD. And from the children of Israel's half you shall take one of every fifty, drawn from the persons, the cattle, the donkeys, and the sheep, from all the livestock, and give them to the Levites who keep charge of the tabernacle of the LORD." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The persons were sixteen thousand, of which the LORD's tribute was thirty-two persons. So Moses gave the tribute which was the LORD's heave offering to Eleazar the priest, as the LORD commanded Moses. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]5.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 22:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Then God said, "Take your son, your only son, Isaac, whom you love, and go to the region of Moriah. Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering on one of the mountains I will tell you about." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]6.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Judges 11:30-39[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]And Jephthah made a vow to the LORD: "If you give the Ammonites into my hands, whatever comes out of the door of my house to meet me when I return in triumph from the Ammonites will be the LORD's, and I will sacrifice it as a burnt offering." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Then Jephthah went over to fight the Ammonites, and the LORD gave them into his hands. He devastated twenty towns from Aroer to the vicinity of Minnith, as far as Abel Keramim. Thus Israel subdued Ammon. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When Jephthah returned to his home in Mizpah, who should come out to meet him but his daughter, dancing to the sound of tambourines! She was an only child. Except for her he had neither son nor daughter. When he saw her, he tore his clothes and cried, "Oh! My daughter! You have made me miserable and wretched, because I have made a vow to the LORD that I cannot break." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"My father," she replied, "you have given your word to the LORD. Do to me just as you promised, now that the LORD has avenged you of your enemies, the Ammonites. But grant me this one request," she said. "Give me two months to roam the hills and weep with my friends, because I will never marry." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"You may go," he said. And he let her go for two months. She and the girls went into the hills and wept because she would never marry. After the two months, she returned to her father and he did to her as he had vowed. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
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[FONT=&quot]There are several verses that indicate that God is against child sacrifice. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]God expressly forbids it: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 12:31[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: You must not worship the LORD your God in their way, because in worshiping their gods, they do all kinds of detestable things the LORD hates. They even burn their sons and daughters in the fire as sacrifices to their gods.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 18:9-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: When you enter the land the LORD your God is giving you, do not learn to imitate the detestable ways of the nations there. Let no one be found among you who sacrifices his son or daughter in the fire...Anyone who does these things is detestable to the LORD, and because of these detestable practices the LORD your God will drive out those nations before you.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]and its practice is described as evil: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]2 Kings 16:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: He walked in the ways of the kings of Israel and even sacrificed his son in the fire, following the detestable ways of the nations the LORD had driven out before the Israelites.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Psalm 106:38[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: They shed innocent blood, the blood of their sons and daughters, whom they sacrificed to the idols of Canaan, and the land was desecrated by their blood.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Jeremiah 19:4-5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: For they have forsaken me and made this a place of foreign gods; they have burned sacrifices in it to gods that neither they nor their fathers nor the kings of Judah ever knew, and they have filled this place with the blood of the innocent. They have built the high places of Baal to burn their sons in the fire as offerings to Baal - something I did not command or mention, nor did it enter my mind.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Old Testament stops just short of forbidding all human sacrifice, for Jesus was a (voluntary, adult) human sacrifice and clearly his sacrifice was acceptable to God. (See [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Was Jesus' death a violation of the commandment against human sacrifice?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] by Glenn Miller for more on this.) However, the OT doesn't prescribe or require human sacrifice. All the rules concerning what sorts of offerings were acceptable for various purposes mention only animals, birds, and grain - humans are never mentioned as an option. In fact, humans in general would not be acceptable as sacrifices because their sin made them imperfect, and only perfect sacrifices were acceptable.[/FONT]<sup>[FONT=&quot]1[/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot] (Hence Jesus is the only human who could ever be accepted as a sacrifice.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1. Lev. 27:28-29[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Looking at the passage more closely, it uses the phrase "devoted to destruction for the Lord," not "sacrifice" or "offering" as is used in the rest of the chapter (and book). "Devoted to destruction" is a phrase applied to things (usually associated with sin) that God ordered the destruction of, as opposed to sacrifice of. (See the response to [/FONT][FONT=&quot]3.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) Also, it's not encouraging the devotion of people to destruction, but merely saying that if anyone or anything is devoted to destruction, it's final. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2. Ex. 22:29-30[/FONT][FONT=&quot] True, God said, "The first offspring of every womb among the Israelites belongs to me, whether man or animal."[/FONT]<sup>[FONT=&quot]2[/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot] God then instructed the Israelites, "Redeem every firstborn among your sons,"[/FONT]<sup>[FONT=&quot]3[/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot] and provided a way for them to be redeemed: "I have taken the Levites from among the Israelites in place of the first male offspring of every Israelite woman. The Levites are mine, for all the firstborn are mine."[/FONT]<sup>[FONT=&quot]4[/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot] God didn't intend for Ex. 22 to require the physical sacrifice of the firstborn; if he did, he wouldn't have provided a way for them to be redeemed. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]3. Joshua 6:21[/FONT][FONT=&quot] God called for the destruction of the city as opposed to the sacrifice of the city. The difference is illustrated in the account of Saul's rejection as king ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Samuel 15:17-23, 32-33[/FONT][FONT=&quot]): <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Samuel said, "Although you were once small in your own eyes, did you not become the head of the tribes of Israel? The LORD anointed you king over Israel. And he sent you on a mission, saying, `Go and completely destroy those wicked people, the Amalekites; make war on them until you have wiped them out.' Why did you not obey the LORD? Why did you pounce on the plunder and do evil in the eyes of the LORD?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"But I did obey the LORD," Saul said. "I went on the mission the LORD assigned me. I completely destroyed the Amalekites and brought back Agag their king. The soldiers took sheep and cattle from the plunder, the best of what was devoted to God, in order to sacrifice them to the LORD your God at Gilgal." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But Samuel replied: "Does the LORD delight in burnt offerings and sacrifices as much as in obeying the voice of the LORD? To obey is better than sacrifice, and to heed is better than the fat of rams. For rebellion is like the sin of divination, and arrogance like the evil of idolatry. Because you have rejected the word of the LORD, he has rejected you as king." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]...<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Then Samuel said, "Bring me Agag king of the Amalekites." Agag came to him confidently, thinking, "Surely the bitterness of death is past." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But Samuel said, "As your sword has made women childless, so will your mother be childless among women." And Samuel put Agag to death before the LORD at Gilgal. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God distinguished between destruction and sacrifice, for he stated that the cities were to be destroyed as punishment for their wrongdoing<sup>5</sup> and he rejected Saul for intending to sacrifice the sheep instead of destroying them immediately. Saul also made a distinction, for he set aside the sheep and cattle to be sacrificed later instead of slaughtering them in the city. Sacrifices had to be made in a certain way for them to be acceptable; simply killing the animals did not qualify.<sup>6</sup> The same would hold true for humans, if the humans would have been acceptable sacrifices (which they were not, because of their sin). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Secondly, the notion of sacrifice involves the giving up of something by the person making the sacrifice. For example, even the poor were required to sacrifice something they owned as a sin offering,<sup>7</sup> and David refused to make a sacrifice that cost him nothing.<sup>8</sup> Killing men in battle was self-defense, something the Israelites would have done anyway, and destroying the rest of the town before they had taken anything in plunder would not be a sacrifice either. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]4. Num. 31:25-41[/FONT][FONT=&quot] At first glance, this appears to call for the sacrifice of people, since they are to be given as an offering. However, the actual phrase used is "heave offering," which indicates the part of an offering or sacrifice that was given to the priests: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]Leviticus 7:32-34[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (NKJV): Also the right thigh you shall give to the priest as a heave offering from the sacrifices of your peace offerings. He among the sons of Aaron, who offers the blood of the peace offering and the fat, shall have the right thigh for his part. For the breast of the wave offering and the thigh of the heave offering I have taken from the children of Israel, from the sacrifices of their peace offerings, and I have given them to Aaron the priest and to his sons from the children of Israel by a statute forever.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Leviticus 7:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (NKJV): And from it he shall offer one cake from each offering as a heave offering to the LORD. It shall belong to the priest who sprinkles the blood of the peace offering.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Numbers 18:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (NKJV): "All the heave offerings of the holy things, which the children of Israel offer to the LORD, I have given to you and your sons and daughters with you as an ordinance forever; it is a covenant of salt forever before the LORD with you and your descendants with you."<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Part of the plunder was to be given to God as a tithe, but God instructed that it be given to the high priest and the Levites as provision for them. This makes sense, since this passage deals with the division of the spoils among the soldiers and the rest of the Israelites. Thus the people mentioned were not sacrificed, but probably became servants to the priests. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]5. Genesis 22:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot] God gave this commandment as a test of Abraham's faith: did Abraham place God first in his life, or did he value his son more highly than God? Since this was a direct command from God, Abraham was right to obey it - he knew that God was trustworthy and would not require him to do wrong. He demonstrated his faith by preparing to make the sacrifice; yet before he carried it out, God stopped him and told him not to kill Isaac. Clearly God did not want the sacrifice itself, or he would not have prevented it from happening. See also the article on [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Abraham and Isaac[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]6. Judges 11:30-39[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Though this incident is recorded in the Bible, it does not mean that God approved of it. Jephthah placed himself in this situation by rashly making a vow (which, incidentally, the Bible warns against doing: see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Proverbs 20:25[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Once it was made, he had to sin either by breaking his vow or by sacrificing his daughter. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Glenn Miller points out that burnt offerings had to be male, yet another reason why the sacrifice wouldn't have been condoned by God.<sup>9</sup>[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Footnotes <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 22:20-21[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot])
2. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 13:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot])
3. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 13:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot])
4. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 3:12-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot])
5. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Sam 15:2-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot])
6. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 17:3-6[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot])
7. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 5:5-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot])
8. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Chr 21:18-25[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot])
9. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 22:18-19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. From [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Women in the Heart of God (IIc)[/FONT][FONT=&quot] by Glenn Miller - scroll to section 5, near the end. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why did God tell Abraham to sacrifice Isaac?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Genesis 22:1-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Some time later God tested Abraham. He said to him, "Abraham!" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Here I am," he replied. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Then God said, "Take your son, your only son, Isaac, whom you love, and go to the region of Moriah. Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering on one of the mountains I will tell you about." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Early the next morning Abraham got up and saddled his donkey. He took with him two of his servants and his son Isaac. When he had cut enough wood for the burnt offering, he set out for the place God had told him about. On the third day Abraham looked up and saw the place in the distance. He said to his servants, "Stay here with the donkey while I and the boy go over there. We will worship and then we will come back to you." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Abraham took the wood for the burnt offering and placed it on his son Isaac, and he himself carried the fire and the knife. As the two of them went on together, Isaac spoke up and said to his father Abraham, "Father?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Yes, my son?" Abraham replied. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The fire and wood are here," Isaac said, "but where is the lamb for the burnt offering?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Abraham answered, "God himself will provide the lamb for the burnt offering, my son." And the two of them went on together. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When they reached the place God had told him about, Abraham built an altar there and arranged the wood on it. He bound his son Isaac and laid him on the altar, on top of the wood. Then he reached out his hand and took the knife to slay his son. But the angel of the LORD called out to him from heaven, "Abraham! Abraham!" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Here I am," he replied. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Do not lay a hand on the boy," he said. "Do not do anything to him. Now I know that you fear God, because you have not withheld from me your son, your only son." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 12:31[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (see also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Leviticus 20:2-5[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jeremiah 32:35[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezekiel 20:26[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Isaiah 57:4-5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]You must not worship the Lord your God in their way, because in worshiping their gods, they do all kinds of detestable things the Lord hates. They even burn their sons and daughters in the fire as sacrifices to their gods. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Why would God command Abraham to sacrifice his own child?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]First, we should realize what God was not doing: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God was not tempting Abraham.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] God was not enticing Abraham to do wrong, but was testing him to see if he would do what was right. (See the article on [/FONT][FONT=&quot]tempting[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God was not instituting or condoning child sacrifice.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] As seen in Deuteronomy 12:31 and the other passages above, God abhors child sacrifice. It's important to remember that God prevented the sacrifice from actually occurring. He did not desire the sacrifice as an act of worship or for any other reason beyond testing Abraham. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God was not telling Abraham to do wrong.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] God has the right to take human life (see the article on [/FONT][FONT=&quot]God's moral authority[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and could therefore authorize Abraham to do so in a particular case. Note that had Abraham decided of his own accord to sacrifice Isaac, he would have been wrong and his act would have been condemned by God (as were other human-initiated sacrifices). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why then would God give this command? The point was for Abraham to demonstrate that he trusted God completely and placed him above all else, even his own son.[/FONT]<sup>[FONT=&quot]1[/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot] Though God of course already knew that Abraham had faith in him, it was necessary for Abraham to prove it through action. "His faith was made complete by what he did" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]James 2:21-23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Because of his actions, not only God but Abraham, his family and future generations knew that Abraham trusted God. This trust was important because it indicated that Abraham had the proper relationship with God (he was treating God as God deserves to be treated) and could benefit from God's good plans for his life. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Wasn't it wrong for Abraham to obey God?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God's command to Abraham was not wrong, for God has the right to take human life (see the article on [/FONT][FONT=&quot]God's moral authority[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and therefore had the right to command Isaac's death. Abraham had known God for many years prior to this, so he knew God's character and knew that God had the right to give this command. Had Abraham initiated the sacrifice or followed the order of someone who was not authorized by God, then his act would have been wrong. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Furthermore, Abraham knew that God had promised him offspring through Isaac, so this gave him reason to believe that God did not intend for Isaac to die permanently: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]By faith Abraham, when God tested him, offered Isaac as a sacrifice. He who had received the promises was about to sacrifice his one and only son, even though God had said to him, "It is through Isaac that your offspring will be reckoned." Abraham reasoned that God could raise the dead, and figuratively speaking, he did receive Isaac back from death. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Hebrews 11:17-19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Some have questioned whether Abraham truly loved Isaac if he was willing to sacrifice him. But the passage itself as well as other places in Genesis point out that Abraham did love Isaac: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]While Genesis doesn't record Abraham's emotional reaction to God's command, that does not mean carrying it out was an easy thing for him to do. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Footnotes <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 10:37[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Is God cruel to animals?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
People concerned about animal rights often object to God's commanding animals to be sacrificed and allowing them to be eaten and killed for other purposes. Yet does this mean that God hates animals? On the contrary, God intentionally created all the animals and continually provides for them and cares for them. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]He provides food for the cattle and for the young ravens when they call. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 147:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Look at the birds of the air; they do not sow or reap or store away in barns, and yet your heavenly Father feeds them. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 6:26[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Are not five sparrows sold for two pennies? Yet not one of them is forgotten by God. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 12:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While the Old Testament laws commanded animals to be sacrificed, there were also injunctions against animal cruelty. Animals were not to be overworked ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 23:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) or underfed ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 25:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), nor were they to be hunted to extinction ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 22:6-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Even wild animals were provided for, since they were given leftover food ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 23:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). In addition, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Proverbs 12:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot] says, "A righteous man cares for the needs of his animal." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Other passages where God expresses concern for animals or uses love for animals as an illustration: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Reconciling Creation and Science<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are many ways in which Christians interpret the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]creation story[/FONT][FONT=&quot] in Genesis and reconcile it with modern science. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Introduction[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Theistic evolution[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Progressive creationism[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Old-earth creationism[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Young-earth creationism[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Secular evolution[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]General questions and information[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Introduction[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In my opinion, each of the interpretations presented here (with the exception of secular evolution) is theoretically possible and at least somewhat plausible. I don't have a firm belief in any particular one, though I do favor creationism over theistic evolution, so I am presenting all of them; readers can then evaluate each and come to a conclusion. (For those looking for arguments and counter-arguments, most of the websites listed in each category argue against one or more of the other views.) As long as a view doesn't go off the theological deep end (e.g. hindering people's salvation or spiritual growth) or the logical deep end, it deserves to be considered seriously and without its proponents and opponents accusing each other of spiritual or intellectual blindness. However, I would caution people against an overly figurative interpretation of Genesis or the Bible, particularly those espoused by the more liberal forms of theistic evolution. As with any theological matter, Christians ought to approach this subject with prayer. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Theistic evolution[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Theistic evolution (or "evolutionary creation") is the view that evolution occurred, but was planned and guided by God. Some theistic evolutionists believe there are problems with the secular theory of evolution and therefore atheistic evolution could not occur. Others believe the secular theory of evolution is viable and is also compatible with the Bible. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Creationists are often leery of theistic evolution because of fears that the opening chapters of Genesis will be interpreted too figuratively. While some theistic evolutionists are very liberal in their interpretation of Genesis, there are conservative interpretations within theistic evolution as well, which I have tried to represent here. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Theistic evolution sites: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Some of the questions for [/FONT][FONT=&quot]old-earth creationism[/FONT][FONT=&quot] also apply to theistic evolution. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How is [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 2[/FONT][FONT=&quot] to be interpreted? Were Adam and Eve literal people?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Genesis 2:7-8[/FONT][FONT=&quot] states that Adam was formed as a special act of creation from "the dust of the ground," and the rest of the chapter implies that Adam was created as an adult, not born to almost-but-not-quite-human parents. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If Adam and Eve were not literal people, then Cain, Abel and Seth were not literal either, and the history of [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 4[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and the genealogy of [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 5[/FONT][FONT=&quot] make no sense (particularly [/FONT][FONT=&quot]5:3-5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: if Adam wasn't real, why is his lifespan recorded and his descendants listed down to Noah?). One must also consider [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Romans 5:12-21[/FONT][FONT=&quot], where Paul's argument assumes Adam was a real person and that we experience the ongoing consequences of his sin. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While some theistic evolutionists may interpret the story of Adam and Eve figuratively, a literal interpretation is not necessarily incompatible with theistic evolution. It could be that God guided the process of evolution to create all life forms except humans, and then specially created Adam and Eve in his own image as described in Genesis 2. The Catholic church offers as a possible explanation the notion that God could have specially created the human soul and/or spirit but not the body ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Adam, Eve and Evolution[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Carl Drews provides some other explanations (some conservative, some liberal) in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Transitional Fossils of Hominid Skulls[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (see the Theological Commentary and Further Reading sections). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Didn't God create distinct "kinds" and consider his creation to be finished on the seventh day, as opposed to being an ongoing process?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This question comes from [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Faith Facts[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. A possible answer to the second half is that God considered his creation to be finished when he had created humans and all the genera or species of other creatures; the continuing of microevolution wouldn't mean that creation had not been completed, any more than the birth-and-death cycle means creation has not been completed. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Progressive creationism[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Progressive creationism is similar to theistic evolution in that it holds that the Earth and the universe are very old and that evolution occurred to a limited extent. It differs in that it believes God was more involved than in theistic evolution: rather than guiding the process and causing the more unlikely genetic changes to occur, he specifically created different kinds of animals by using previously existing animals (as opposed to creating them out of nothing). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Progressive creation articles/sites: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Most of the questions for [/FONT][FONT=&quot]theistic evolution[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]old-earth creationism[/FONT][FONT=&quot] also apply to progressive creation. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Old-earth creationism[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This view accepts the standard scientific views of the age of the universe and the Earth, but rejects evolution. Genesis 1 is interpreted fairly literally, with the exception that the six days of creation were actually six eras, not literal 24-hour days. Hence, this view is sometimes called the "day-age" view. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Old-earth sites: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]When did the first man come into existence: 50,000 - 100,000 years ago according to secular science, or 6,000 years ago according to Biblical genealogies?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Even if "became the father of" in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 5[/FONT][FONT=&quot] means "became the ancestor of," the age of each person at the time their descendant was born is still recorded. I have yet to see a satisfactory explanation of how this chapter can be reconciled with a belief that Adam and Eve existed tens of thousands of years ago. However, Carl Drews offers some explanations (some conservative, some liberal) in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Transitional Fossils of Hominid Skulls[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (see the Theological Commentary and Further Reading sections). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Could animal death have occurred before the Fall?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Bert Thompson, a young-earth creationist, answers this question in the affirmative in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Did Death Occur on Earth Prior to Man's Sin?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] See also an [/FONT][FONT=&quot]old-earth creationist answer[/FONT][FONT=&quot] by John C. Munday Jr. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How is the phrase "And there was evening, and there was morning" in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 1[/FONT][FONT=&quot] to be interpreted?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]See [/FONT][FONT=&quot]How Long an Evening and Morning?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]by Otto J. Helweg <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Young-earth creationism[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This view interprets Genesis 1 and the rest of the Bible literally. The Earth and all its life forms were created in six 24-hour days, and the Earth is less than 10,000 years old. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Young-earth sites: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]What about scientific evidence pointing to an old earth?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]See Answers in Genesis' articles on [/FONT][FONT=&quot]geology[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What's the age of the universe? What about stars that are millions of light-years away?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]See Answers in Genesis' articles on [/FONT][FONT=&quot]astronomy and astrophysics[/FONT][FONT=&quot], in particular [/FONT][FONT=&quot]How can we see distant stars in a young Universe?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Aren't the creation accounts in Genesis 1 and 2 contradictory?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]See [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Were animals or humans created first?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Don't creationists use poor logic and science?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While there have been poor arguments advanced in favor of creationism, one shouldn't dismiss all creationists or creationist arguments. Answers in Genesis has an article on [/FONT][FONT=&quot]arguments creationists should not use[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Secular evolution[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Secular sites which explain evolution: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]The [/FONT][FONT=&quot]young-earth sites[/FONT][FONT=&quot] listed are primarily focused on rebutting evolution, but [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Reasons to Believe[/FONT][FONT=&quot] provides rebuttals from an old-earth perspective. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]General questions and information[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Sites and articles of interest: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]How could plants be created before the sun?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]See [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Day 4 of Creation[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But God wouldn't do it that way![/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This argument is made by people on all sides of the issue, including atheists. Creationists and some atheists argue that a good God would not use the brutal, wasteful method of thousands of years of natural selection to produce humans and life as we know it. Creationists argue further that God would not demean the humans he created in his own image by evolving them from animals. Theistic evolutionists respond that creationism means God deliberately created viruses, parasites, creatures designed to be carnivores and other things we think of as evil. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It seems to me that one of the surest ways to fall into theological error is to make an argument about what God would or would not do based on our own fallible conceptions of what a good God ought to do. After all, this is the same reasoning that leads atheists to reject God (because a good God wouldn't permit evil) and universalists and annihilationists to reject the notion of hell (because a good God wouldn't punish people eternally). Clearly, God has deliberately created creatures that we consider to be evil, for he created Satan and the other angels who fell. Clearly, God allows animals to kill other animals and allows all his creatures to feel pain. Yet this does not prevent Christians from realizing that God is good. (See [/FONT][FONT=&quot]How can a good God allow evil?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) We would all do things differently if we were God -- and we would do a lot worse than he does. Therefore a theory that contradicts our preferences is not always a theory that contradicts God. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why did God accept Abel's offering and reject Cain's?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 4:2-5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]

Now Abel kept flocks, and Cain worked the soil. In the course of time Cain brought some of the fruits of the soil as an offering to the LORD. But Abel brought fat portions from some of the firstborn of his flock. The LORD looked with favor on Abel and his offering, but on Cain and his offering he did not look with favor. So Cain was very angry, and his face was downcast. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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Some people have suggested that Cain's offering was unacceptable because he offered plants while Abel offered animals. I don't think this is the case, since God accepted grain offerings at other times ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev. 2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and since the laws regarding sacrifices had not yet been given (though it is interesting to note that Abel offered fat portions as prescribed in the Levitical law - see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev. 3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). It's possible that Cain and Abel had received some instruction on what constituted an acceptable sacrifice from God, or that Cain had committed other wrongs that would make his offering unacceptable to God. However, the passage does give us some clues. It says that Abel "brought fat portions from some of the firstborn." He offered some of what came first, as opposed to waiting until an animal had plenty of offspring (and the oldest were reproducing themselves) and then sacrificing one of the youngest, and he offered the choicest parts. Abel was clearly giving the best of what he had to God. Cain, on the other hand, brought "some of the fruits of the soil," which were not necessarily the best crops - they may have been damaged and/or been what Cain considered "extra" or "leftover." Abel's and Cain's actions were a reflection of their attitudes towards God - should God receive the best of what they had or not? - and it was their attitudes that God was concerned with.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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[FONT=&quot]Caring for the Animals on the Ark<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]A[/FONT][FONT=&quot]ccording to Scripture, Noah’s Ark was a safe haven for representatives of all the kinds of air-breathing land animals that God created. While it is possible that God made miraculous provisions for the daily care of these animals, it is not necessary—or required by Scripture—to appeal to miracles. Exploring natural solutions for day-to-day operations does not discount God’s role: the biblical account hints at plenty of miracles as written, such as God bringing the animals to the Ark ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 6:20[/FONT]<cite>[FONT=&quot]; [/FONT]</cite>[FONT=&quot]7:9[/FONT]<cite>[FONT=&quot], [/FONT]</cite>[FONT=&quot]15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). It turns out that a study of existing, low-tech animal care methods answers trivial objections to the Ark. In fact, many solutions to seemingly insurmountable problems are rather straightforward.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How Did Noah Fit All the Animals on the Ark?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]According to the Bible, the Ark had three decks (floors). It is not difficult to show that there was plenty of room for 16,000 animals (the maximum number of animals on the Ark, if the most liberal approach to counting animals is applied), assuming they required approximately the same floor space as animals in typical farm enclosures and laboratories. The vast majority of the creatures (birds, reptiles, and mammals) were small (the largest only a few hundred pounds of body weight). What’s more, many could have been housed in groups, which would have further reduced the required space. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is still necessary to take account of the floor spaces required by large animals, such as elephants and rhinos. But even these, collectively, do not require a large area because it is most likely that these animals were young, but not newborns. Even the largest dinosaurs were relatively small when only a few years old.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What Did the Dinosaurs Eat?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Dinosaurs could have eaten basically the same foods as the other animals. The large sauropods could have eaten compressed hay, other dried plant material, seeds and grains, and the like. Carnivorous dinosaurs—if any were meat-eaters before the Flood—could have eaten dried meat, reconstituted dried meat, or slaughtered animals. Giant tortoises would have been ideal to use as food in this regard. They were large and needed little food to be maintained themselves. There are also exotic sources of meat, such as fish that wrap themselves in dry cocoons.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is not necessary—or required by Scripture—to appeal to miracles for the provision and daily care of the animals on the Ark. Many solutions to seemingly insurmountable problems are rather straightforward.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How Were the Animals Cared For?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]We must distinguish between the long-term care required for animals kept in zoos and the temporary, emergency care required on the Ark. The animals’ comfort and healthy appearance were not essential for emergency survival during one stressful year, where survival was the primary goal. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Studies of nonmechanized animal care indicate that eight people could have fed and watered 16,000 creatures. The key is to avoid unnecessary walking around. As the old adage says, “Don’t work harder, work smarter.”<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Therefore, Noah probably stored the food and water near each animal. Even better, drinking water could have been piped into troughs, just as the Chinese have used bamboo pipes for this purpose for thousands of years. The use of some sort of self-feeders, as is commonly done for birds, would have been relatively easy and probably essential. Animals that required special care or diets were uncommon and should not have needed an inordinate amount of time from the handlers. Even animals with the most specialized diets in nature could have been switched to readily sustainable substitute diets. Of course, this assumes that animals with specialized diets today were likewise specialized at the time of the Flood.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How Did the Animals Breathe?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Based on my two decades of research, I do not believe that anything more was needed than a basic, non-mechanical ventilation system. The density of animals on the Ark, compared to the volume of enclosed space, was much less than we find in some modern, mass animal housing used to keep stock raised for food (such as chicken farms), which requires no special mechanical ventilation. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is reasonable to believe that one relatively small window would have adequately ventilated the Ark. Of course if there were a window along the top center section, which the Bible allows, all occupants would be even more comfortable. It is also interesting to note that the convective movement of air, driven by temperature differences between the warm-blooded animals and the cold interior surfaces, would have been significant enough to drive the flow of air. Plus, wind blowing into the window would have enhanced the ventilation further. However, if supplementary ventilation was necessary, it could have been provided by wave motion, fire thermal, or even a small number of animals harnessed to slow-moving rotary fans.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shapetype id="_x0000_t75" coordsize="21600,21600" o:spt="75" o:preferrelative="t" path="m@4@5l@4@11@9@11@9@5xe" filled="f" stroked="f"> <v:stroke joinstyle="miter"/> <v:formulas> <v:f eqn="if lineDrawn pixelLineWidth 0"/> <v:f eqn="sum @0 1 0"/> <v:f eqn="sum 0 0 @1"/> <v:f eqn="prod @2 1 2"/> <v:f eqn="prod @3 21600 pixelWidth"/> <v:f eqn="prod @3 21600 pixelHeight"/> <v:f eqn="sum @0 0 1"/> <v:f eqn="prod @6 1 2"/> <v:f eqn="prod @7 21600 pixelWidth"/> <v:f eqn="sum @8 21600 0"/> <v:f eqn="prod @7 21600 pixelHeight"/> <v:f eqn="sum @10 21600 0"/> </v:formulas> <v:path o:extrusionok="f" gradientshapeok="t" o:connecttype="rect"/> <o:lock v:ext="edit" aspectratio="t"/> </v:shapetype><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_67" o:spid="_x0000_i1044" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Proposed manure removing plan for the Ark" href="http://www.answersingenesis.org/assets/images/articles/am/v2/n2/manure-gutter-model.jp" style='width:187.5pt;height:133.5pt;visibility:visible' o:button="t"> <v:fill o:detectmouseclick="t"/> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\22\clip_image001.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]--><!--[endif]-->[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Click to enlarge.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Animal enclosures with sloped, self-cleaning floors, emptying into a manure gutter or pit.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What Did Noah and His Family Do with the Animal Waste?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]As much as 12 U.S. tons (<st1:metricconverter productid="11 m" w:st="on">11 m</st1:metricconverter>. tons) of animal waste may have been produced daily. The key to keeping the enclosures clean was to avoid the need for Noah and his family to do the work. The right systems could also prevent the need to change animal bedding. Noah could have accomplished this in several ways. One possibility would be to allow the waste to accumulate below the animals, much as we see in modern pet shops. In this regard, there could have been slatted floors, and animals could have trampled their waste into the pits below. Small animals, such as birds, could have multiple levels in their enclosures, and waste could have simply accumulated at the bottom of each.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The danger of toxic or explosive manure gases, such as methane, would be alleviated by the constant movement of the Ark, which would have allowed manure gases to be constantly released. Secondly, methane, which is half the density of air, would quickly find its way out of a small opening such as a window. There is no reason to believe that the levels of these gases within the Ark would have approached hazardous levels.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Alternatively, sloped floors would have allowed the waste to flow into large central gutters. Noah’s family could have then dumped this overboard without an excessive expenditure of manpower.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The problem of manure odor may, at first thought, seem insurmountable. But we must remember that, throughout most of human history, humans lived together with their farm animals. Barns, separate from human living quarters, are a relatively recent development.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While the voyage of the Ark may not have been comfortable or easy, it was certainly doable, even under such unprecedented circumstances.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A Look Inside the Ark<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]This is a cross-section view of a possible design of the interior of the Ark.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_68" o:spid="_x0000_i1045" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Possible Ark layout" href="http://www.answersingenesis.org/assets/images/articles/am/v2/n2/ark-layout.jp" style='width:356.25pt;height:235.5pt;visibility:visible' o:button="t"> <v:fill o:detectmouseclick="t"/> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\22\clip_image002.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]--><!--[endif]-->[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Click to enlarge.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Three Decks<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Genesis 6:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot] instructs that the Ark is to be made [/FONT][FONT=&quot]“with lower, second, and third decks”[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (NKJV). In this version of the Ark’s interior, there are two levels that do not extend across the entire width of the ship. These half-floors are not separate levels.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Animal Housing<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Genesis 6:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot] instructs Noah to [/FONT][FONT=&quot]“make rooms [nests] in the ark”[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (NKJV). These rooms or nests would simply be stalls and cages for the animals. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_69" o:spid="_x0000_i1046" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="A model of the Ark" href="http://www.answersingenesis.org/assets/images/articles/am/v2/n2/inside-ark-model.jp" style='width:187.5pt;height:141pt;visibility:visible' o:button="t"> <v:fill o:detectmouseclick="t"/> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\22\clip_image003.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]--><!--[endif]-->[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Model created by Tim Foley. Click to enlarge.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]This scale model shows the effective design of Noah’s Ark. This second-floor model shows the extra half-floor within the three deck structure that could have been used for possible storage or animal housing.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Stairs<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Several staircases and ladders could be fitted throughout the Ark to gain quick access to another deck. Ramps near the ends of the hull (as seen in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Thinking Outside the Box[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) could be used to get animals and heavy loads between decks.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Food & Water<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Mezzanine levels improve access to food storage, utilizing gravity to supply grain and water to the animal enclosures below. Water could be directed in pipes (metal, wood, leather, bamboo, etc.) from tanks on upper levels.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Light & Ventilation<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]The central skylight provides lighting and ventilation to the center section of the Ark. Slatted floors maximize airflow to the lower decks.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John Woodmorappe[/FONT][FONT=&quot] has been a researcher in the areas of biology, geology, and paleontology for over twenty years. He has two B.A. degrees and an M.A. in geology. John has also been a public school science teacher. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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[FONT=&quot]How did animals get from the Ark to isolated places, such as Australia?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]L[/FONT][FONT=&quot]et us begin by reaffirming that God's Word does indeed reveal, in the plainest possible terms, that the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]whole globe[/FONT][FONT=&quot] was inundated with a violent, watery cataclysm—Noah's flood. All land-dwelling, air-breathing creatures not on the ark perished and the world was re-populated by those surviving on the ark.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
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[FONT=&quot]How Did the Animals Get to the Ark?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Skeptics paint a picture of [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Noah[/FONT][FONT=&quot] going to countries remote from the Middle East to gather animals such as kangaroos and koalas from Australia, and kiwis from New Zealand. However, the Bible states that the animals came to Noah; he did not have to round them up ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 6:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). God apparently caused the animals to come to [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Noah[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. The Bible does not state how this was done.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We also do not know what the geography of the world was like before the flood. If there was only one continent at that time, then questions of getting animals from remote regions to the ark are not relevant.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Animal Distribution After the Flood<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are severe practical limitations on our attempts to understand the hows and whys of something that happened once, was not recorded in detail, and cannot be repeated.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Difficulties in our ability to explain every single situation in detail result from our limited understanding. We cannot go back in a time machine to check what has happened, and our mental reconstructions of what the world was like after the flood will inevitably be deficient. Because of this, the patterns of post-flood animal migration present some problems and research challenges for the biblical creation model. However, there are clues from various sources which suggest answers to the questions.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Clues from Modern Times<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When Krakatoa erupted in 1883, the island remnant remained lifeless for some years, but was eventually colonized by a surprising variety of creatures, including not only insects and earthworms, but [/FONT][FONT=&quot]birds[/FONT][FONT=&quot], lizards, snakes and even a few mammals. One would not have expected some of this surprising array of creatures to have crossed the ocean, but they obviously did. Even though these were mostly smaller than some of the creatures we will discuss here, it illustrates the limits of our imaginings on such things.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Land Bridges<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="width: 135pt;" align="right" border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="180"> <tbody><tr style=""> <td style="width: 15pt; padding: 0cm;" width="20"> [FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_94" o:spid="_x0000_i1047" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="http://www.christiananswers.net/0.gif" style='width:15pt;height:.75pt;visibility:visible'> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\22\clip_image004.png" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]-->
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</td> <td style="width: 120pt; padding: 0cm;" width="160"> [FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_95" o:spid="_x0000_i1048" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Map of Australia. Copyrighted. Courtesy of Films for Christ." style='width:120pt;height:89.25pt;visibility:visible'> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\22\clip_image006.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]-->
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</td> </tr> </tbody></table> [FONT=&quot]Evolutionists acknowledge that men and animals could once freely cross the Bering Strait, which separates Asia and the Americas.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][1][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Before the idea of continental drift became popular, evolutionists depended entirely upon a lowering of the sea level during an ice age (which locked up water in the ice) to create land bridges, enabling dry-land passage from Europe most of the way to Australasia, for example.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The existence of some deep-water stretches along the route to Australia is still consistent with this explanation. Evolutionist geologists themselves believe there have been major tectonic upheavals, accompanied by substantial rising and falling of sea floors, in the time period which they associate with an ice age. For instance, parts of California are believed to have been raised many thousands of feet from what was the sea floor during this ice age period, which they call “Pleistocene” (one of the most recent of the supposed geological periods). creationist geologists generally regard Pleistocene sediments as post-flood, the period in which these major migrations took place.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the same way, other dry-land areas, including parts of these land bridges, subsided to become submerged at around the same time.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][2][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There is a widespread, but mistaken, belief that marsupials are found only in Australia, thus supporting the idea that they must have evolved there. However, living marsupials, opossums, are found also in North and South America, and fossil marsupials have been found on every continent. Likewise, monotremes were once thought to be unique to Australia, but the discovery in 1991 of a fossil platypus tooth in South America stunned the scientific community.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][3][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Therefore, since evolutionists believe all organisms came from a common ancestor, migration between Australia and other areas must be conceded as possible by all scientists, whether evolutionist or creationist.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Creationists generally believe there was only one Ice Age after, and as a consequence of, the flood. The lowered sea level at this time made it possible for animals to migrate over land bridges for centuries. Some creationists propose a form of continental break-up after the flood, in the days of Peleg. This again would mean several centuries for animals to disperse, in this instance without the necessity of land-bridges. However, continental break-up in the time of Peleg is not widely accepted in creationist circles.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Did the Kangaroo Hop All the Way to Australia?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How did animals make the long journey from the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ararat[/FONT][FONT=&quot] region? Even though there have been isolated reports of individual animals making startling journeys of hundreds of miles, such abilities are not even necessary. Early settlers released a very small number of rabbits in Australia. Wild rabbits are now found at the very opposite corner (in fact, every corner) of this vast continent. Does that mean that an individual rabbit had to be capable of crossing the whole of Australia? Of course not. Creation speakers are sometimes asked mockingly, "Did the kangaroo hop all the way to Australia?" We see by the rabbit example that this is a somewhat foolish question.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_6" o:spid="_x0000_s1026" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Kangaroo" style='position:absolute;margin-left:74pt; margin-top:0;width:114pt;height:74.25pt;z-index:1;visibility:visible; mso-wrap-distance-left:0;mso-wrap-distance-right:0;mso-position-horizontal:right; mso-position-vertical-relative:line' o:allowoverlap="f"> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\22\clip_image007.jpg" o:title=""/> <w:wrap type="square"/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]-->
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<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Populations of animals may have had centuries to migrate, relatively slowly, over many generations. Incidentally, the opposite question (also common), as to whether the two kangaroos hopped all the way from Australia to the ark, is also easily answered. The continents we now have, with their load of flood-deposited sedimentary rock, are not the same as whatever continent or continents there may have been in the pre-flood world.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We also lack information as to how animals were distributed before the flood. Kangaroos (as is true for any other creature) may not have been on any isolated landmass. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 1:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot] suggests that there may have been only one landmass. ("Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place, and let the dry land appear.") For all we know, kangaroos might have been feeding within a stone's throw of Noah while he was building the Ark.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It may be asked, if creatures were migrating to Australia over a long time (which journey would have included such places as indonesia, presumably) why do we not find their fossils en route in such countries?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Fossilization is a rare event, requiring, as a rule, sudden burial (as in the flood) to prevent decomposition. Lions lived in israel until relatively recently. We don't find lion fossils in Israel, yet this doesn't prevent us believing the many historical reports of their presence. The millions of bison that once roamed the United States of America have left virtually no fossils. So why should it be a surprise that small populations, presumably under migration pressure from competitors and/or predators, and thus living in only one area for a few generations at most, should leave no fossils?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Unique Organisms<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Another issue is why certain animals (and plants) are uniquely found in only one place. Why is species x found only in madagascar and species y only in the Seychelles? Many times, questions on this are phrased to indicate that the questioner believes that this means that species y headed only in that one direction, and never migrated anywhere else. While that is possible, it is not necessarily the case at all. All that the present situation indicates is that these are now the only places where x or y still survive.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The ancestors of present-day kangaroos may have established daughter populations in different parts of the world, most of which subsequently became extinct. Perhaps those marsupials only survived in Australia because they migrated there ahead of the placental mammals (we are not suggesting anything other than “random” processes in choice of destination), and were subsequently isolated from the placentals, and so protected from competition and predation.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Palm Valley in central Australia is host to a unique species of palm, Livingstonia mariae, found nowhere else in the world. Does this necessarily mean that the seeds for this species floated only to this one little spot? Not at all. Current models of post-flood climate indicate that the world is much drier now than it was in the early post-flood centuries. Evolutionists themselves agree that in recent times (by evolutionary standards), the sahara was lush and green, and central Australia had a moist, tropical climate. For all we know, the Livingstonia mariae palm may have been widespread over much of Australia, perhaps even in other places which are now dry, such as parts of Africa.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The palm has survived in Palm Valley because there it happens to be protected from the drying out which affected the rest of its vast central Australian surroundings. Everywhere else, it died out.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Incidentally, this concept of changing vegetation with changing climate should be kept in mind when considering post-flood animal migration—especially because of the objections (and caricatures) which may be presented. For instance, how could creatures that today need a rain forest environment trudge across thousands of miles of parched desert on the way to where they now live? The answer is that it wasn't desert then!<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Koala and Other Specialized Types<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="width: 165pt;" align="right" border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="220"> <tbody><tr style=""> <td style="width: 15pt; padding: 0cm;" width="20"> [FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_96" o:spid="_x0000_i1049" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="http://www.christiananswers.net/0.gif" style='width:15pt;height:.75pt;visibility:visible'> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\22\clip_image004.png" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]-->
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</td> <td style="width: 150pt; padding: 0cm;" width="200"> [FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_97" o:spid="_x0000_i1050" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Koalas in Australia. Copyrighted: Paul S. Taylor (Eden Comm.)" style='width:150pt;height:131.25pt;visibility:visible'> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\22\clip_image008.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]-->
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Koalas in a tree in Australia. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> </tbody></table> [FONT=&quot]Some problems are more difficult to solve. For instance, there are creatures that require special conditions or a very specialized diet, such as the giant panda of China or Australia's koala. We don't know, of course, that bamboo shoots or blue gum leaves[/FONT][FONT=&quot][4][/FONT][FONT=&quot] were not then flourishing all along their eventual respective migratory paths. In fact, this may have influenced the direction they took.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But, in any case, there is another possibility. A need for unique or special conditions to survive may be a result of specialization, a downhill change in some populations. That is, it may result from a loss in genetic information, from thinning out of the gene pool or by degenerative mutation. A good example is the many modern breeds of dog, selected by man (although natural conditions can do likewise), which are much less hardy in the wild than their “mongrel” ancestors. For example, the St. Bernard carries a mutational defect, an overactive thyroid, which means it needs to live in a cold environment to avoid overheating.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This suggests that the ancestors of such creatures, when they came off the Ark, were not as specialized. Thus they were more hardy than their descendants, who carry only a portion of that original gene pool of information.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][5][/FONT][FONT=&quot] In other words, the koala's ancestor may have been able to survive on a much greater range of vegetation. Such an explanation has been made possible only with modern biological insights. Perhaps as knowledge increases some of the remaining difficulties will become less so.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Such changes do not require large time periods for animals under migratory pressure. The first small population that formed would tend to break up rapidly into daughter populations, going in different directions, each carrying only a portion of the gene pool of the original pair that came off the ark.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Sometimes all of a population will eventually become extinct; sometimes all but one specialized type. Where all the sub-types survive and proliferate, we find some of the tremendous diversity seen among some groups of creatures which are apparently derived from one created kind. This explains why some very obviously related species are found far apart from each other.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The sloth, a very slow-moving creature, may seem to require much more time than Scripture allows to make the journey from [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ararat[/FONT][FONT=&quot] to its present home. Perhaps its present condition is also explicable by a similar evolutionary process. However, to account for today's animal distribution, evolutionists themselves have had to propose that certain primates have traveled across hundreds of miles of open ocean on huge rafts of matted vegetation torn off in storms.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][6][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Indeed, iguanas have recently been documented traveling hundreds of miles in this manner between islands in the caribbean.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][7][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Bible suggests a pattern of post-flood dispersal of animals and humans that accounts for fossil distribution of apes and humans, for example. In post-flood deposits in Africa, ape fossils are found below human fossils. Evolutionists claim that this arose because humans evolved from the apes, but there is another explanation. Animals, including apes, would have begun spreading out over the earth straight after the flood, whereas the Bible indicates that people refused to do this (Genesis [/FONT][FONT=&quot]9:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]11:1-9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Human dispersal did not start until Babel, some hundreds of years after the flood. Such a delay would have meant that some ape fossils would be found consistently below human fossils, since people would have arrived in Africa after the apes.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][8][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We may never know the exact answer to every one of such questions, but certainly one can see that the problems are far less formidable than they may at first appear.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][9][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Coupled with all the biblical, geological, and anthropological evidence for noah's flood, one is justified in regarding the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis[/FONT][FONT=&quot] account of the animals dispersing from a central point as perfectly reasonable.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][10][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Not only that, but the biblical model provides an excellent framework for the scientific study of these questions.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="width: 60pt;" align="left" border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="80"> <tbody><tr style=""> <td style="padding: 0cm;"> [FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_98" o:spid="_x0000_i1051" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Click to read" href="http://www.christiananswers.net/q-aig/aig-kangaroos.htm" style='width:52.5pt; height:54.75pt;visibility:visible' o:button="t"> <v:fill o:detectmouseclick="t"/> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\22\clip_image009.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]--><!--[endif]-->[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> </tbody></table> [FONT=&quot]KANGAROOS[/FONT][FONT=&quot] - Where do they come from? Why the pouch? Why do they hop? [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Did they evolve from some other animal? [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Answer[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Footnotes<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  1. [FONT=&quot]S.A. Elias, S.K. Short, C.H. Nelson, and H.H. Birks, "Life and Times of the Bering Land Bridge," Nature, 1996, 382:60-63.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  2. [FONT=&quot]Note that the region around the north of Australia to Southeast asia is a tectonically active part of the world.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  3. [FONT=&quot]Anon., "Platypus Tooth Bites Hard into Long-held Beliefs," Creation, 1992, 14(1):13, based on an article in New Scientist, August 24, <st1:metricconverter productid="1991. A" w:st="on">1991. A</st1:metricconverter> platypus is a monotreme (an egg-laying mammal).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  4. [FONT=&quot]Actually, the koala can eat other types of gum leaves. Australia has around 500 species of eucalypt (gum) trees. Koalas eat the leaves of about 20 species, with the blue gum a favorite. Recent work has shown that the koala's insistence on eucalypt is actually an addiction to certain chemicals in the leaf which it first eats in the mother's milk. Bottle-raised koalas can survive on a non-eucalypt diet (see CEN Technical Journal 8(2):126). Also, the giant panda, which normally only eats bamboo shoots, has been known to eat small animals occasionally.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  5. [FONT=&quot]See [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Origin of Races[/FONT][FONT=&quot] for an example of the way in which a very light-skinned “race” deriving from a mid-brown one is missing some of the information in the parent population.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  6. [FONT=&quot]Anon., “Hitchhiking Lemurs,” Creation, 1993, 15(4):11, commenting on J. Tattersall, “Madagascar's Lemurs,” Scientific American, 1993, 268(1):90-97.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  7. [FONT=&quot]Anon., "Surfing Lizards Wipe Out Objections," Creation, 1999, 21(2):8.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  8. [FONT=&quot]Dr. Sigrid Hartwig-Scherer, paleoanthropologist, on the video, The Image of God, Keziah Videos.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  9. [FONT=&quot]In recent literature about some of the problems of animal distribution, even within an evolutionary framework, there has been an occasional suggestion that early man may have been a much better boat-builder and navigator than previously thought. Various types of animals may thus have accompanied people on boats across the sea. This should be kept in mind as a possibility in some instances. Animals brought in this way to a new continent may have prospered, even though the accompanying people did not stay, or perished.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  10. [FONT=&quot]For further reading: J. Whitcomb and H. Morris, The Genesis Flood, (Phillipsburg, NJ: Presbyterian and Reformed Publ. Co., 1961); J. Woodmorappe, "Causes for the Biogeographic Distribution of Land Vertebrates After the Flood," Proc. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Second ICC[/FONT][FONT=&quot], Pittsburgh, PA, 1990, pp. 361-367.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]11. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Facts on Noah's Ark[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]12. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="1"> [/FONT]​
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]13. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Author:[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Bill Crouse
Date: 6/19/2003 9:22:44 PM
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[FONT=&quot]CIM Outline #26
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Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

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mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--> <!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]1. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot] FACTS ON NOAH'S <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">ARK</st1:place></st1:state>

I. Introduction

A. Biblical Passages: Gen. 6-8; Matt. 24:37,38; Lk. 17:26,27;
I Pet. 3:20;II Pet. 2:5.

B. The story of Noah and his family being spared from a world-
wide deluge (a judgement by God) is one of the most
important in the Old Testament. Much is learned about the
nature of God from this story. For example: (1) It shows
He is a holy God and cannot tolerate sin. (2) It shows He
is a just God and that sin will not go unpunished. (3) It
shows He is a God of mercy in that He spares some. (4) It
shows God's power in that the Flood unleased great power.

II. The Design of the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state>

A. The Designer was God Himself. We do not need to assume
Noah knew anything about ship-building. The instructions
for design are given in Gen. 6:14ff.

B. Construction Materials

The Bible says the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> was to be built of "gopher wood".
"Gopher" is the actual Hebrew word. In early English
translations the meaning of the word was unknown so it was
left untranslated. The NIV translates it "cypress wood";
however, this is only a guess. It was undoubtedly
translated this way due to the fact that cypress wood is
highly resistant to rot. What this material was is still
a mystery. It could have been a pre-flood wood with which
we are not familiar.

It is almost certain that Noah did not construct a
standard wooden ship of the kind we are familiar.
According to nautical engineers the longest wooden vessel
ever built was <st1:metricconverter productid="360 feet" w:st="on">360 feet</st1:metricconverter> in length and was not seaworthy.
Because of the wave action of the sea only wooden ships
shorter than this will be seaworthy. Therefore, we must
conclude that Noah used some other method of construction
to overcome this problem.

C. The Design.

1. The Biblical word for <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> is "tebah". It is used 28
times in the OT and is only used of Noah's <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> and for
the container in which Moses was hidden among the
bulrushes. Because of a similar Egyptian word meaning
"box", and the ultimate purpose of the <st1:state w:st="on">Ark</st1:state>, we believe
the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> was not like a streamlined vessel designed to
easily glide through the water. More likely it was
shaped like a rectangular barge which floated rather
low in the water. From the story in the Bible, it
also would appear that Noah had no control over the
vessel. He, and it contents were at the total mercy
of God.

2. The <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> had three stories with only one door. The
phrase in Gen. 6:16, "Make a roof for it and finish
the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> to within <st1:metricconverter productid="18 inches" w:st="on">18 inches</st1:metricconverter> of the top." is
problematic in that the words used are obscure. Most
commentators believe it means leave an <st1:metricconverter productid="18 inch" w:st="on">18 inch</st1:metricconverter> space
at the top that is open all around the vessel. This
then would be for ventilation, and when water entered
it would drain out somewhere below, similar to the
vents in cars.

3. The <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> was to be coated inside and out with pitch.
Again the Hebrew word for "pitch" is obscure. It was
more likely some resinous material used not only to
waterproof the vessel but also to prevent decay. If
Noah was 480 years old when God told him to build an
Ark and 600 when the Flood came, it is reasonable to
assume that the construction of the Ark took place
during this 120 year period (See Gen. 6:3 along with
I Pet. 3:20). The need for this preservative was
essential. It is also possible that things did not
decay as rapidly in the pre-flood atmosphere.

4. The phrase in the NIV (6:14) "make rooms" is also
problematic in that the word is obscure. The Hebrew
is "qnm". Since Hebrew did not have any vowels when
it was written, scholars speculate that the word could
be either "qinnim" or "qanim". The former would mean
either "rooms" or "nest", and the later, "reeds".
Most english translations translate as in the former.
However, some of the better and more recent
commentaries, believe it should be translated "reeds"
since the context is building materials. If in
reality it is "reeds", then somehow reeds were part
of the construction material. Large boats are still
made from reeds and are very seaworthy. The Egyptians
still use reeds for caulking their wooden ships.

III. The Size of the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state>

(When considering its size it obviously was not the backyard
effort of a primitive river-dweller!)

A. It is given in cubits as being 300 cubits long by 50
cubits wide and 30 cubits high. A cubit in the OT was
generally about <st1:metricconverter productid="17.5 inches" w:st="on">17.5 inches</st1:metricconverter>. However, an Egyptian royal
cubit measured about <st1:metricconverter productid="20.5 inches" w:st="on">20.5 inches</st1:metricconverter>. Since Moses was
educated in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> we must allow for the possibility that
the longer measurement was meant here. The <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state>,
therefore, could have measured from <st1:metricconverter productid="437 feet" w:st="on">437 feet</st1:metricconverter> to 512 feet
in length! It was not until the late 19th century that
a ship anywhere near this size was built.

B. It's Ratio

The Ark had a ratio (length x width x height) of 30 x 5
x 3. According to ship-builders, this ratio represents
an advanced knowledge of ship-building since it is the
optimum design for stability in rough seas. The <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state>, as
designed by God, was virtually impossible to capsize!
It would have to have been tilted over 90 degrees in
order to capsize.

C. Its Volume.

With the shorter cubit the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> would have an internal
volume of <st1:metricconverter productid="1,518,750 cubic feet" w:st="on">1,518,750 cubic feet</st1:metricconverter>, or the equivalent of 569
standard railroad boxcars. If the average sized animal
was the size of a sheep it means the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> could hold over
125,000 sheep. (Assuming the shape of the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> to be
rectangular there would have been over <st1:metricconverter productid="100,000 sq. ft" w:st="on">100,000 sq. ft</st1:metricconverter> of
floor space!)

IV. It's Construction

Though the Bible does not say, it seems reasonable that Noah
employed a large group of workman to build the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark.</st1:place></st1:state> If Noah
started building the <st1:state w:st="on">Ark</st1:state> soon after God spoke to him, then the
process of building the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> may have taken close to 120 years.

V. It's Final Resting Place

The Bible says in Gen. 8:4 that the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> came to rest on the
mountains (plural) of Ararat. At the time Moses wrote Genesis
Ararat was a mountainous region located in what is today
Eastern <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Turkey</st1:place></st1:country-region>. The Bible only gives a general location for
the final resting place of Noah's <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark.</st1:place></st1:state> Contrary to what many
Christians believe, the Bible does not say the <st1:state w:st="on">Ark</st1:state> landed on
the <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Mt.</st1:placetype> <st1:placename w:st="on">Ararat</st1:placename></st1:place> of today. There is, however, compelling
evidence from ancient history that the <st1:state w:st="on">Ark</st1:state> landed on a mountain
about <st1:metricconverter productid="200 miles" w:st="on">200 miles</st1:metricconverter> south of <st1:place w:st="on"><st1:placetype w:st="on">Mt.</st1:placetype> <st1:placename w:st="on">Ararat</st1:placename></st1:place>. Josephus seems to be
referring to this mountain, and he claims it still existed in
his day. An Arabic historian says the last remains of the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state>
were hauled away about <st1:metricconverter productid="1000 A" w:st="on">1000 A</st1:metricconverter>.D.

VI. The Cargo

1. The Human Passengers. II Pet. 2:5 says 8 souls were
saved. We assume this means Noah, his wife, his three
sons, and their wives.

2. The Animal Passengers. In Gen. 6:19ff. Noah is instructed
to bring mated pairs of every kind of bird, every kind of
animal, and every kind of creature that moves along the
ground. In Gen. 7:2ff. He is more specifically
instructed to bring seven mated pairs (14) of clean
animals and seven pairs of all birds.

a. The Number of animals. Only air-breathing animals
needed to be included on the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark.</st1:place></st1:state> Authorities on
taxonomy estimate that there are less than 18,000
species of mammals, birds, reptiles, and amphibians
living in the world today. We might double this to
allow for extinct species. This would gives us 36,000
species times 2, or 72,000 animals. Adding for the
clean animals, we might say there were as many as
75,000 animals. Earlier we said there was room enough
in the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> for 125,000 sheep, but most animals are
smaller than a common house cat. There appears to be
plenty of space for the preservation of the animal
life. However, some creationists believe there may
have been far fewer animals if Noah only took on board
pairs of "kinds" as the word is used in Genesis 1.
God created these "kinds" with potential for rich
genetic diversity. For instance, at the time of
Christ there existed only two types of dogs. All the
diversity we see in the modern breeds of dogs came
from these two!

b. The Care of the animals. Noah was instructed to
include food for the animals (Gen. 6:21). How Noah
and his small family could have cared for this large
menagerie is unknown, not to mention the sanitation
problem! What we must remember is that this event,
i.e., the Flood, had supernatural elements. For
instance, the animals came to the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> against their
natural instincts (Gen. 6:20). It is therefore
reasonable to assume, as some creationists do, that
the animals' metabolism may have been slowed down
during their confinement, even to the point where some
of the animals may have gone into a state of
hibernation.

VII. The Typology or Spiritual meaning of the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state>

A. The Ark of Noah is a rich picture of the salvation
provided by Christwho today is our <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> of safety.

B. Some of the points of comparison are:

1. God took the initiative in sparing Noah and his
family. "But God demonstrates His own love for us
in this: While we were still sinners Christ died for
us." Rom. 5:8.

2. There was a divine and human side to the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> as
Christ is both human and divine.

3. There was only one door to enter into the <st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark</st1:place></st1:state> as
there is only one way to God and that is through
Christ Jesus. "I am the gate for the sheep..." Jn.
10:7. See also Acts 4:12.

4. There was great security for the passengers of the
<st1:state w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Ark.</st1:place></st1:state> Likewise,if we are in Christ we are secure.
See Rom.8:31ff.
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[FONT=&quot]Noah's Flood - Where did the water come from?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shapetype id="_x0000_t75" coordsize="21600,21600" o:spt="75" o:preferrelative="t" path="m@4@5l@4@11@9@11@9@5xe" filled="f" stroked="f"> <v:stroke joinstyle="miter"/> <v:formulas> <v:f eqn="if lineDrawn pixelLineWidth 0"/> <v:f eqn="sum @0 1 0"/> <v:f eqn="sum 0 0 @1"/> <v:f eqn="prod @2 1 2"/> <v:f eqn="prod @3 21600 pixelWidth"/> <v:f eqn="prod @3 21600 pixelHeight"/> <v:f eqn="sum @0 0 1"/> <v:f eqn="prod @6 1 2"/> <v:f eqn="prod @7 21600 pixelWidth"/> <v:f eqn="sum @8 21600 0"/> <v:f eqn="prod @7 21600 pixelHeight"/> <v:f eqn="sum @10 21600 0"/> </v:formulas> <v:path o:extrusionok="f" gradientshapeok="t" o:connecttype="rect"/> <o:lock v:ext="edit" aspectratio="t"/> </v:shapetype><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_133" o:spid="_x0000_i1025" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Ocean. Photo copyrighted. Courtesy of Films for Christ." href="http://www.christiananswers.net/catalog/wp-vs.htm" style='width:150pt; height:104.25pt;visibility:visible' o:button="t"> <v:fill o:detectmouseclick="t"/> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\23\clip_image001.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]--><!--[endif]-->[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I[/FONT][FONT=&quot]n telling us about the world-changing [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Flood[/FONT][FONT=&quot] in the days of [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Noah[/FONT][FONT=&quot], the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Bible[/FONT][FONT=&quot] gives us much information about where the waters came from and where they went. The sources of the water are given in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 7:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot] as “the fountains of the great deep” and the “windows of heaven.”<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Fountains of the Great Deep<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]The “fountains of the great deep” are mentioned before the “windows of heaven,” indicating either relative importance or the order of events. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What are the “fountains of the great deep?” This phrase is used only in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 7:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. “Fountains of the deep” is used in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 8:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot], where it clearly refers to the same thing, and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Proverbs 8:28[/FONT][FONT=&quot], where the precise meaning is not clear. “The great deep” is used three other times: [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Isaiah 51:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot], where it clearly refers to the ocean; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Amos 7:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot], where God's fire of judgment is said to dry up the great deep, probably the oceans; and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Psalm 36:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot] where it is used metaphorically of the depth of God's justice/judgment. “The deep” is used more often, and usually refers to the oceans (e.g., [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 1:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; Job [/FONT][FONT=&quot]38:30[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]41:32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; Psalm [/FONT][FONT=&quot]42:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]104:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; Isaiah [/FONT][FONT=&quot]51:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]63:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezekiel 26:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jonah 2:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), but sometimes to subterranean sources of water ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezekiel 31:4, 15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The Hebrew word (mayan) translated “fountains” means “fountain, spring, well.”[/FONT][FONT=&quot][1][/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So, the “fountains of the great deep” are probably oceanic or possibly subterranean sources of water. In the context of the flood account, it could mean both.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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[FONT=&quot]“Fountains of the great deep” scene from [/FONT][FONT=&quot]The World That Perished[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If the fountains of the great deep were the major source of the waters, then they must have been a huge source of water. Some have suggested that when God made the dry land appear from under the waters on the third day of creation, some of the water that covered the earth became trapped underneath and within the dry land.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][2][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Genesis 7:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot] says that on the day the flood began, there was a “breaking up” of the fountains, which implies a release of the water, possibly through large fissures in the ground or in the sea floor. The waters that had been held back burst forth with catastrophic consequences.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are many volcanic rocks interspersed between the fossil layers in the rock record—layers that were obviously deposited during Noah's flood. So it is quite plausible that these fountains of the great deep involved a series of volcanic eruptions with prodigious amounts of water bursting up through the ground. It is interesting that up to 70 percent or more of what comes out of volcanoes today is water, often in the form of steam.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In their catastrophic plate tectonics model for the flood, Austin et al. have proposed that at the onset of the flood, the ocean floor rapidly lifted up to <st1:metricconverter productid="6,500 feet" w:st="on">6,500 feet</st1:metricconverter> (<st1:metricconverter productid="2,000 meters" w:st="on">2,000 meters</st1:metricconverter>) due to an increase in temperature as horizontal movement of the tectonic plates accelerated.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][3][/FONT][FONT=&quot] This would spill the seawater onto the land and cause massive flooding—perhaps what is aptly described as the breaking up of the “fountains of the great deep.”<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_135" o:spid="_x0000_i1027" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Rain. Photo copyrighted, Eden Communications." href="http://www.christiananswers.net/catalog/wp-vs.htm" style='width:150pt; height:108pt;visibility:visible' o:button="t"> <v:fill o:detectmouseclick="t"/> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\23\clip_image003.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]--><!--[endif]-->[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]During the Flood, the world was deluged in 40 days of rain. But this was not the major source of the Flood waters. (Scene from the award-winning Christian video, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]The World that Perished[/FONT][FONT=&quot].)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The windows of heaven<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]The other source of the waters for Noah's flood was “the windows of heaven.” [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 7:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot] says that it rained for 40 days and 40 nights continuously.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Genesis 2:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot] tells us that there was no rain before man was created. Some have suggested that there was no rainfall anywhere on the earth until the time of the flood. However, the Bible does not actually say this, so we should not be dogmatic.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][4][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Some have argued that God's use of the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]rainbow[/FONT][FONT=&quot] as the sign of His covenant with Noah ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 9:12-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) suggests that there were no rainbows, and therefore no [/FONT][FONT=&quot]clouds[/FONT][FONT=&quot] or [/FONT][FONT=&quot]rain[/FONT][FONT=&quot], before the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]flood[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. However, if [/FONT][FONT=&quot]rainbows[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (and clouds) existed before the flood, this would not be the only time God used an existing thing as a special “new” sign of a [/FONT][FONT=&quot]covenant[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (e.g., [/FONT][FONT=&quot]bread[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]wine[/FONT][FONT=&quot] in the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lord's Supper[/FONT][FONT=&quot]).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_136" o:spid="_x0000_i1028" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Rainbow. Photo copyrighted. Courtesy of Films for Christ." href="http://www.christiananswers.net/q-eden/ednks006.htm" style='width:101.25pt; height:141.75pt;visibility:visible' o:button="t"> <v:fill o:detectmouseclick="t"/> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\23\clip_image004.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]--><!--[endif]-->[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is difficult to envisage a pre-flood water cycle without clouds and rain, as the sun's heat, even in that era, must have evaporated large volumes of surface waters which would have to eventually condense back into liquid water. And droplets of liquid water form clouds from which we get rain.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The expression “windows of heaven” is used twice in reference to the flood (Genesis [/FONT][FONT=&quot]7:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]8:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). It is used only three times elsewhere in the Old Testament: twice in 2 Kings [/FONT][FONT=&quot]7:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]19[/FONT][FONT=&quot], referring to God's miraculous intervention in sending rain, and once in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Malachi 3:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot], where the phrase is used again of God intervening to pour out abundant blessings on his people. Clearly, in Genesis the expression suggests the extraordinary nature of the rainfall attending the flood. It is not a term applied to ordinary rainfall.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What about “the waters above”?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]We are told in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 1:6-8[/FONT][FONT=&quot] that on the second day of creation God divided the waters that were on the earth from the waters that He placed above the earth when He made a “[/FONT][FONT=&quot]firmament[/FONT][FONT=&quot]” (Hebrew: raqiya, meaning “expanse”) between those waters.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][5][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Many have concluded that this “expanse” was the atmosphere, because God placed the birds in the expanse, suggesting that the expanse includes the atmosphere where the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]birds[/FONT][FONT=&quot] fly. This would put these waters above the atmosphere.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]However, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 1:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot], speaking of the creation of the birds, says (literally) “let the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]birds[/FONT][FONT=&quot] fly above the ground across the face of the expanse of the [/FONT][FONT=&quot]heavens[/FONT][FONT=&quot].”[/FONT][FONT=&quot][6][/FONT][FONT=&quot] This at least allows that “the expanse” may include the space beyond the atmosphere.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Dr. Russell Humphreys has argued that since [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 1:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot] tells us that God put the sun, moon, and stars also “in the expanse of the heaven” then the expanse must at least include interstellar space, and thus the waters above the expanse of [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 1:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot] would be beyond the stars at the edge of the universe.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][7][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]However, prepositions (in, under, above, etc.) are somewhat flexible in Hebrew, as well as English. A submarine can be spoken of as both under and in the sea. Likewise, the waters could be above the expanse and in the expanse, so we should be careful no to draw too much from these expressions.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So what were these “waters above”? Some have said that they are simply the clouds. Others thought of them as a “water vapor canopy,” implying a blanket of water vapor surrounding the earth.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_137" o:spid="_x0000_i1029" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Vapor canopy. Illustration copyrighted, Eden Communications." style='width:150pt;height:117.75pt;visibility:visible'> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\23\clip_image005.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]-->
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[FONT=&quot]Was there an ancient vapor canopy around the Earth that shielded pre-Flood inhabitants from harmful radiation that causes everything from skin cancer, mutations, and more? Illustration from [/FONT][FONT=&quot]The World that Perished[/FONT][FONT=&quot] video.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A water vapor canopy?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Dr. Joseph Dillow did much research into the idea of a blanket of water vapor surrounding the earth before the flood.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][8][/FONT][FONT=&quot] In a modification of the canopy theory, Dr. Larry Vardiman suggested that much of the “waters above” could have been stored in small ice particles distributed in equatorial rings around the earth similar to those around Venus.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][9][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 7:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot] reference to the windows of heaven being opened has been interpreted as the collapse of such a water vapor canopy, which somehow became unstable and fell as rain. Volcanic eruptions associated with the breaking up of the fountains of the great deep could have thrown dust into the water vapor canopy, causing the water vapor to nucleate on the dust particles and make rain.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Dillow, Vardiman, and others have suggested that the vapor canopy caused a greenhouse effect before the Flood with a pleasant sub tropical-to-temperate climate all around the globe, even at the poles where today there is ice. This would have caused the growth of lush vegetation on the land all around the globe. The discovery of coal seams in <st1:place w:st="on">Antarctica</st1:place> containing vegetation that is not now found growing at the poles, but which obviously grew under warmer conditions, was taken as support for these ideas.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][10][/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_138" o:spid="_x0000_i1030" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Ferns. Photo copyrighted, Eden Communications." href="http://www.christiananswers.net/catalog/wp-vs.htm" style='width:112.5pt; height:84.75pt;visibility:visible' o:button="t"> <v:fill o:detectmouseclick="t"/> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\23\clip_image006.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]--><!--[endif]-->[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A vapor canopy would also affect the global wind systems. Also, the mountains were almost certainly not as high before the flood as they are today, as we shall see. In today's world, the major winds and high mountain ranges are a very important part of the water cycle that brings rain to the continents. Before the flood, however, these factors would have caused the weather systems to be different.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Those interested in studying this further should consult Dillow's and Vardiman's works.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A major problem with the canopy theory<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Vardiman[/FONT][FONT=&quot][11][/FONT][FONT=&quot] recognized a major difficulty with the canopy theory. The best canopy model still gives an intolerably high temperature at the surface of the earth.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Rush and Vardiman have attempted a solution,[/FONT][FONT=&quot][12][/FONT][FONT=&quot] but found that they had to drastically reduce the amount of water vapor in the canopy from a rain equivalent of <st1:metricconverter productid="40 feet" w:st="on">40 feet</st1:metricconverter> (<st1:metricconverter productid="12 meters" w:st="on">12 meters</st1:metricconverter>) to only <st1:metricconverter productid="20 inches" w:st="on">20 inches</st1:metricconverter> (<st1:metricconverter productid=".5 meters" w:st="on">.5 meters</st1:metricconverter>). Further modeling suggested that a maximum of <st1:metricconverter productid="2 meters" w:st="on">2 meters</st1:metricconverter> (<st1:metricconverter productid="6.5 feet" w:st="on">6.5 feet</st1:metricconverter>) of water could be held in such a canopy, even if all relevant factors were adjusted to the best possible values to maximize the amount of water stored.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][13][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Such a reduced canopy would not significantly contribute to the 40 days and nights of rain at the beginning of the flood.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Many creation-scientists are now either abandoning the water vapor canopy model[/FONT][FONT=&quot][14][/FONT][FONT=&quot] or no longer see any need for such a concept, particularly if other reasonable mechanisms could have supplied the rain.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][15][/FONT][FONT=&quot] In the catastrophic plate tectonics model for the flood,[/FONT][FONT=&quot][16][/FONT][FONT=&quot] volcanic activity associated with the breaking up of the pre-flood ocean floor would have created a linear geyser (like a wall) of superheated steam from the ocean, causing intense global rain.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Nevertheless, whatever the source or mechanism, the scriptural statement about the windows of heaven opening is an apt description of global torrential rain.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A vapor canopy holding more than <st1:metricconverter productid="7 feet" w:st="on">7 feet</st1:metricconverter> (two meters) of rain would cause the earth's surface to be intolerably hot, so a vapor canopy could not have been a significant source of the flood waters.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_139" o:spid="_x0000_i1031" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="http://www.christiananswers.net/a.gif" style='width:17.25pt; height:14.25pt;visibility:visible'> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\23\clip_image007.gif" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]-->
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<!--[endif]-->[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Where did the Flood waters go? [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Answer[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Footnotes<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]


  1. [FONT=&quot]Strong's Concordance[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  2. [FONT=&quot]Evidence is mounting that there is still a huge amount of water stored deep in the earth in crystal lattices of minerals, which is possible because of the immense pressure. See L. Bergeron, “Deep waters,” New Scientist, 1997, 155(2097):22-26:“You have oceans and oceans of water stored in the transition zone. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]It's sopping wet.” <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  3. [FONT=&quot]S.A. Austin, J.R. Baumgardner, D.R. Humphreys, A.A. Snelling, L. Vardiman, and K.P. Wise, “Catastrophic Plate Tectonics: A Global Flood Model of Earth History,” Proc. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Third ICC[/FONT][FONT=&quot], 1994, pp. 609-621. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  4. [FONT=&quot]Some have claimed that because the people scoffed at Noah's warnings of a coming flood, that they must not have seen rain. But people today have seen lots of rain and floods, and many still scoff at the global flood. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 2:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot] says there was no rain yet upon the earth, but whether or not it rained after that in the pre-flood world is not stated. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  5. [FONT=&quot]In trying to disparage the Bible, some skeptics claim that the raqiya describes a solid dome and that the ancient Hebrews believed in a flat earth with a slotted dome over it. Such ideas are not in the Bible or raqiya. See J.P. Holding, “Is the Raqiya a Solid Dome?” Equivocal language in the cosmology of Genesis 1 and the Old Testament: a response to Paul H. Seely, CEN Technical Journal, 1999, 13(2):44-51. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  6. [FONT=&quot]H.C. Leupold, Exposition of Genesis, Vol. 1 (Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Book House, 1942), p. 78. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  7. [FONT=&quot]D.R. Humphreys, “A Biblical Basis for Creationist Cosmology,” (Proc. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Third ICC[/FONT][FONT=&quot], Pittsburgh, PA, 1994, pp. 255-266). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  8. [FONT=&quot]J.C. Dillow, The Waters Above (Chicago, IL: Moody Press, 1981). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  9. [FONT=&quot]L. Vardiman, “The Sky Has Fallen”, Proc. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]First ICC[/FONT][FONT=&quot], 1986, 1:113-119. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  10. [FONT=&quot]Movement of tectonic plates could also explain the polar occurrence of such warm-climate plant remains. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  11. [FONT=&quot]Vardiman, “The Sky Has Fallen,” pp. 116, 119. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  12. [FONT=&quot]D.E. Rush and L. Vardiman, “Pre-flood Vapor Canopy Radiative Temperature Profiles,” Proc. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Fourth ICC[/FONT][FONT=&quot], Pittsburgh, PA, 1990, 2:231-245. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  13. [FONT=&quot]L. Vardiman and K. Bousselot, “Sensitivity Studies on Vapor Canopy Temperature Profiles,” Proc. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Fourth ICC[/FONT][FONT=&quot], 1998, pp. 607-618. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  14. [FONT=&quot]Psalm 148:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot] seems to speak against the canopy theory. Written after the flood, this refers to “waters above the heavens” still existing, so this cannot mean a vapor canopy that collapsed at the flood. Calvin, Leupold, Keil, and Delitzsch all wrote of “the waters above” as merely being clouds. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  15. [FONT=&quot]Of course, we may never arrive at a correct understanding of exactly how the flood occurred, but that does not change the fact that it did occur. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  16. [FONT=&quot]Austin et al., Catastrophic Plate Tectonics… <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Where did the Flood waters go?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]T[/FONT][FONT=&quot]he whole earth was covered with the Flood waters, and the world that then existed was destroyed by the very waters out of which the earth had originally emerged at God's command ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 1:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Peter 3:5,6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). But where did those waters go after the flood?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are a number of Scripture passages that identify the flood waters with the present-day seas ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Amos 9:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Job 38:8-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot] note “waves”). If the waters are still here, why are the highest mountains not still covered with water, as they were in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Noah's[/FONT][FONT=&quot] day? [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Psalm 104[/FONT][FONT=&quot] suggests an answer. After the waters covered the mountains (verse 6), God rebuked them and they fled (verse 7); the mountains rose, the valleys sank down (verse 8) and God set a boundary so that they will never again cover the earth (verse 9)[/FONT][FONT=&quot][1][/FONT][FONT=&quot]. They are the same waters!<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Isaiah gives this same statement that the waters of [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Noah[/FONT][FONT=&quot] would never again cover the earth ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Isaiah 54:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Clearly, what the Bible is telling us is that God acted to alter the earth's topography. New continental landmasses bearing new mountain chains of folded rock strata were uplifted from below the globe-encircling waters that had eroded and leveled the pre-Flood topography, while large deep ocean [/FONT][FONT=&quot]basin[/FONT][FONT=&quot] were formed to receive and accommodate the Flood waters that then drained off the emerging continents. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_147" o:spid="_x0000_i1032" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Mountains & Water" href="http://www.christiananswers.net/catalog/wp-vs.htm" style='width:2in; height:96pt;visibility:visible' o:button="t"> <v:fill o:detectmouseclick="t"/> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\23\clip_image008.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]--><!--[endif]-->[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]That is why the oceans are so deep, and why there are folded mountain ranges. Indeed, if the entire earth's surface were leveled by smoothing out the topography of not only the land surface but also the rock surface on the ocean floor, the waters of the ocean would cover the earth's surface to a depth of <st1:metricconverter productid="1.7 miles" w:st="on">1.7 miles</st1:metricconverter> (<st1:metricconverter productid="2.7 kilometers" w:st="on">2.7 kilometers</st1:metricconverter>). We need to remember that nearly 70 percent of the earth's surface is still covered by water. Quite clearly, then, the waters of Noah's Flood are in today's ocean basins.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A Mechanism?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]The catastrophic plate tectonics model gives a mechanism for the deepening of the oceans and the rising of mountains at the end of the flood.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As the new ocean floors cooled, they would have become denser and sunk, allowing water to flow off the continents. Movement of the water off the continents and into the oceans would have weighed down the ocean floor and lightened the continents, resulting in the further sinking of the ocean floor, as well as upward movement of the continents.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][2][/FONT][FONT=&quot] The deepening of the ocean basins and the rising of the continents would have resulted in more water running off the land.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The collision of the tectonic plates would have pushed up mountain ranges also, especially toward the end of the flood.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_148" o:spid="_x0000_i1033" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Mountain top (photo copyrighted, Courtesy of Films for Christ)." style='width:112.5pt;height:63pt;visibility:visible'> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\23\clip_image009.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]-->
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[FONT=&quot]Could the Water Cover Mt. Everest?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Mount Everest is more than <st1:metricconverter productid="5 miles" w:st="on">5 miles</st1:metricconverter> (<st1:metricconverter productid="8 kilometers" w:st="on">8 kilometers</st1:metricconverter>) high. How, then, could the flood have covered “all the high hills under the whole heaven”?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Bible refers only to “high hills,” and the mountains today were formed only toward the end of, and after, the flood by collision of the tectonic plates and the associated upthrusting. In support of this, the layers that form the uppermost parts of Mount Everest are themselves composed of fossil-bearing, water-deposited layers.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This uplift of the new continental landmasses from under the Flood waters would have meant that, as the mountains rose and the valleys sank, the waters would have rapidly drained off the newly emerging land surfaces. The collapse of natural dams holding back the flood waters on the land would also have caused catastrophic flooding. Such rapid movement of large volumes of water would have caused extensive erosion and shaped the basic features of today's earth surface.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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[FONT=&quot]Thus, it is not hard to envisage the rapid carving of the landscape features that we see on the earth today, including places such as the Grand Canyon of the United States.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The present shape of Uluru (Ayers Rock), as sandstone monolith in central Australia, is the result of erosion, following tilting and uplift, of previously horizontal beds of water-laid sand. The feldspar-rich sand that makes up Uluru must have been deposited very quickly and recently. Long-distance transport of the sand would have caused the grains to be rounded and sorted, whereas they are jagged and unsorted. If they had sat accumulating slowly in a lake bed drying in the sun over eons of time, which is the story told in the geological display at the park center, the feldspar would have weathered into clay.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_150" o:spid="_x0000_i1035" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Ayers Rock (Uluru), Australia (photo copyrighted) (Courtesy of Films for Christ)." style='width:225pt;height:90pt;visibility:visible'> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\23\clip_image011.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]-->
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[FONT=&quot]Likewise, if Uluru had sat in the once-humid area of central Australia for millions of years, it would have weathered to clay.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][3][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Similarly, the nearby Kata Tjuta (the Olgas) are composed of an unsorted mixture of large boulders, sand, and mud, indicating that the material must have been transported and deposited very rapidly.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The erosion caused by receding flood waters is the reason that river valleys are far larger than the rivers now flowing in them could have carved. The water flow that carved the river valleys must have been far greater than the volume of water we see flowing in the rivers today. This is consistent with voluminous flood waters draining off the emerging land surfaces at the close of Noah's flood, and flowing into the rapidly sinking, newly prepared, deep ocean basins.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Our understanding of how the flood could have occurred is continually developing. Ideas come and go, but the fact of the flood remains. Genesis clearly testifies to it, Jesus and the apostles confirmed it, and there is abundant global geological evidence for a global watery cataclysm.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_151" o:spid="_x0000_i1036" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="http://www.christiananswers.net/a.gif" style='width:17.25pt; height:14.25pt;visibility:visible'> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\23\clip_image007.gif" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]-->
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<!--[endif]-->[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Noah's Flood—Where did all that water come from? [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Answer[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Footnotes<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]


  1. [FONT=&quot]The most natural translation for the beginning of [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Psalm 104:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot] is “The mountains rose up; the valleys sank down.” See C.V.Taylor, “Did the Mountains Really Rise According to Psalm 104:8?” [/FONT][FONT=&quot]CEN Technical Journal[/FONT][FONT=&quot], 1998, 12(3), p. 155. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  2. [FONT=&quot]The geological principle involved is isostasy, where the plates are “floating” on the mantle. The ocean basins are composed of denser rock than the continents, so the ocean basins sit lower in the mantle than the less dense continents with their mountains. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  3. [FONT=&quot]A.A. Snelling, “Uluru and Kata Tjuta: Testimony to the Flood;” Creation, 1998, 20(2):36-40. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Who hardened Pharaoh's heart?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
God reveals his plan to Moses: [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus 4:21-23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
The plagues: [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus 7-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
Pharaoh decides to pursue the Israelites: [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus 14:1-9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
What we have in Exodus is this: God says at the beginning that he will harden Pharaoh's heart ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 4:21[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]7:4-5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The hardening of Pharaoh's heart is then described in several different ways:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]However, when the Bible says Pharaoh hardens his heart, it also says that this happened "just as the Lord had said" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 8:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). In particular, consider [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus 9:34-10:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When Pharaoh saw that the rain and hail and thunder had stopped, he sinned again: He and his officials hardened their hearts. So Pharaoh's heart was hard and he would not let the Israelites go, just as the LORD had said through Moses.

Then the LORD said to Moses, "Go to Pharaoh, for I have hardened his heart and the hearts of his officials so that I may perform these miraculous signs of mine among them that you may tell your children and grandchildren how I dealt harshly with the Egyptians and how I performed my signs among them, and that you may know that I am the LORD." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In other words, Pharaoh's hardening his heart is considered to be the same as God hardening Pharaoh's heart. I take this to mean that Pharaoh did the actual hardening, as we see it - he decided on his own to not listen to God and let the Israelites go. But God knew in advance what Pharaoh would do in any given situation, and deliberately placed Pharaoh in this situation (i.e. God decided that Pharaoh would be born at the time and place that he was and thus placed him in this position of power). (See [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus 9:13-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot].) Thus God brought about the situation, namely that Moses would encounter a pharaoh whose heart was hardened against God, though Pharaoh hardened his heart of his own free will.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why did God give the Israelites an imperfect Law?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Leviticus 25:44[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 21:15-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If a man has two wives, and he loves one but not the other, and both bear him sons but the firstborn is the son of the wife he does not love, when he wills his property to his sons, he must not give the rights of the firstborn to the son of the wife he loves in preference to his actual firstborn, the son of the wife he does not love. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Psalm 119:151, 152, 160[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Yet you are near, O LORD ,
and all your commands are true.
Long ago I learned from your statutes
that you established them to last forever...

All your words are true;
all your righteous laws are eternal. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hebrews 8:7, 13[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]For if there had been nothing wrong with that first covenant, no place would have been sought for another...By calling this covenant "new," he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]In order for people to do what's right, they must know right from wrong and must be able to do what's right. However, we aren't able to do what's right on our own; we need God's help. The law given to the Israelites did to some extent give them concrete ethical teaching: they were to love God, love their neighbors, etc. But this was not the entire purpose of the law. The law was intended to make the Israelites aware of their own sin and of the fact that they couldn't obey the entire law, i.e. that they could not earn a place in heaven through their own merits or hard work,[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and therefore needed to rely on God. The law also foreshadowed the forgiveness God provided through Jesus' sacrifice.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How are we to understand Psalm 119 and its praise of the law? The law was perfect in that it perfectly accomplished what God intended it to do: convict the Israelites of sin and provide a framework for understanding Christ and what his sacrifice accomplished. It was not, however, meant to be the final and complete set of God's instructions to mankind. It didn't provide a way for ordinary people to be saved from punishment when they failed to obey it, but saving people was something God wanted to accomplish. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Even given the purpose of the law, the question remains: why did God allow the Israelites to do some things that were wrong? Why didn't he openly specify everything that a perfect person would do and not do? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One possible answer is that God knows how hard it is for us to realize that we need him and can't earn our way into heaven. For many (and perhaps all) people, the only way to learn this is to try to do things on their own and realize they can't. The law allowed the Israelites to do just that, by providing a finite set of rules which they would accept as attainable and attempt to follow. If the law attempted to describe absolute moral perfection, the Israelites would have realized it was impossible for them - but this would not cause them to realize they needed God. Instead, they would have complained that God was being unreasonable and refused to even try. This was the reaction of most people when Jesus explained what true moral perfection was,[/FONT][FONT=&quot]3[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and the Israelites were not any more virtuous than the average person.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]4[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While some things the Israelites did under the law were wrong, God in his mercy overlooked them for the sake of bringing about his larger plan of salvation. He didn't overlook them forever, though; these wrongs were ultimately dealt with through Christ's substitutionary punishment. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Finally, one should note that although the law allowed some things such as polygamy, divorce and slavery, God had provided the Israelites with teaching which pointed to the higher moral standard. As Jesus himself pointed out,[/FONT][FONT=&quot]5[/FONT][FONT=&quot] the creation account in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 2:23-24[/FONT][FONT=&quot] indicates that marriage is to be lifelong and monogamous. Similarly, the command to love everyone, including foreigners, as oneself[/FONT][FONT=&quot]6[/FONT][FONT=&quot] was an indication that slavery was not part of God's ideal. (For more on these issues, see the related articles below.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Footnotes <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rom 3:10-20[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot])
2. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 10:1-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot])
3. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 19:9-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 18:18-27[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot])
4. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 19:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 9:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot])
5. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 19:3-8[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot])
6. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 19:33-34[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Slavery laws in the Old Testament<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Relevant Bible passages[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Laws applying to slaves[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]General treatment of slaves[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Hebrew slaves[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Foreign slaves[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Female slaves[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Specific objections[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
Dt 21:10-11: [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Were female slaves raped?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
Ex 21:20-21: [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Could masters beat slaves to death?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
Lev 25:39: [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Did slavery take advantage of the poor?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
Ex 21:5-6, Dt 15:16-17: [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Were slaves forced to serve for life?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Further reading[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Bible passages are from the NASB. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Laws concerning slavery: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Exodus 20:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus 21:2-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]20-21[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]26-27[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus 22:1-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus 23:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Leviticus 19:20-22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Leviticus 25:39-55[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 5:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 15:12-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 21:10-14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 23:15-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 24:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Laws applying to slaves[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]General treatment of slaves[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The law protected slaves from being abused by their masters: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]The law also gave slaves a day of rest every week ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 20:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 5:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hebrew slaves[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hebrews could become slaves of a fellow Hebrew if they committed a crime such as theft and had no other way of paying the fine ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 22:1-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) or if they became impoverished and sold themselves and/or their family into slavery. (See also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Did slavery take advantage of the poor?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] below.) Kidnapping someone and selling them into slavery was forbidden ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 24:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When one Hebrew owned another Hebrew as a slave, the law commanded lenient treatment: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]In special cases, slaves could choose to remain with their masters if they felt it was in their best interests ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 15:16-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If a Hebrew sold himself as a slave to a foreigner, he reserved the right to buy his freedom ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 25:47-49[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and was still to be treated as a hired man ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 25:53[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Foreign slaves[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While foreign slaves could be made slaves for life, the laws regarding the general treatment of slaves applied to them as well ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 24:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Num 15:15-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The law made it clear that foreigners were not inferiors who could be mistreated ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 23:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]); instead they were to be loved just as fellow Israelites were ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 19:33-34[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). For more information, see the article on [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gentiles in the OT[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Female slaves[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In some cases, fathers could sell their daughters as a maidservant and wife. Since they were then married to their master, they were not automatically set free after six years (though unmarried female slaves were freed, as [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 15:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot] explicitly states). [/FONT][FONT=&quot]However, they were still protected by the law: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]If the husband divorced his wife, the law labelled it "unfair treatment" and allowed for her to be freed ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 21:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]If someone bought a wife for his son, he was to treat her as his daughter ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 21:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Neglected wives were automatically freed ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 21:10-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Captives of war apparently became slaves, and men could choose to marry female captives. There were similar laws for the protection of these women, even though they would have been in the lowest class of society: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]Captive women were given a month to mourn their families and adjust to their new home before marrying ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 21:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]If divorced by their husband, they were freed ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 21:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]They could not be sold to anyone else ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 21:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]See also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Were female slaves raped?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] [/FONT][FONT=&quot]below. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Specific objections[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Dt 21:10-11: Were female slaves raped?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The law explicitly condemned all of the following: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Therefore any forced intercourse would have been against both the letter and the spirit of the law. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Ex 21:20-21: Could masters beat slaves to death?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The NIV translates [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 21:21[/FONT][FONT=&quot] as, "...but he is not to be punished if the slave gets up after a day or two, since the slave is his property." While there is an argument for this translation,[/FONT]<sup>[FONT=&quot]2[/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot] it is not necessarily the correct translation, so I am using the standard meaning of "he is not to be punished if the slave survives for a day or two." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Most likely, this law was intended to distinguish between cases where a slave died as a direct result of their master's mistreatment and where they died of natural causes. It could of course be the case that a slave was severely beaten but didn't succumb to their injuries for a few days. In that situation, the case could have been brought before the priests and they could have used common sense and ruled that it was murder (cf. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 17:8-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). One should keep in mind that the laws given in the OT are examples, not legalese. For instance, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex. 21:33-34[/FONT][FONT=&quot] mentions only an ox or donkey falling into a pit, but that hardly means that if another animal fell into someone's pit the owner wouldn't receive compensation. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Lev 25:39: Did slavery take advantage of the poor?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Skeptics have objected that poverty would force people to sell themselves as slaves; impovershed Hebrews could not then be said to have chosen slavery of their own free will. However, the law provided several safety nets for the poor within society: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Finally, the law was adamant about providing justice for the poor and not taking advantage of them ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 27:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 22:22-27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Only under extreme circumstances would someone be forced to sell themselves into slavery because of their poverty. If the Israelites had followed the law faithfully, there would not have been any financial need at all ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 15:4-5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Ex 21:5-6, Dt 15:16-17: Were slaves forced to say they "loved" their masters and/or serve them for life?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The law plainly states that Hebrew slaves were to be freed after serving six years ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 21:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 15:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). If a slave wished to remain, it was his free choice. Since Hebrews typically became slaves only due to poverty, some may have felt they were better off working for a rich family and being provided for rather than struggling to make it on their own (cf. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 15:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Slaves weren't forced to say they loved their masters if they wanted to stay; the speech given in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus 21:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot] is only an example. A parallel passage in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 15:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot] only has the slave saying he doesn't want to leave. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As for whether slaves could be forced into lifelong slavery, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus 21:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot] says the ceremony for lifelong slaves was to take place in front of a judge. Slaves had to publicly state their intention to remain as slaves; their master couldn't lie and say they'd expressed their intentions privately. While an evil master could force his slaves to make the proclamation by threatening them, it was the responsibility of the priests/judges and the community at large to observe masters' treatment of their slaves (cf. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 25:53[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). This observation was also in their best interests, since one person's disobedience brought guilt on those who knew what was going on and failed to do anything about it ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 19:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), which in turn would result in adverse consequences for the entire community ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 11:26-28[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Footnotes[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1. What punishment was given to a master who killed a slave? In an earlier version of this article, I said it was death, based on [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 21:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. However, I don't think this is necessarily the case. For one, the preceding verses [/FONT][FONT=&quot]21:12-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot] list multiple crimes that were explicitly punishable by death, yet 21:20 does not explicitly say the master should be put to death. For another, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]21:28-32[/FONT][FONT=&quot] says that when the owner of an ox is culpable for its goring someone to death, he is to be killed, but if the victim was a slave, he is only subject to a fine. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Back to article[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2. I received this explanation from [/FONT][FONT=&quot]GotQuestions.org[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (quoted with permission): <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Hebrew word translated "gets up" in the NIV, "remains alive" in the NKJV, and "survives" in the NASB literally means "arise, endure, remain, raise up". So, the differences in translation result from debate on whether the verb in this passage means to literally "stand up" or metaphorically to "remain" as in stay alive. I lean towards the meaning of "live" taken by the NKJV and NAS. Punishment of slaves was considered the right of the owner ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Pr 10:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; [/FONT][FONT=&quot]13:24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), but this did not allow for violence. An owner who caused the death of a slave was to be punished ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 21:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). If the slave lived a few days it was evidence that the owner had no intent to kill. Any permanent injury brought freedom to the slave ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 21:26-27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The master's power over the slave was limited, which made these laws unprecedented in the ancient world. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Does God approve of polygamy?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 21:15-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If a man has two wives, and he loves one but not the other, and both bear him sons but the firstborn is the son of the wife he does not love, when he wills his property to his sons, he must not give the rights of the firstborn to the son of the wife he loves in preference to his actual firstborn, the son of the wife he does not love. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2 Samuel 5:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Ki 11:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]After he left Hebron, David took more concubines and wives in Jerusalem, and more sons and daughters were born to him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1 Timothy 3:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Tim 3:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Titus 1:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A deacon must be the husband of but one wife and must manage his children and his household well. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
Some points to keep in mind: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]The recording of historical acts, including instances of polygamy, is not necessarily an endorsement of it by God. The Bible records both good and bad actions of people, even people considered to be righteous. The fact that David and Solomon had several wives and that it's in the Bible doesn't automatically imply that God was pleased by it, any more than the records of David's adultery and the arguments in the early church implies God's approval of either.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Monogamy is first mentioned in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 2:24[/FONT][FONT=&quot] - it was God's intention from the beginning. While God did allow polygamy for a time, it was probably for the same reason as his allowance of divorce: "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 19:8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Rampant polygamy (and possibly all polygamy) was prohibited for kings, because it would cause them to turn from God ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 17:17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The Israelites should have reasoned that if this were true for kings, it would be true for others, hence polygamy was something they ought to avoid.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]...Is polygamy allowed by the New Testament? [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Created July 23, 1999[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ; added pushback Feb/2001 <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Someone asked a question about polygamy in the New Testament:
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I would like more information on the issue of modern Christian Polygamy. For the argument of "husband of one wife" I hear that it only applies to church government.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When I ask about "one flesh", the answer I have gotten is that there is the possibility of one flesh relationship of a man with EVERY wife he can have. And the patriarchal society has been an inspiration for those who are trying to adopt polygamy as a way of life, since most Biblical patriarchs had many wives.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I would appreciate more information on this subject. I have been investigating, asking, researching, but there is absolutely NOTHING that I can found to say that polygamy is NOT within the will of God.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Thank you for your time. I hope to hear from you soon.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]


<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The question of polygamy in the NT is rather straightforward...
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We have NT data from Jesus and from Paul[/FONT][FONT=&quot], and we have information on the attitude of the early church to it from the Fathers.

<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But first the historical setting:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1. Polygamy was NOT practiced in Greek and Roman societies of the time:
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Even though we may find numerous traces of polygamy and polyandry in the Gk. myths, monogamy predominated in the Gk. world in the historical period. Morality within marriage was strict. The Homeric hero had one wife, who was faithful and inviolable, a good manager of the home and mother. Gk. marriage was monogamous. [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]NIDNTT:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]s.v. "Marriage, adultery, bride, bridegroom"]
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Polygamy was not practiced in the Roman world outside Palestine, though illegal bigamy and certainly adultery were. [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]EBC:[/FONT][FONT=&quot] in.loc. 1 Tim 3]


<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2. Polygamy was practiced somewhat in 1st century Palestinian Judaism (by the government/aristocratic leaders):
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"In the Second Temple period, Jewish society was, at least theoretically, polygamous, like other oriental societies of the time but in contrast to the neighboring Greek and Roman societies...."[HI:JWGRP:85] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"There is evidence of the practice of polygamy in Palestinian Judaism in NT times (cf. J. Jeremias, Jerusalem in the Time of Jesus: An Investigation into Economic and Social Conditions during the New Testament Period, 1969, 90, 93, <st1:metricconverter productid="369f" w:st="on">369f</st1:metricconverter>.). Herod the Great (37-4 B.C.) had ten wives (Josephus, Ant. 17, <st1:metricconverter productid="19f" w:st="on">19f</st1:metricconverter>.; War 1,562) and a considerable harem (War 1,511). Polygamy and concubinage among the aristocracy is attested by Josephus, Ant. 12, 186ff.; 13, 380; War 1, 97. The continued practice of levirate marriage (Yeb. 15b) evidently led to polygamy, which was countenanced by the school of Shammai but not by that of Hillel. [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]NIDNTT:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]s.v. "Marriage, adultery, bride, bridegroom"]


<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]3. Among the Jews, it was not accepted by the prestigious school of Hillel (above), nor by the strict Dead Sea Sect (Qumran), and was not widely practiced, esp. among the rabbi's:
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"But even if polygamy was permitted by tannaitic halakhah, other halakhic systems counseled otherwise. During the Second Temple period, monogamy was preferred even on the conceptual plane by, above all, the Dead Sea Sect whose halakhah explicitly prohibited polygamy. In the reworked version of the statutes of the king in the Temple Scroll, it is stated: "he shall not take another wife in addition to her, for she alone shall be with him all the days of her life" (LVII 17-8). In the Damascus Covenant, criticism is leveled against the 'builders of the wall' (Pharisees?) in the following terms: 'they shall be caught in fornication twice; once by taking a second wife while the first is still alive...' [HI:JWGRP:85] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"it was known in Jewish society as represented in rabbinic literature, polygamy was not widespread in practice, especially not among the sages themselves." [HI:JWGRP:86]

<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So, polygamy was present only in a particular subset of Palestinian Judaism (not in Roman society, Greek society, Diaspora Jewish communities, the Hillel-school, or Dead Sea Sect), and generally confined to the aristocracy.

<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Now the New Testament Data:[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1. The clearest verse comes from Jesus in His teaching on divorce:
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. 9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (NIV Matt 19.8-9, pp. Mark 10.1-12)
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The key thing to note here is that this argument fails if polygamy is acceptable! Jesus' point is that improper divorce does not nullify a marriage, and if the first marriage still stands, then a "second" marriage is adultery--and NOT simply 'polygamy'! This is very clear.

<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The saying is hyperbolic-that is, it has exaggerated, intensified force: because God does not accept divorce as valid, any man who divorces his wife is not really divorced, and if he marries someone else, he commits adultery. No one else in antiquity spoke of divorce in such strong terms. (Because most Jewish teachers allowed polygamy, they would not have seen marrying a second wife as adultery, even if they had agreed that the man was still married to the first wife. But Jesus eliminates the double standard; a man consorting with two women is as adulterous as a woman consorting with two men.) [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]BBC,[/FONT][FONT=&quot] in.loc. Mark 10:11. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The school of Shammai ... did not permit divorce except for the wife's unfaithfulness (whether successful or attempted), but they did not consider remarriage afterward adulterous. Jesus is more consistent: if one divorces one's spouse without valid grounds , the marriage is not truly dissolved and subsequent marriage is adulterous." [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]BBC,[/FONT][FONT=&quot] in. loc. Mtt 19.9]



<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2. Paul, in Romans 7, actually uses the same principle, but applies it to the wife:
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So then, if she marries another man while her husband is still alive, she is called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress, even though she marries another man. [/FONT][FONT=&quot](Rom 7) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Notice that a polyandrous relationship would also be adultery.



<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]3. There is another, more general argument expressed in the New Testament, concerning the example of godly leaders.
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is clear (as the questioner notes) that those in Church government/leadership are to be monogamous (the 'husband of one wife' clause shows up in both statements of elder/deacon qualifications: 1 Tim 3.2 and Titus 1.6). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But these leaders are told to be examples to the flock, and the believers are told to follow the example of the apostles, disciples, and leaders. [Phil 3.17; 4.9; 1 Thess 1.6,7; 2 Thess 3.7,9; 1 Tim 4.12; Tit 2.7; 1 Pet 5.3; 1 Cor 4.6; 1 Cor 11.1] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Therefore, in the absence of other NT instruction, ALL believers are to emulate the purity and scripturally-mandated characteristics of our elders--including the monogamous one (2nd in each list!). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In fact, one measure of the 'godliness' of a widow, worthy of welfare support from scarce church funds, was that she be a "wife of one husband" (the exact same phrase turned around)--I Timothy 5.9. The reference to polyandry shows that monogamy was important for general believers as well.

<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The NT data is rather clear--for both forms of polygamy: polygyny and polyandry--that monogamy is important to God's will, and that entering into polygamy is committing adultery. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot][This, the commentators quickly point out, does not mean that existing polygamous marriages in foreign cultures are supposed to be dissolved through multiple-divorce! That is not the same thing, according to most, as entering into one as a Christian.]

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Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

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[FONT=&quot]We might also point out that the post-NT church was likewise anti-polygamy:[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1. Justin Martyr (c.160) rebukes the Jews for allowing polygamy:
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Your imprudent and blind masters [i.e., Jewish teachers] even until this time permit each man to have four or five wives. And if anyone sees a beautiful woman and desires to have her, they quote the doings of Jacob." [ANF, vol. 1, p. 266]

<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2. Irenaeus (c.180) condemns the Gnostics for, among other things, polygamy:
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Others, again, following upon Basilides and Carpocrates, have introduced promiscuous intercourse and a plurality of wives..." [ANF, vol. 1, p.353]

<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]3. Tertullian (c.207) was also explicit:
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Chapter II.-Marriage Lawful, But Not Polygamy. We do not indeed forbid the union of man and woman, blest by God as the seminary of the human race, and devised for the replenishment of the earth and the furnishing of the world, and therefore permitted, yet Singly. For Adam was the one husband of Eve, and Eve his one wife, one woman, one rib. (ANF: Tertullian, To His Wife)


<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]4. Methodius (cf.290) was clear on the issue, arguing that it had stopped at the time of the Prophets:
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The contracting of marriage with several wives had been done away with from the times of the prophets. For we read, 'Do not go after your lusts, but refrain yourself from your appetites'...And in another place, 'Let your fountain be blessed and rejoice with the wife of thy youth.' This plainly forbids a plurality of wives." [ANF, vol. 6, p.312]


<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]5 The Pseudo-Clementine Literature boasts about how <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">St. Thomas</st1:place></st1:city> taught the Parthians [i.e., an Iranian culture] to abandon polygamy:
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"But I shall give a still stronger proof of the matters in hand. For, behold, scarcely seven years have yet passed since the advent of the righteous and true Prophet; and in the course of these, inert of all nations coming to Judaea, and moved both by the signs and miracles Which they saw, and by the grandeur of His doctrine, received His faith; and then going back to their own countries, they rejected the lawless rites of the Gentiles, and their incestuous marriages. In short, among the Parthians-as Thomas, who is preaching the Gospel amongst them, has written to us-not many now are addicted to polygamy; nor among the Medes do many throw their dead to dogs; nor are the Persians pleased with intercourse with their mothers, or incestuous marriages with their daughters; nor do the Susian women practise the adulteries that were allowed them; nor has Genesis been able to force those into crimes whom the teaching of religion restrained. (ANF 8: "Book IX: Chapter XXIX.-The Gospel More Powerful Than 'Genesis.'"]

<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]6. The Council of Neocaesarea a.d. 315 (circa) refers to a 'purification period' for polygamists. By that time, sinners had to 'sit out' of Church activities until they had demonstrated reformation. If a sin showed up on this list of canons, it was considered a 'bad sin'--and polygamy shows up here:
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Ancient Epitome of Canon III. The time (for doing penance and purification) of polygamists is well known. A zeal for penance may shorten it." [ANF]

<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]7. Basil, Archbishop of Caesarea, mentioned it a number of times in his letters, generally concerning the period for exclusion from church for polygamists, calling it 'limited fornication'(!):
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"IV. In the case of trigamy and polygamy they laid down the same rule, in proportion, as in the case of digamy; namely one year for digamy (some authorities say two years); for trigamy men are separated for three and often for four years; but this is no longer described as marriage at all, but as polygamy; nay rather as limited fornication. It is for this reason that the Lord said to the woman of <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Samaria</st1:place></st1:city>, who had five husbands, "he whom thou now hast is not thy husband." He does not reckon those who had exceeded the limits of a second marriage as worthy of the title of husband or wife. In cases of trigamy we have accepted a seclusion of five years, not by the canons, but following the precept of our predecessors. Such offenders ought not to be altogether prohibited from the privileges of the Church; they should be considered deserving of hearing after two or three years, and afterwards of being permitted to stand in their place; but they must be kept from the communion of the good gift, and only restored to the place of communion after showing some fruit of repentance. [ANF: (CanonicaPrima.)To Amphilochius, concerning the Canons. Letter CLXXXVIII written c.347.]

<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The data for the NT seems rather clear. Although it was already a minority practice (outlawed in many countries), the stance of Jesus, Paul, and the early church is emphatically condemnatory towards it. Monogamy is upheld as God's design, His will, and His expectation for His people.
<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]...................................................................................................................... <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Pushback[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: Glenn, I just read your reply to a reader regarding polygamyin the New Testament. I must differ with you. The Bible is most certainly clear that polygamy is not only authorized, but in many cases it was demanded by God. How do you explain your position of saying it is adultery?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Good question, friend. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What must be understood is that God's allowance of something and even His requirement of it in exceptional circumstances is NOT incompatible with it being "wrong" in the vast majority of cases. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Obviously, polygamy was 'authorized' (the Mosaic law specifically refers to it) and 'demanded' (especially in the case of levirite marriage), but this doesn't mean that it is something God wants us to do, except in extreme situations (e.g., the provision of a supportless-widow of kin, in a specific society tied to a genealogically-based land inheritance economy). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A good way to illustrate this is from a very similar marital topic--divorce. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Divorce was "authorized" in the Mosaic Law (Deut 24), and "demanded" in the case of the returned exiles (Ezra 10). [/FONT][FONT=&quot]But it is crystal clear that divorce is: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]Hated by God (Mal 2.16)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Prohibited by Jesus, except in extreme situations (Matt 19).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Permitted by God because of human failings (i.e., hardness of heart--Mt 19.8).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What this means for OUR discussion is that one must look at the more "principle-like" statements about a topic, for guidance as to what the will and heart of God is about a subject, rather than the exceptions in history (e.g., permissions, extreme circumstances). The statements of principle about polygamy (discussed above)--like the statements of principle about divorce-- indicate the behavioral norm that we are to follow. The exceptions in history to those overarching statements of principle and life are just that--exceptions, called forth by either extreme situations or called forth by our own moral weakness (e.g. hardness of heart). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hope this helps your study, <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Glenn Miller
July 23, 1999 <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Plundering of the Egyptians<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Exodus 11:2-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Tell the people that men and women alike are to ask their neighbors for articles of silver and gold." (The LORD made the Egyptians favorably disposed toward the people, and Moses himself was highly regarded in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Egypt</st1:place></st1:country-region> by Pharaoh's officials and by the people.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Exodus 12:35-36[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Israelites did as Moses instructed and asked the Egyptians for articles of silver and gold and for clothing. The LORD had made the Egyptians favorably disposed toward the people, and they gave them what they asked for; so they plundered the Egyptians. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
Skeptics have charged God with acting as a manipulative thief by allowing the Israelites to plunder the Egyptians. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Was God being manipulative? It appears that God did alter the Egyptians' feelings towards the Israelites in some way, perhaps by giving them ideas or by altering their moods. However, there is no reason to suppose the Egyptians were not acting of their own free will when they responded to the Israelites' request for jewelry and clothing. God may have planted ideas or emotions in their heads, but that is different from his taking total control of them and turning them into puppets. The Egyptians could have chosen to ignore their inclination towards giving the Israelites what they asked for. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Were God and the Israelites stealing? The jewelry belonged to the Egyptians, but the Egyptians belonged to God ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 10:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), so God was not taking anything that didn't already belong to him. Since the Israelites were acting on the authority of God and the Egyptians were voluntarily giving them the jewelry, they weren't stealing either. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God's love in the Old Testament<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
The Old Testament often speaks of God's love. Though the Israelites repeatedly rejected God and did wrong, God continued to love them (and all other people). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The LORD, the LORD, the compassionate and gracious God, slow to anger, abounding in love and faithfulness, maintaining love to thousands, and forgiving wickedness, rebellion and sin. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ex 34:6-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Is not Ephraim my dear son, the child in whom I delight? Though I often speak against him, I still remember him. Therefore my heart yearns for him; I have great compassion for him," declares the LORD. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 31:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]I will make an everlasting covenant with them: I will never stop doing good to them, and I will inspire them to fear me, so that they will never turn away from me. I will rejoice in doing them good and will assuredly plant them in this land with all my heart and soul. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 32:40-41[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The LORD said to me, "Go, show your love to your wife again, though she is loved by another and is an adulteress. Love her as the LORD loves the Israelites, though they turn to other gods and love the sacred raisin cakes." ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Hos 3:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The LORD upholds all those who fall and lifts up all who are bowed down.
The eyes of all look to you, and you give them their food at the proper time.
You open your hand and satisfy the desires of every living thing.
The LORD is righteous in all his ways and loving toward all he has made.
([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 145:14-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]He upholds the cause of the oppressed
and gives food to the hungry.
The LORD sets prisoners free,
the LORD gives sight to the blind,
the LORD lifts up those who are bowed down,
the LORD loves the righteous.
The LORD watches over the alien
and sustains the fatherless and the widow,
but he frustrates the ways of the wicked.
([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 146:7-9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In particular, God's love and concern for people who are disadvantaged is frequently mentioned throughout the OT. The law contained several rules for treating orphans, widows and foreigners fairly and providing for their needs (e.g. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 24:10-22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But you, O God, do see trouble and grief;
you consider it to take it in hand.
The victim commits himself to you;
you are the helper of the fatherless...
You hear, O LORD , the desire of the afflicted;
you encourage them, and you listen to their cry,
defending the fatherless and the oppressed,
in order that man, who is of the earth, may terrify no more.
([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 10:14, 17-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Much is made of God's wrath and punishment in the Old Testament, but when God punishes, it is with reluctance: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As surely as I live, declares the Sovereign LORD, I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from their ways and live. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 33:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Rid yourselves of all the offenses you have committed, and get a new heart and a new spirit. Why will you die, O house of Israel? For I take no pleasure in the death of anyone, declares the Sovereign LORD . Repent and live! ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 18:31-32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How can I give you up, Ephraim? How can I hand you over, Israel? How can I treat you like Admah? How can I make you like Zeboiim? My heart is changed within me; all my compassion is aroused. I will not carry out my fierce anger, nor will I turn and devastate Ephraim. For I am God, and not man - the Holy One among you. I will not come in wrath. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Hos 11:8-9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]For men are not cast off by the Lord forever. Though he brings grief, he will show compassion, so great is his unfailing love. For he does not willingly bring affliction or grief to the children of men. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lam 3:31-33[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God does not take away life; instead, he devises ways so that a banished person may not remain estranged from him. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2 Sam 14:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In fact, God often pleads with the Israelites to stop doing wrong and repent so that he may bless them. Anyone who was experiencing God's punishment could end it immediately by repenting. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If at any time I announce that a nation or kingdom is to be uprooted, torn down and destroyed, and if that nation I warned repents of its evil, then I will relent and not inflict on it the disaster I had planned. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 18:7-8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Go up and down the streets of Jerusalem, look around and consider, search through her squares. If you can find but one person who deals honestly and seeks the truth, I will forgive this city. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 5:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Even now," declares the LORD,
"return to me with all your heart,
with fasting and weeping and mourning."

Rend your heart
and not your garments.
Return to the LORD your God,
for he is gracious and compassionate,
slow to anger and abounding in love,
and he relents from sending calamity.
Who knows? He may turn and have pity
and leave behind a blessing -
grain offerings and drink offerings
for the LORD your God.
([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Joel 2:12-14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When God saw what they did and how they turned from their evil ways, he had compassion and did not bring upon them the destruction he had threatened. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jonah 3:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When all these blessings and curses I have set before you come upon you and you take them to heart wherever the LORD your God disperses you among the nations, and when you and your children return to the LORD your God and obey him with all your heart and with all your soul according to everything I command you today, then the LORD your God will restore your fortunes and have compassion on you and gather you again from all the nations where he scattered you. Even if you have been banished to the most distant land under the heavens, from there the LORD your God will gather you and bring you back. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 30:1-4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Who is a God like you, who pardons sin and forgives the transgression of the remnant of his inheritance? You do not stay angry forever but delight to show mercy. You will again have compassion on us; you will tread our sins underfoot and hurl all our iniquities into the depths of the sea. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Micah 7:18-19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If God loves people so much, why did become so angry with them and punish them? The answer is that God was angry with people because of his love for people: nations were punished because their citizens were cruel to other people, oppressing the needy and killing innocent adults and children (e.g. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 22:6-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 5:26-29[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). One reason God punished people was to get them to stop hurting other people ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jer 7:5-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Because God loved the people who were being oppressed, he intervened on their behalf; because God loved the oppressors, he disciplined them and taught them to do good instead of evil ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ps 94:12-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), that he might bless them instead of punish them ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 33:11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]My son, do not despise the LORD's discipline
and do not resent his rebuke,
because the LORD disciplines those he loves,
as a father the son he delights in.
([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Pr 3:11-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Repent! Turn away from all your offenses; then sin will not be your downfall. ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Ezek 18:30b[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why did God tell Joshua to hamstring horses?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Joshua 11:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]

The LORD said to Joshua, "Do not be afraid of them, because by this time tomorrow I will hand all of them over to Israel, slain. You are to hamstring their horses and burn their chariots." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
One reason for God's command could have been to keep the Israelites from using the horses and chariots in their future battles and then attributing their success to having the horses and chariots, instead of attributing it to God. It seems likely that the Israelites had few or no horses, based on these verses: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]Exodus 15:1, 21[/FONT][FONT=&quot] - The Israelites praise God for rescuing them from the Egyptians, saying, "the horse and its rider he has hurled into the sea." The Egyptians are described as riders of horses, presumably in contrast to the Israelites. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 17:16-17[/FONT][FONT=&quot] warns that Israelite kings must not acquire great wealth or many horses. From this it seems that having horses is a sign of wealth, which the Israelites, who at the time of Joshua were escaped slaves who had just come out of their wanderings in the desert, would likely not have had. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]In [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 20:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot], God tells the Israelites, "When you go to war against your enemies and see horses and chariots and an army greater than yours, do not be afraid of them." The implication is that the Israelites have neither horses nor chariots, and that having horses and chariots would make them considerably more powerful (see also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Judges 1:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God clearly wanted the Israelites to know they did not defeat their enemies with their own strength ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Joshua 24:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), and he has deliberately used a weak, small army to show his power on other occasions, most notably with Gideon ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Judges 7:2-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How can a good God allow evil in the world?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]An all-powerful, perfectly good God must not exist, because if he did he would prevent all evil.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are two standard answers to this objection, both of which ultimately fall short. I will examine these answers first before giving what I think is a more complete answer. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The first answer deals with suffering as well as intentional acts of evil. Some suffering actually benefits us, and is therefore not incompatible with a loving, moral God. Physical pain teaches us our limitations and enables us to survive. When we touch a hot stove or fire and experience pain, we learn to avoid doing so in the future. Other forms of pain are the result of discipline, either from human teachers or from God himself, or are simply consequences of poor choices. Without these forms of suffering, we wouldn't learn to be moral, responsible people. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Other suffering can't so easily be viewed as beneficial, but there are reasons for it occuring. Some suffering (e.g. disease and natural disasters) is the result of Adam and Eve's rebellion against God. Other forms of evil are the result of beings, both human and demonic, choosing to disobey God. Finally, it is noted that God is not passive with regards to evil, but deals with evil by bringing good out of it and ultimately punishing it and bringing it to an end. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The second answer is known as the free will defense. God created people with free will, meaning that we can choose to love and obey God or not. It wouldn't be very meaningful if we loved or obeyed God because we were unable to choose otherwise. A computer or talking doll can be made to say "I love you," but it doesn't have the same meaning as when a human freely chooses to love. Thus, in order for anyone's choice to love and follow God to be meaningful, God permits everyone to choose freely what they will do. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The problem with both of these answers is that the skeptic can ask in reply, "Why didn't God create a world in which there was no suffering or evil, instead of the present world?" Or in other words, why didn't God simply create heaven and populate it with beings who had free will but would always choose to love God and do good? There is no suffering in heaven; no one does wrong; there are no physical limitations that would cause us pain. There would be no reason for us to have physical bodies with pain receptors, for there would be nothing that could cause us injury. There would be no reason for us to experience discipline, for we would have all the moral knowledge we needed and would have no desire to do wrong. There would be no reason for testing or other forms of suffering that would result in spiritual growth, for we would be directly in God's presence all the time. There would be no need for God to punish evil at a later date if there were no evil to begin with. Finally, an omniscient God knows ahead of time who will follow him, and so he could create only those people who would choose him. Alternatively, God could have created only the angels who wouldn't rebel against him, and there would still be beings who freely chose to worship him. (In answer to the question of how we can have free will in heaven, see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Is heaven contradictory?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why, then, did God create Satan, humans who would choose to sin, and everything else in the present world? I believe the answer is that there is good that exists in this world that could not exist if heaven were the only world. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One premise on which this thesis depends is the idea that action is more important than words. It's one thing to imagine something, and another to do the work to make it a reality. It's one thing to tell someone you love them and would do anything for them; it's quite another to actually donate your kidney to them or spend decades caring for them after they've been paralyzed from the neck down. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This idea of action bringing things to completion and therefore being particularly important is also found in the Bible. Abraham had faith in God, but it was not fully expressed or completed until he acted on it by trusting God in a difficult situation.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][1][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Jesus' incarnation and identification with us was complete because he lived as a human and experienced everything we do, including suffering.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][2][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Jesus, James and John taught that actions speak louder than words.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][3][/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Therefore, a universe in which moral acts are performed has more good in it than a universe in which morality is only an abstraction. A universe that contains two beings who love each other has more love, and therefore more good, than a universe which contains a single being who can only hypothesize that it would love another being. This leads us to the reason why the present world exists: some moral acts cannot be performed in a world that has no suffering or evil. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Examples of such acts include: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]Courage<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Generosity<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Self-sacrifice for the benefit of another<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Justice<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Repentance<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Forgiveness<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Mercy<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If there were no suffering or evil throughout the history of the world, there would be no instances of any of the above. Some might reply that they'd be willing to make the trade-off and live in a universe that consisted solely of heaven. However, that universe would lack good which this universe contains, and therefore it wouldn't necessarily be a better universe. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Furthermore, a universe that never contained beings who did evil would mean that God would have no opportunity to act justly or mercifully, or to display his love for his creation as powerfully as he did by paying the penalty for their wrongs. If action completes things such as faith, it also completes God's virtues. This completion glorifies God,[/FONT][FONT=&quot][4][/FONT][FONT=&quot] for not only are his virtues fully realized and put into practice, they are openly displayed. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why is the glorification of God so important? It's the highest good, and the reason why humanity and the world were created.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][5][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Skeptics and even some Christians find this objectionable because they misunderstand what it means. It doesn't mean praising someone who doesn't deserve it in order to gratify their ego. Instead, glorifying God is similar to glorifying virtue itself. God is perfectly virtuous and the embodiment of virtue. Therefore, glorifying God means praising someone who is perfectly moral and making his qualities known. This is not only a good in and of itself (for someone who does what is good deserves praise), it furthers morality by publicly calling it desirable, making others aware of God's example and showing them that God will instruct them in morality and enable them to be moral. In short, glorifying God results in the glorification and spread of all that is good. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are some Biblical examples of this principle. Jesus' miraculous healings caused people to believe in him and demonstrated his compassion for people, not simply his power.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][6][/FONT][FONT=&quot] If no one had any needs or wants, Jesus could only have displayed omnipotence; love is more powerfully displayed when one meets another's deeply felt needs.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][7][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Pharaoh and others were allowed to rebel against God in order that God could display his justice and power to everyone in that part of the world[/FONT][FONT=&quot][8][/FONT][FONT=&quot] - and in fact this formed the basis for Rahab's belief in God.[/FONT][FONT=&quot][9][/FONT][FONT=&quot] Finally, Paul writes in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Romans 9:21-24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Does not the potter have the right to make out of the same lump of clay some pottery for noble purposes and some for common use? What if God, choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath - prepared for destruction? What if he did this to make the riches of his glory known to the objects of his mercy, whom he prepared in advance for glory - even us, whom he also called, not only from the Jews but also from the Gentiles? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It could be objected that God could have created a single person who did evil and displayed his justice by punishing that one person, or he could have created two evil people, one who would be punished and one who would repent and receive his mercy. However, God didn't create just a handful of people, but billions and billions of them, and he wants all of them to know him. Besides, since God allows each of us to abuse our free will by doing evil, he also gives us the chance to experience repentance, forgiveness and mercy firsthand, after which we much more fully appreciate his love and who he is. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]God, as the creator of all things, must have created evil.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]See [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Did God create evil?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Since God is omniscient and omnipotent, he's responsible for the evil acts of his creation: he knew they would occur, but failed to prevent them.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]If God is responsible for the evil we choose to do, then we in turn are responsible for the evil our adult children choose to do. We know in advance that everyone does some amount of evil - at the very least, lying, insulting people or hurting their feelings, etc. - and that includes our children. We could choose to not bring this additional evil into the world by, say, getting ourselves sterilized. Thus we're in the same boat as God: we know evil will occur by our bringing children into the world, and we are able to prevent this, but we don't. Yet we don't hold the parents of adults responsible for what their children choose to do. (See also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gregory Koukl's[/FONT][FONT=&quot] statement of this argument.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Harmonization of Jesus' birth and infancy<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Matthew's account: [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 1:18-2:23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
Luke's account: [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 1:26-56[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]2:1-40[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
A possible harmonization of events: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Joseph and Mary were an engaged couple living in the town of Nazareth in Galilee ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 1:26-27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). The angel Gabriel visited Mary and told her she would become pregnant via the Holy Spirit and would give birth to Jesus ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 1:26-38[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). When she became pregnant, Joseph decided to divorce her (i.e. break off their betrothal) quietly, but after being told by an angel that she was still a virgin ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 1:18-21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), he went ahead and married her. However, they didn't consummate the marriage until after Jesus was born ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 1:24-25[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Caesar Augustus then decreed that a census be taken, for which everyone had to return to their town of origin ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 2:1-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Joseph was a descendant of David ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 1:6-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 2:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), whose hometown was Bethlehem ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Sam 16:1-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), so he and Mary went to Bethlehem to register ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 2:4-5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). (Possibly, Joseph could have grown up in Bethlehem or have had relatives there as well.) While they were in Bethlehem, Jesus was born, presumably in a barn or animal shelter ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 2:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 2:6-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]An angel proclaimed Jesus' birth to nearby shepherds, who went to visit him ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 2:8-20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Eight days after his birth, Jesus was circumcised ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 2:21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Mary and Joseph remained in Bethlehem for at least 40 days (7 days uncleanliness + 33 days purification - [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 12:1-4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) after his birth. As people returned home from the census, there would have been room for them to stay at a real inn or in someone's home. After the 40 days, they went to the temple in Jerusalem ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 2:22-38[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) in accordance with the Jewish Law ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). This would make sense as Bethlehem is fairly close to Jerusalem; Nazareth was a lot further away. Possibly, they returned to Bethlehem after visiting the temple. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While the family was in Bethlehem, the Magi followed a star to Jerusalem, spoke to Herod about Jesus, and followed the star to the house where Jesus was ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 2:1-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Their visit could have been before or after the family's trip to Jerusalem. After they left (and presumably after the visit to the temple), Joseph was warned to move the family to Egypt to avoid Herod ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 2:13-15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Herod meanwhile ordered the death of all boys in Bethlehem age 2 and under ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 2:16-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). When Herod died, Joseph was told by an angel to return to Israel (i.e. the general region, which included both Judea and Galilee) but was later warned to avoid Judea ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 2:19-22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), so the family resettled in Nazareth ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 2:22-23[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 2:39[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
When did Mary and Joseph get married? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 1:24-25[/FONT][FONT=&quot] says that Joseph married Mary prior to Jesus' birth, yet Luke describes Mary as "pledged to be married" to Joseph when they traveled to Bethlehem ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 2:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), using the same word (mnesteuo) used to describe their status in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 1:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 1:27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Luke may have chosen to describe them as betrothed rather than married since they did not consummate the marriage until after Jesus was born (though they were ceremonially married). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Nativity Stories Harmonized<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Get a [/FONT][FONT=&quot]stripped-down copy[/FONT][FONT=&quot] of this page.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]

[Introduction] [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Clues for Understanding[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Events Prior to the Birth of Jesus[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Events at the Birth of Jesus[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]The Nazareth/Bethlehem Problem[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] [[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Concluding Remarks[/FONT][FONT=&quot]] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As the calendar turns towards Christmas, we inevitably immerse ourselves in that famous scene: The manger, the baby Jesus, Mary and Joseph, the shepherds, the magi - all in one neat package, with maybe an ox and a sheep or two standing by. It's one of our favorites, and also a source of great critical derision - and I'm not just talking here about the jugheads of the ACLU. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]To some extent, however, this is done rightly: A critical reading of the narratives tells us that the traditional Nativity is an anachronism...as we shall see shortly.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Can the birth narratives of Matthew and Luke be harmonized? Can they be supposed to be historical? In this essay we will attempt to answer these questions, providing links where others have already done the work.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]On the matter of the genealogies of Jesus, see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]here[/FONT][FONT=&quot].<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Clues for Understanding[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One of the biggest hurdles to accepting the birth narratives as real history has been not necessarily that they could not be harmonized - it seems fairly possible, with one glaring exception that we will note at the end - but that there seems to be no way that we could picture them coming about as differently as they have in the first place. To this end, critical scholars have at most (as with Raymond Brown) noted that there are various root similarities between the narratives that probably or perhaps go back to a historical core (like the virgin birth, for example) while supposing also that the rest of the narratives were invented by either Matt or Luke, or both, based on all manner of creative activity (using OT prophecy, for example).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Is there some way that it might be supposed that the major differences in the narratives came about as legitimate history? To the end of answering this, here are a few clues we might consider:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The events recounted by Matthew chapter 2 [in Bethlehem] occurred some 2 years after the time of events that took place in the entirety of Luke's narrative.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] This particular clue is determined from Matthew 2:16 - <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When Herod realized that he had been outwitted by the Magi, he was furious, and he gave orders to kill all the boys in Bethlehem and its vicinity who were two years old and under, in accordance with the time he had learned from the Magi.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is a standard idea in most attempts at harmonization, and we are suggesting nothing new at this point. It is in these next two suggestions that I am proposing what is, as far as I know, a novel idea for resolving the problem of the birth narratives. The first suggestion is not very controversial and is not novel at all:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Gospel of Matthew was authored in Antioch, in Syria.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] This idea is well-accepted among conservative and liberal scholars alike. But I feel that this idea has not been given enough attention in regards to the birth narratives.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A key question for resolution of our issue is to find a source for Matthew's story that would somehow have not been aware of the Lucan story and its elements. (The opposite matter of Luke being aware of Matthew is not as much of a problem, for reasons we will discuss.) Typically it is proposed that Luke had Mary as a main source, whereas Matthew had Joseph as a main source. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This, I think, hits close to an aspect of the truth, but is very much incomplete. Luke, I will argue, did indeed have relatives of Jesus (and/or John the Baptist) as sources. But Joseph, I daresay, was not exactly Matthew's source for his birth narrative. Matt's source would, on the one hand, know nothing about the events surrounding the birth of Jesus; would assume (for lack of knowledge) that Jesus and his family spent those 2 years or so in Bethlehem; would know what went on in Herod's court; would not, on the other hand, know a thing about John the Baptist or a Roman census...and would be very likely to be close at hand to the place where Matthew wrote his Gospel. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Who fits this bill? The most ideal candidates for this scenario are literally under our noses every Christmas when we set up a Nativity scene. I am suggesting nothing less than that Matthew's major sources for his birth narrative were none other than the magi themselves.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Or I should say, the descendants of the magi, perhaps within their own professional order. The magi who visited Jesus would probably have been long dead by the time of Matthew's Gospel (though one or more may have been available to the Antiochene church when Matthew first collected his data), but if we suppose (not too hazardously) that their order, or their families, were preserved, and did not stray far from their point of origin (which is quite often identified as Syria or Arabia - in or close to where Matthew authored his Gospel), then we have a plausible suggestion for understanding why there is a tension between the birth narratives of Matthew and Luke, and why (along with other reasons we will discuss) they have written the way they have written.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Pre-Birth Events[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Let us now study, in pieces, the two narratives arranged in chronological order as we suppose. We begin with what will amount to a non-controversial assertion of what assuredly came first, beginning with Luke's first chapter, verses 5-25:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the time of Herod king of Judea there was a priest named Zechariah, who belonged to the priestly division of Abijah; his wife Elizabeth was also a descendant of Aaron. Both of them were upright in the sight of God, observing all the Lord's commandments and regulations blamelessly. But they had no children, because Elizabeth was barren; and they were both well along in years. Once when Zechariah's division was on duty and he was serving as priest before God, he was chosen by lot, according to the custom of the priesthood, to go into the temple of the Lord and burn incense. And when the time for the burning of incense came, all the assembled worshipers were praying outside. Then an angel of the Lord appeared to him, standing at the right side of the altar of incense. When Zechariah saw him, he was startled and was gripped with fear. But the angel said to him: "Do not be afraid, Zechariah; your prayer has been heard. Your wife Elizabeth will bear you a son, and you are to give him the name John. He will be a joy and delight to you, and many will rejoice because of his birth, for he will be great in the sight of the Lord. He is never to take wine or other fermented drink, and he will be filled with the Holy Spirit even from birth. Many of the people of Israel will he bring back to the Lord their God. And he will go on before the Lord, in the spirit and power of Elijah, to turn the hearts of the fathers to their children and the disobedient to the wisdom of the righteous--to make ready a people prepared for the Lord." Zechariah asked the angel, "How can I be sure of this? I am an old man and my wife is well along in years." The angel answered, "I am Gabriel. I stand in the presence of God, and I have been sent to speak to you and to tell you this good news. And now you will be silent and not able to speak until the day this happens, because you did not believe my words, which will come true at their proper time." Meanwhile, the people were waiting for Zechariah and wondering why he stayed so long in the temple. When he came out, he could not speak to them. They realized he had seen a vision in the temple, for he kept making signs to them but remained unable to speak. When his time of service was completed, he returned home. After this his wife Elizabeth became pregnant and for five months remained in seclusion. "The Lord has done this for me," she said. "In these days he has shown his favor and taken away my disgrace among the people."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
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<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Thus far, we have little to discuss. The above could easily be supposed to have been obtained by Luke from family members of either Jesus or John, and we have no matter of conflict with Matthew at all. And of course, Matthew's sources would have no awareness of any of this data.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Our discussion begins, however, where Luke picks up in verses 26-56: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the sixth month, God sent the angel Gabriel to Nazareth, a town in Galilee, to a virgin pledged to be married to a man named Joseph, a descendant of David. The virgin's name was Mary. The angel went to her and said, "Greetings, you who are highly favored! The Lord is with you." Mary was greatly troubled at his words and wondered what kind of greeting this might be. But the angel said to her, "Do not be afraid, Mary, you have found favor with God. You will be with child and give birth to a son, and you are to give him the name Jesus. He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High. The Lord God will give him the throne of his father David, and he will reign over the house of Jacob forever; his kingdom will never end." "How will this be," Mary asked the angel, "since I am a virgin?" The angel answered, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God. Even Elizabeth your relative is going to have a child in her old age, and she who was said to be barren is in her sixth month. or nothing is impossible with God." "I am the Lord's servant," Mary answered. "May it be to me as you have said." Then the angel left her. **At that time Mary got ready and hurried to a town in the hill country of Judea, where she entered Zechariah's home and greeted Elizabeth. When Elizabeth heard Mary's greeting, the baby leaped in her womb, and Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Spirit. In a loud voice she exclaimed: "Blessed are you among women, and blessed is the child you will bear! But why am I so favored, that the mother of my Lord should come to me? As soon as the sound of your greeting reached my ears, the baby in my womb leaped for joy. Blessed is she who has believed that what the Lord has said to her will be accomplished!" And Mary said: "My soul glorifies the Lord and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior, for he has been mindful of the humble state of his servant. From now on all generations will call me blessed, for the Mighty One has done great things for me-- holy is his name. His mercy extends to those who fear him, from generation to generation. He has performed mighty deeds with his arm; he has scattered those who are proud in their inmost thoughts. He has brought down rulers from their thrones but has lifted up the humble. He has filled the hungry with good things but has sent the rich away empty. He has helped his servant Israel, remembering to be merciful to Abraham and his descendants forever, even as he said to our fathers." Mary stayed with Elizabeth for about three months and then returned home.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is here where we run into our first question: How does this fit in with Matthew's account? As it reads (Mt. 2:18-24) -<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This is how the birth of Jesus Christ came about: His mother Mary was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to be with child through the Holy Spirit. Because Joseph her husband was a righteous man and did not want to expose her to public disgrace, he had in mind to divorce her quietly. But after he had considered this, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, "Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. She will give birth to a son, and you are to give him the name Jesus, because he will save his people from their sins." All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet: "The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel" --which means, "God with us." When Joseph woke up, he did what the angel of the Lord had commanded him and took Mary home as his wife.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Harmonization here is relatively easy, and it is not hard to fit in the events of Matthew into Luke's narrative where I have placed the double stars (**) - and Matthew's reference to Mary having been "found to be with child through the Holy Spirit" might qualify as an allusion to her own visitation recounted in Luke. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But why the difference in the focus of the accounts? Here is our first practical attempt to implement the source-theory. To begin, we should note that it makes no material difference whether or not Luke had Matthew's gospel available as a source, since, as we suppose, Luke had the family of Jesus or John as a source, one might suppose that Luke ought to have access to such information as Matthew had anyway.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew's magi probably derived their story from talking to Joseph himself. Would they have been aware of Mary's angelic visitation? Possibly, in fact probably, Joseph would have shared it with them, but it is not too hard to imagine that they relegated it to a secondary position and excluded it from later retellings - reflecting the typical view of the testimony of women at the time and the cultural expectation that Joseph would be the one to receive communication (see Malina and Rohrbaugh, Social-Science Commentary on the Synoptic Gospels, 28). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]On the other hand there was probably no reason for the material about Elizabeth to come up, and no reason for Matthew's sources to be aware of it.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A reader offered this excellent note offering another reason why perhaps Luke didn't include much of Joseph's part of the story: The last we hear of Joseph is when the family gets back from Egypt and settles in Nazareth. Based on that, I've always figured that Joseph had passed on somewhere between that time and the wedding in Cana. Since Luke was writing some years after Jesus' resurrection and using the memories of Jesus' and John's families, well... Joseph just wasn't around to fill in his details any more. That and the fact that the character's order of importance was: Jesus, John the Baptist, Mary and finally Joseph. Like you're always saying, a scroll was only just so long. On the other hand, (per your next paragraph) what the Magi came away with was primarily Joseph's story. They and theirs probably wrote it down and that's where Matthew got it.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke, deriving his material from family sources, probably had some knowledge of Joseph's visitation, but it is commonly recognized that Luke has a special focus on women. Indeed, that he takes the time to record the personal poetic reminisces of these women tells us as much. (You don't suppose Joseph wrote a little poem for the occassion, do you?) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Therefore, even if he knew about it, it is likely that Luke would not record Joseph's angelic visit. On the other hand, the fact that Luke records no major objections by Joseph suggests that there was something in the background that convinced him that there was nothing illicit in the entire affair. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]For a study of the use of Isaiah 7:14, please see this [/FONT][FONT=&quot]essay[/FONT][FONT=&quot] by Glenn Miller.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Following the above, Luke records the birth of John the Baptist. We will not recount those verses here; it is enough to observe that this is obviously the sort of thing that Luke's family sources would give him, but that would be unlikely to be related, even if known, to the magi.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Census Issues[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]For a defense of the historicity of the census, see this [/FONT][FONT=&quot]item[/FONT][FONT=&quot] by Glenn Miller, and see also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]here[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. For a critique of the idea that Mary would be in no condition to travel, see this [/FONT][FONT=&quot]response[/FONT][FONT=&quot] to Robert Price. Otherwise, we pick up with those passages in Luke 2:1-20 --<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In those days Caesar Augustus issued a decree that a census should be taken of the entire Roman world. (This was the first census that took place while Quirinius was governor of Syria.) And everyone went to his own town to register. So Joseph also went up from the town of Nazareth in Galilee to Judea, to Bethlehem the town of David, because he belonged to the house and line of David. He went there to register with Mary, who was pledged to be married to him and was expecting a child. While they were there, the time came for the baby to be born, and she gave birth to her firstborn, a son. She wrapped him in cloths and placed him in a manger, because there was no room for them in the inn. And there were shepherds living out in the fields nearby, keeping watch over their flocks at night. An angel of the Lord appeared to them, and the glory of the Lord shone around them, and they were terrified. But the angel said to them, "Do not be afraid. I bring you good news of great joy that will be for all the people. Today in the town of David a Savior has been born to you; he is Christ the Lord. This will be a sign to you: You will find a baby wrapped in cloths and lying in a manger." Suddenly a great company of the heavenly host appeared with the angel, praising God and saying, "Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace to men on whom his favor rests." When the angels had left them and gone into heaven, the shepherds said to one another, "Let's go to Bethlehem and see this thing that has happened, which the Lord has told us about." So they hurried off and found Mary and Joseph, and the baby, who was lying in the manger. When they had seen him, they spread the word concerning what had been told them about this child, and all who heard it were amazed at what the shepherds said to them. But Mary treasured up all these things and pondered them in her heart. The shepherds returned, glorifying and praising God for all the things they had heard and seen, which were just as they had been told.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew, of course, knows of none of this; any overlap at all comes from this single verse, Matt. 1:25 --<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We see very little possibility that the magi would have been aware of what Luke has recorded. The census would have had no meaning for them, for they lived outside the bounds of the Roman Empire. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The recounting of the visit of the shepherds may have been related to them, but would not have been considered important, if brought up at all: Aside from the considerable pressure of the visit for the magi which would have made the exchange of trivia superfluous. They were, after all, foreigners from a place that was an enemy of Rome; and we can imagine easily that their visit looking for a "new king" at Herod's palace (the natural first place to look) would have not been looked upon happily either by Herod or by the Romans and caused them some distress. This is especially so once they realized that no one else was celebrating the birth of this new king. The disdain for shepherds typical of this period (think in modern terms of relying on the testimony of a ditch-digger or a garbage collector) would have made their story unappealing to the educated magi. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]And of course, the magi would have been out of the circle of local gossip started by the shepherds themselves, being around two years too late to get in on the news.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke continues with the accounting of events in the Temple (2:21-39) with Simeon and Anna. As with the story of John, this is personal data that would have been unlikely to have been related in the urgent circumstances surrounding the visit of the magi.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Nazareth Question[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One of the biggest harmonizing problems we have in these two accounts takes place right here. Luke records in 2:39 --<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When Joseph and Mary had done everything required by the Law of the Lord, they returned to Galilee to their own town of Nazareth.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke seems to know something that Matthew does not - that Nazareth was Joe and Mary's hometown. Why is this so? We will discuss that shortly. For now, let us pick up Matthew where Luke has left off:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]After Jesus was born in Bethlehem in Judea, during the time of King Herod, Magi from the east came to Jerusalem and asked, "Where is the one who has been born king of the Jews? We saw his star in the east and have come to worship him." When King Herod heard this he was disturbed, and all Jerusalem with him. When he had called together all the people's chief priests and teachers of the law, he asked them where the Christ was to be born. "In Bethlehem in Judea," they replied, "for this is what the prophet has written: "'But you, Bethlehem, in the land of Judah, are by no means least among the rulers of Judah; for out of you will come a ruler who will be the shepherd of my people Israel.'" Then Herod called the Magi secretly and found out from them the exact time the star had appeared. He sent them to Bethlehem and said, "Go and make a careful search for the child. As soon as you find him, report to me, so that I too may go and worship him." After they had heard the king, they went on their way, and the star they had seen in the east went ahead of them until it stopped over the place where the child was. When they saw the star, they were overjoyed. On coming to the house, they saw the child with his mother Mary, and they bowed down and worshiped him. Then they opened their treasures and presented him with gifts of gold and of incense and of myrrh. And having been warned in a dream not to go back to Herod, they returned to their country by another route. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The information offered up here - which pretty well puts paid to the traditional Nativity scene putting shepherds and magi together - we would argue is the most likely of all to have come from the magi. They would have preserved their own account of reading and following the stars; they would have been present in Herod's court and seen or heard of his conferences with the priests and teachers; they would have, of course, been there to offer the gifts.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A question to investigate at this point is: What of the historicity of this "star" episode? Ranke-Heinemann [Rank.PAC, 23-5] objects mightily about the supposed absurdity of a star "going ahead" or "resting" (as above, stopping over the place of) where the house was. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Clearly, though, ancient people had no problem with this concept: Although it never gets as specific as being over a single house, there are accounts of people following stars that "rest" over a city: Josephus records such of a star over Jerusalem [Brow.BirM, 170]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Perhaps it is worth asking what exactly is meant when it is said that a star did something like this. The word in verse 9 that is used is proago, defined as "to lead forward" or "go before." Two answers are possible: Either this was some sort of miraculous optical effect (perhaps visible only to the magi?) that was made to imitate an actually stationary celestial object; or else this is a miracle of prvidence in which the subjective "movement" of the object from the viewer on earth happened to lead them in the right direction.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What sort of celestial object was this, assuming that it was in some respect natural? [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Brown [Brow.BirM, 171] lists these options and the indications:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]A supernova.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] At the time Brown wrote, there was no evidence for this, but Keener [Keen.CGM, 103] reports that Chinese astronomers observed such an occurrence in 5-4 B.C. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]A comet.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Halley's Comet made an appearance in 12-11 B.C. and the astrologically-minded magi might have seen some significance in it heading towards Leo (the "lion of Judah"?). Comets were usually taken as a catastrophic sign (which would explain why Herod was upset and Jerusalem with him, though this would mean no assoication with the Halley's visit), and this would entail rather a long wait for the magi to visit, which is perhaps not a problem. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]A planetary conjunction.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] A special "triple conjunction" of ars, Jupiter and Saturn took place in May-June, September-October, and December of 7-6 B.C. Again, our astrological magi might see some significance in that it occurred in Pisces, which was associated with the last days with the Hebrews. This would perhaps fit well with the idea of the birth of Jesus taking place during one of the Jewish festivals (Pentecost? [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Rosh Hashannah? Perhaps, even Haunakkah?) corresponding with these months. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The magi of course would come two years or so later, and this would necessitate a "miraculous" explanation for their later guidance by the star. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But why does Luke not record this scenario? Would not the family of Jesus have been aware of these events? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In all likelihood, yes. But one of Luke's specific orientations makes it unlikely that he would record these events. It has been noted that Luke's is a "Roman-friendly" gospel - one of his aims is to convince Roman and Gentile readers that Christianity is no threat to the Roman order. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This being the case, the last thing that Luke needs is to record an incident in which the Christ of the Christians received gifts from magi who probably came from outside of the Roman Empire, and were associated with the lands of the Parthians - a chief nemesis of Rome. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]He also does not need an account of a Roman client-king being stirred up by these enemy foreigners; the crucifixion will be enough of a political hot potato to deal with. Much better to select the account he knew which shows the family participating in a Roman census and not causing the Romans any trouble at all. (They were probably not pleased to participate, but Luke's readers didn't need to know that.)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew continues:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When they had gone, an angel of the Lord appeared to Joseph in a dream. "Get up," he said, "take the child and his mother and escape to Egypt. Stay there until I tell you, for Herod is going to search for the child to kill him." So he got up, took the child and his mother during the night and left for Egypt, where he stayed until the death of Herod. And so was fulfilled what the Lord had said through the prophet: "Out of Egypt I called my son."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Were the magi Matthew's source for this data? Probably not, unless the magi kept up with the family later on. The fact that this and what follows is less detailed than what we have read before indicates, perhaps, a different and less detailed source than the magi would be.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So, first question - who is Matthew's source here? There's no easy way to tell, but I would suggest that it was Jesus himself who told his disciples of his childhood time in Egypt, as part of his own regular paradigm-practice of pointing out how he fulfilled, and was otherwise purposely fulfilling, OT prophecy. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Second question, though - why does Luke say nothing of this? This isn't too difficult, either: Luke also did not need to encourage any associations with Egypt - a land not held in much greater esteem by the Romans than Judaea, for it too was regarded as filled with superstition. It is no surprise that Luke chose instead to highlight an incident later in Jesus' childhood that stressed Jesus' wisdom within the paradigms of Judaism - which thereby avoided any associations of learning things like magic in Egypt. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It is Matthew's record of the trip to Egypt that became fodder for Celsus many years later, and continues to be fodder for some ritics even now.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matt goes on:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When Herod realized that he had been outwitted by the Magi, he was furious, and he gave orders to kill all the boys in Bethlehem and its vicinity who were two years old and under, in accordance with the time he had learned from the Magi. Then what was said through the prophet Jeremiah was fulfilled: "A voice is heard in Ramah, weeping and great mourning, Rachel weeping for her children and refusing to be comforted, because they are no more." [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We have previously discussed the historicity of this incident [/FONT][FONT=&quot]elsewhere[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. Matthew could easily have obtained this information from general knowledge. Luke of course could not include it, because it made no sense unless the trip to Egypt was revealed, and Luke as we have suggested had his own motives for not covering that.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We come now, however, to the thickest harmonizing-hornet's-nest in the entire collection. Matthew closes:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]After Herod died, an angel of the Lord appeared in a dream to Joseph in Egypt and said, "Get up, take the child and his mother and go to the land of Israel, for those who were trying to take the child's life are dead." So he got up, took the child and his mother and went to the land of Israel. But when he heard that Archelaus was reigning in Judea in place of his father Herod, he was afraid to go there. Having been warned in a dream, he withdrew to the district of Galilee, and he went and lived in a town called Nazareth. So was fulfilled what was said through the prophets: "He will be called a Nazarene."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]For the issue of the "Nazarene" and Egypt prophecies, as well as an item on the Slaughter of the Innocents, see this [/FONT][FONT=&quot]item[/FONT][FONT=&quot] by Glenn Miller.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Although not explicitly stated, the implication here is: This is the first time the family has ever been to Nazareth. Therefore, they did not live there before; therefore, Matthew and Luke disagree. But do they? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In fact, we see tension, but not outright contradiction, and this is easily explainable in terms of the evangelists' respective sources. Luke and the family sources would of course have all of the records straight. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But Matthew's magi? They would find the child in Bethlehem; they would inquire of the family, "Was he born here in Bethlehem?" - and they of course would answer yes. Enough said - and the fact that the family actually lived in Nazareth under normal circumstances would go by the wayside (or, if nothing else, avoided as a topic of conversation to keep from spilling the beans to a jealous Herod). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So Matthew had this before him: His source told him that Jesus was born in Bethlehem; but he knew Jesus and his family were from Nazareth. How did they happen to get to Nazareth, then? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]From here, the answer depends on where you stand. Inerrantists of course may maintain that Matthew was inspirationally informed of Joseph's dreams to stay away from Judea and get back home; it is also possible that this was another case where Jesus informed the disciples for the sake of the prophecy-fulfillment paradigm. Those more skeptical may say that Matt simply used a typical OT dream motif. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Perhaps both are true. The bottom line is that since Matt does not explicitly say that the family did not come from Nazareth, we do not have a case of contradiction at all - but a quite understandable tension that is easily resolved critically.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The last question we might ask is, what were Joseph and Mary doing in Bethlehem at all two years later? In the first edition of this essay I suggested briefly that the events recorded took place at the time of one of the Jewish pilgrimage feasts, and that the family and the magi were both in the right place at the right time. Let's now develop that thought further, for it helps resolve certain problems. Ranke-Heinemann [Rank.PAC, 12-13] throws out a few objections that we can address:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]Why didn't the couple stay with Elizabeth during the birth? [/FONT][FONT=&quot]The home of Elizabeth and Zechariah is said by Luke to be "a town in the hill country of Judea" (Luke 2:39). Obviously this wasn't Bethlehem, where the couple had to go for the census. We don't know where it was, or how far away it was from Bethlehem, so this objection has no effect. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Why did they find no space the first time (Luke), but a house the next time (Matthew)?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Simple answer: Perhaps Matthew's events weren't at a feast date, and both parties were providentailly in the right place at the right time; alternatively, perhaps this is an indication that the couple remembered their bad census experience and learned, by the time of the magi encounter, the universal lesson that is applied even today: "Make your holiday reservations early." As even Ranke-Heinemann admits, around the greatest feast days was the time when it was most difficult to get lodging. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]At this point we may also note that some cite here a Jewish tradition that Jerusalem never ran out of room during the Feasts. I'm sure that tradition was widely held among those who did find room, but I doubt if the sorts who made that kind of observation ever spoke to those who never were able to get a spot. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]To schedule a census around a feast would cause problems, because although a great number for an ancestral census like Luke records would end up in Jerusalem, many would end up going elsewhere and so miss the feast, and this would cause a riot.[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Ranke-Heinemann admits in another context that these census-takings were long, multi-stage affairs; why could this not have been a stage where people who would go to Jerusalem and environs would be counted? The folks who didn't get counted in that area would be called up during another, non-feast time: After all, there would not be as many of those. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Concluding Remarks[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Although critical history and the NT record itself proves that the traditional Nativity and the birth of Jesus itself being on Dec. 25 are anachronisms, the basic data behind them remains as solid as ever. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Addenudum: Is it a problem that we do not know Jesus' exact birth date or year?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] A reader has inquired lately whether lack of specific knowledge of Jesus' year of birth (and of course death) offers any sort of support for the idea of Christ-myth. Reference works typically offer a range of date for Jesus' birth between 6 and 4 BC. Is this lack of precision certainty a problem? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Not at all. As I noted to the reader, the ability of ancient persons to track precise dates, down to day and month and sometimes even years, was severely limited. A person born on a festival date, or on an eclipse, would be the only sorts who could have any objective marker for their birthdate or death among the peasantry.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But to make this more relevant, we may ask the question, What about other comparable figures whose historicity no one questions? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We do not know specific birth or death dates for a variety of persons -- Pilate, Tacitus, Livy, and Pliny the Younger, for example. We might not have known when Pliny the Elder died had he not perished in the eruption of Vesuvius. And here is what we have on just the birth years (not even months or days) of religious leaders comparable to Jesus, per the Oxford Dictionary of World Religions:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]Buddha:[/FONT][FONT=&quot] For Buddha we actually have two "approximate dates" depending on which of two chronologies we accept. One places Buddha between 566-486 BC, and the other places him over 100 years later (448-368 BC). The Dictionary acknowledges that there are "uncertainties" about the date of Buddha, which is just what could be said about the date of Jesus. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Lao Tzo:[/FONT][FONT=&quot] The dictionary does not even offer a date for this leader, whom it considers "perhaps legendary". <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Confucius:[/FONT][FONT=&quot] He is said to have been born "probably in 552 BCE" but adds "nothing certain is known of his childhood". Confucius seems to have been easier to track mainly because he held a number of governmental posts in his lifetime. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Zoroaster:[/FONT][FONT=&quot] As I noted in my essay [/FONT][FONT=&quot]here[/FONT][FONT=&quot], most of the sources I consulted prefer a date around 600 B.C. for his life, though one scholar has suggested a date as early as 1700 BC. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Muhammed:[/FONT][FONT=&quot] The Dictionary offers a date of 570-632 AD, but the Oxford History of Islam is more equivocal, saying that Muhammed was born "sometime around 570", and the lack of surety is in that "traditional accounts differ on the date." While some may suggest a parallel between this and the uncertainty over Jesus' birthdate because of the problems in the birth narratives, it is absolutely clear that this is not an unusual "problem" and that no historian takes it in favor of a "Muhammed myth". <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So it seems clear that lack of precision knowledge about dates of birth and death is not considered a pointer to ahistoricity, or even unusually problematic.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]-JPH <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Sources[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  1. [FONT=&quot]Brow.BirM - Brown, Raymond E. The Birth of the Messiah. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]New York: Image Books, 1977. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  2. [FONT=&quot]Keen.CGM -- Keener, Craig S. A Commentary on the Gospel of Matthew. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1999. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  3. [FONT=&quot]Rank.PAC - Ranke-Heinemann, Uta. Putting Away Childish Things. San Francisco: Harper, 1992. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]4. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Order of Jesus' Temptations<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]5. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 4:1-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]6. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Then Jesus was led by the Spirit into the desert to be tempted by the devil. After fasting forty days and forty nights, he was hungry. The tempter came to him and said, "If you are the Son of God, tell these stones to become bread." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]7. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Jesus answered, "It is written: 'Man does not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of God.'" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]8. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Then the devil took him to the holy city and had him stand on the highest point of the temple. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]9. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]"If you are the Son of God," he said, "throw yourself down. For it is written: "'He will command his angels concerning you, and they will lift you up in their hands, so that you will not strike your foot against a stone.'" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]10. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Jesus answered him, "It is also written: 'Do not put the Lord your God to the test.'" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]11. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Again, the devil took him to a very high mountain and showed him all the kingdoms of the world and their splendor. "All this I will give you," he said, "if you will bow down and worship me." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]12. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Jesus said to him, "Away from me, Satan! For it is written: 'Worship the Lord your God, and serve him only.'" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]13. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Then the devil left him, and angels came and attended him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]14. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 4:1-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]15. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Jesus, full of the Holy Spirit, returned from the Jordan and was led by the Spirit in the desert, where for forty days he was tempted by the devil. He ate nothing during those days, and at the end of them he was hungry. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]16. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]The devil said to him, "If you are the Son of God, tell this stone to become bread." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]17. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Jesus answered, "It is written: 'Man does not live on bread alone.'" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]18. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]The devil led him up to a high place and showed him in an instant all the kingdoms of the world. And he said to him, "I will give you all their authority and splendor, for it has been given to me, and I can give it to anyone I want to. So if you worship me, it will all be yours." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]19. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Jesus answered, "It is written: 'Worship the Lord your God and serve him only.'" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]20. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]The devil led him to Jerusalem and had him stand on the highest point of the temple. "If you are the Son of God," he said, "throw yourself down from here. For it is written: "'He will command his angels concerning you to guard you carefully; they will lift you up in their hands, so that you will not strike your foot against a stone.'" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]21. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Jesus answered, "It says: `Do not put the Lord your God to the test.'" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]22. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]When the devil had finished all this tempting, he left him until an opportune time. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]23. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]24. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]
In his Encylopedia of Bible Difficulties, Gleason Archer points out that Matthew uses time-ordering language like "then" (tote) and "again" (palin), whereas Luke simply uses "and," e.g. "Jesus was tempted in this way, and this, and this." To this I would add that Matthew's description of the "worship Satan" temptation makes it clear that it's the last one, for Jesus tells Satan to go away and Satan leaves. Therefore it's reasonable to believe that Matthew's order is the order in which they occurred (though no one claims to know for sure). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->[FONT=&quot]25. [/FONT]<!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Why then does Luke use a different order? Archer suggests it may have been for dramatic effect. Peter Davids argues in Hard Sayings of the Bible that Luke often emphasizes geographical, or directional, order and arranged the temptations accordingly, so that Jesus moves from the wilderness to the mountains of Jerusalem to Jerusalem itself. The main point, however, is that Luke's account doesn't have to be strictly chronological to be true, particularly as his language doesn't suggest that it is strictly chronological. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Contradictions in Jesus' early ministry<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Harmonization of Mk 1:9-18, Jn 1:35-43 and Jn 3:22-24[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]The calling of Andrew and Simon Peter[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 1:9-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 3:13-4:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 3:21-22, 4:1-14[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]At that time Jesus came from Nazareth in Galilee and was baptized by John in the Jordan. As Jesus was coming up out of the water, he saw heaven being torn open and the Spirit descending on him like a dove. And a voice came from heaven: "You are my Son, whom I love; with you I am well pleased." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]At once the Spirit sent him out into the desert, and he was in the desert forty days, being tempted by Satan. He was with the wild animals, and angels attended him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]After John was put in prison, Jesus went into Galilee, proclaiming the good news of God. "The time has come," he said. "The kingdom of God is near. Repent and believe the good news!" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As Jesus walked beside the Sea of Galilee, he saw Simon and his brother Andrew casting a net into the lake, for they were fishermen. "Come, follow me," Jesus said, "and I will make you fishers of men." At once they left their nets and followed him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 5:1-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]One day as Jesus was standing by the Lake of Gennesaret, with the people crowding around him and listening to the word of God, he saw at the water's edge two boats, left there by the fishermen, who were washing their nets. He got into one of the boats, the one belonging to Simon, and asked him to put out a little from shore. Then he sat down and taught the people from the boat. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When he had finished speaking, he said to Simon, "Put out into deep water, and let down the nets for a catch." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Simon answered, "Master, we've worked hard all night and haven't caught anything. But because you say so, I will let down the nets." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When they had done so, they caught such a large number of fish that their nets began to break. So they signaled their partners in the other boat to come and help them, and they came and filled both boats so full that they began to sink. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When Simon Peter saw this, he fell at Jesus' knees and said, "Go away from me, Lord; I am a sinful man!" For he and all his companions were astonished at the catch of fish they had taken, and so were James and John, the sons of Zebedee, Simon's partners. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Then Jesus said to Simon, "Don't be afraid; from now on you will catch men." So they pulled their boats up on shore, left everything and followed him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 1:35-43[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The next day John was there again with two of his disciples. When he saw Jesus passing by, he said, "Look, the Lamb of God!" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When the two disciples heard him say this, they followed Jesus. Turning around, Jesus saw them following and asked, "What do you want?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]They said, "Rabbi" (which means Teacher), "where are you staying?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Come," he replied, "and you will see." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So they went and saw where he was staying, and spent that day with him. It was about the tenth hour. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Andrew, Simon Peter's brother, was one of the two who heard what John had said and who had followed Jesus. The first thing Andrew did was to find his brother Simon and tell him, "We have found the Messiah" (that is, the Christ). And he brought him to Jesus. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus looked at him and said, "You are Simon son of John. You will be called Cephas" (which, when translated, is Peter). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The next day Jesus decided to leave for Galilee. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 3:22-24[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]After this, Jesus and his disciples went out into the Judean countryside, where he spent some time with them, and baptized. Now John also was baptizing at Aenon near Salim, because there was plenty of water, and people were constantly coming to be baptized. [/FONT][FONT=&quot](This was before John was put in prison.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
Harmonization of Mark and John <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The two accounts in Mark and John can be reconciled by the following sequence of events: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus was baptized by John, then went into the desert for 40 days and was tempted. After the temptation, he returned to where John was baptizing ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 1:29-34[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). John pointed Jesus out to Andrew, who brought Peter to him. The next day, Jesus left for Galilee and performed his first miracle at a wedding ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 2:1-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus then traveled to Capernaum ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 2:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), Jerusalem ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 2:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), the Judean countryside ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 3:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and Samaria ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 4:4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) before returning to Galilee ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 4:43-45[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). John had not yet been imprisoned when Jesus was in Judea ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 3:22-24[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]4:1-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Some time later, John was imprisoned. When Jesus heard about it, he wasn't in Galilee and wasn't with Peter and Andrew. He then returned to Galilee and encountered Peter and Andrew again. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
The calling of Andrew and Simon Peter <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Andrew and Peter first encountered Jesus when Andrew was a disciple of John the Baptist ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 1:35-42[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Andrew spent a day with Jesus ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1:39[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and Peter at least met him. Jesus left for Galilee the next day. It seems likely that Peter and Andrew went with him, but John doesn't explicitly say they did; he also doesn't say anything about Jesus calling them as disciples at that point, though he does mention Jesus' calling of Philip ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]1:43[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It may be that Andrew and Peter went with Jesus to Galilee and witnessed his turning water into wine ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 2:1-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) as well as other miracles ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]2:23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). However, as described above, Jesus did a lot of travelling between the time he first met Andrew and Peter and John the Baptist's arrest. The brothers may have stayed with Jesus for a time, then returned to their career as fishermen. They may not have been officially called to be disciples at this point; though even if they were, it wouldn't be out of the question for Jesus to take them back later - after all, he forgave them after they deserted him ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 26:56[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and Peter denied him ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 26:74-75[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When Jesus was in Galilee, he walked to the Sea of Galilee and preached to a crowd near where Andrew and Peter were. After preaching, he miraculously enabled them to catch an immense number of fish ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 5:5-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and told them, "Come, follow me, and I will make you fishers of men" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 4:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). (Obviously, Matthew and Mark give an abbreviated version of the encounter.) At this point, Andrew and Peter had heard John the Baptist's testimony about Jesus, had heard Jesus teach and had personally witnessed a miracle - aside from any other experiences they may have had if they had followed Jesus after first meeting him. They therefore had good reason to leave their nets and become Jesus' disciples. (James and John also heard Jesus' teaching and witnessed the miracle ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 5:9-10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), plus they were partners with Andrew and Peter and would have heard their accounts of their experiences with Jesus, so it's understandable that they too would answer Jesus' call.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Was the centurion with Jesus?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 8:5-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]

When Jesus had entered Capernaum, a centurion came to him, asking for help.

"Lord," he said, "my servant lies at home paralyzed and in terrible suffering."

Jesus said to him, "I will go and heal him."

The centurion replied, "Lord, I do not deserve to have you come under my roof. But just say the word, and my servant will be healed. For I myself am a man under authority, with soldiers under me. I tell this one, 'Go,' and he goes; and that one, 'Come,' and he comes. I say to my servant, 'Do this,' and he does it."

When Jesus heard this, he was astonished and said to those following him, "I tell you the truth, I have not found anyone in Israel with such great faith. I say to you that many will come from the east and the west, and will take their places at the feast with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven. But the subjects of the kingdom will be thrown outside, into the darkness, where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth."

Then Jesus said to the centurion, "Go! It will be done just as you believed it would." And his servant was healed at that very hour.

[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 7:1-10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]

When Jesus had finished saying all this in the hearing of the people, he entered Capernaum. There a centurion's servant, whom his master valued highly, was sick and about to die. The centurion heard of Jesus and sent some elders of the Jews to him, asking him to come and heal his servant. When they came to Jesus, they pleaded earnestly with him, "This man deserves to have you do this, because he loves our nation and has built our synagogue." So Jesus went with them.

He was not far from the house when the centurion sent friends to say to him: "Lord, don't trouble yourself, for I do not deserve to have you come under my roof. That is why I did not even consider myself worthy to come to you. But say the word, and my servant will be healed. For I myself am a man under authority, with soldiers under me. I tell this one, 'Go,' and he goes; and that one, 'Come,' and he comes. I say to my servant, 'Do this,' and he does it."

When Jesus heard this, he was amazed at him, and turning to the crowd following him, he said, "I tell you, I have not found such great faith even in Israel." Then the men who had been sent returned to the house and found the servant well.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus and the Canaanite Woman<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 15:21-28[/FONT][FONT=&quot]

Leaving that place, Jesus withdrew to the region of Tyre and Sidon. A Canaanite woman from that vicinity came to him, crying out, "Lord, Son of David, have mercy on me! My daughter is suffering terribly from demon-possession." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus did not answer a word. So his disciples came to him and urged him, "Send her away, for she keeps crying out after us." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]He answered, "I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The woman came and knelt before him. "Lord, help me!" she said. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]He replied, "It is not right to take the children's bread and toss it to their dogs." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Yes, Lord," she said, "but even the dogs eat the crumbs that fall from their masters' table." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Then Jesus answered, "Woman, you have great faith! Your request is granted." And her daughter was healed from that very hour. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 7:24-30[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus left that place and went to the vicinity of Tyre. He entered a house and did not want anyone to know it; yet he could not keep his presence secret. In fact, as soon as she heard about him, a woman whose little daughter was possessed by an evil spirit came and fell at his feet. The woman was a Greek, born in Syrian Phoenicia. She begged Jesus to drive the demon out of her daughter. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"First let the children eat all they want," he told her, "for it is not right to take the children's bread and toss it to their dogs." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Yes, Lord," she replied, "but even the dogs under the table eat the children's crumbs." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Then he told her, "For such a reply, you may go; the demon has left your daughter." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]She went home and found her child lying on the bed, and the demon gone. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
Was the woman a Greek or a Canaanite? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The World Book Encyclopedia says in its article on Phoenicia: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The word Phoenicia may have developed from the word Canaan, meaning land of purple, the name first used for ancient Palestine and Syria. Canaan was a main source of red-purple dyed goods. The Greeks probably used their word phoinix, which meant red-purple, when referring to the people who traded these red-purple goods to them. Phoinike, or Phoenicia, eventually became the name of Canaan's coastal strip. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mark tells us the woman was born in Syrian Phoenicia, so this is in agreement with Matthew's statement that she is a Canaanite. Mark also tells us the woman is Greek, which may mean that one or both of her parents were Greek. This is no more a contradiction than it is for descendents of immigrants to America to describe themselves as Chinese-American, Mexican-American, etc. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Weren't Jesus' remarks mean? Why didn't he heal her daughter immediately? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus tested the woman with a test he knew she would pass. Jesus treated the people he healed as individuals, and dealt with each person differently based on their level of faith. Some people's requests were granted when they asked ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 8:2-3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]); some were healed without asking for it ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mk 5:1-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]25-29[/FONT][FONT=&quot]); some were asked if they believed Jesus could heal them before they were healed ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 9:27-30[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Jesus may have done this to teach the woman and the disciples: the woman learned that she could always trust in God's love and mercy, even when her requests were not immediately answered (something Jesus taught the disciples in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 18:1-8[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), and the disciples learned that God's salvation and mercy were extended to the Gentiles as well as the Jews. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Did Jesus claim to be God or not?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus clearly claimed to be the Messiah and Son of God: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]The Jews understood that this meant Jesus was equating himself with God: "he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 5:17-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Other places where Jesus equated himself with God: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]Jesus told the Jews, "I and the Father are one." [/FONT][FONT=&quot]([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 10:24-38[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Jesus told the disciples, "You call me 'Teacher' and 'Lord,' and rightly so, for that is what I am." [/FONT][FONT=&quot]([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 13:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Jesus forgave sins, which only God had the authority to do ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mk 2:5-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 5:20-24[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Jesus said that he had seen Abraham and that he is eternal: "'I tell you the truth,' Jesus answered, 'before Abraham was born, I am!'" [/FONT][FONT=&quot]([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 8:57-58[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Jesus said that he had seen God, which no one else could do ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 6:46[/FONT][FONT=&quot])<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Some people have used [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 22:41-46[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mk 12:35-37[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 20:41-44[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) to say that Jesus denied he was the Messiah: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them, "What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The son of David," they replied. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]He said to them, "How is it then that David, speaking by the Spirit, calls him 'Lord'? For he says, "'The Lord said to my Lord: "Sit at my right hand until I put your enemies under your feet."' If then David calls him 'Lord,' how can he be his son?" No one could say a word in reply, and from that day on no one dared to ask him any more questions. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Actually, this passage demonstrates that the Messiah has to be divine. The way to resolve the apparent contradiction between [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Psalm 110[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Isaiah 11[/FONT][FONT=&quot] is for the Messiah to be divinity in human form: biologically a descendent of David, but divine and thus David's Lord. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus' testimony about himself was/was not valid<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 5:31-32http://bible.gospelcom.net/bible?version=NIV&passage=John+5:31-32[/FONT][FONT=&quot]

If I testify about myself, my testimony is not valid. There is another who testifies in my favor, and I know that his testimony about me is valid

[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 8:13-18http://bible.gospelcom.net/bible?version=NIV&passage=John+8:13-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]

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Re: Todas las supuestas contradicciones de la biblia respondidas

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mso-level-text:; mso-level-tab-stop:252.0pt; mso-level-number-position:left; text-indent:-18.0pt; mso-ansi-font-size:10.0pt; font-family:Wingdings;} @list l5:level8 {mso-level-number-format:bullet; mso-level-text:; mso-level-tab-stop:288.0pt; mso-level-number-position:left; text-indent:-18.0pt; mso-ansi-font-size:10.0pt; font-family:Wingdings;} @list l5:level9 {mso-level-number-format:bullet; mso-level-text:; mso-level-tab-stop:324.0pt; mso-level-number-position:left; text-indent:-18.0pt; mso-ansi-font-size:10.0pt; font-family:Wingdings;} ol {margin-bottom:0cm;} ul {margin-bottom:0cm;} --> </style><!--[if gte mso 10]> <style> /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Tabla normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0cm 5.4pt 0cm 5.4pt; mso-para-margin:0cm; mso-para-margin-bottom:.0001pt; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:10.0pt; font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-ansi-language:#0400; mso-fareast-language:#0400; mso-bidi-language:#0400;} </style> <![endif]--> [FONT=&quot]The Pharisees challenged him, "Here you are, appearing as your own witness; your testimony is not valid."

Jesus answered, "Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid, for I know where I came from and where I am going. But you have no idea where I come from or where I am going. You judge by human standards; I pass judgment on no one. But if I do judge, my decisions are right, because I am not alone. I stand with the Father, who sent me. In your own Law it is written that the testimony of two men is valid. I am one who testifies for myself; my other witness is the Father, who sent me." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
Jesus and the Pharisees are referring to [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 19:15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: "One witness is not enough to convict a man accused of any crime or offense he may have committed. A matter must be established by the testimony of two or three witnesses."

In the first passage, Jesus is giving the Pharisees reasons for believing that he is the Messiah. He acknowledges that his testimony alone is not valid according to the Law, but adds that there is a second witness for him (God), which makes it valid under the Law. In the second passage, the Pharisees are directly attacking Jesus by saying his testimony is invalid. Jesus responds by saying his testimony is valid, period, because 1) it's true, 2) he came from God and is returning to God (which means that what he says of himself is from God and therefore true, and also that he is doing God's will and has God's approval), and 3) he is God. He goes on to point out again that there are two witnesses for him, which means his testimony is still valid under the Law.

In other words, there are two senses of "valid testimony": valid in the sense of satisfying Deut. 19:15, and valid in the sense of being true. What Jesus is saying is that his testimony of himself, by itself, is not valid in the first sense but is valid in the second sense; but that God the Father also testifies for him, which makes his testimony valid in both senses.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Was Jesus a pacifist?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 5:39[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 6:29[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But I tell you, Do not resist an evil person. If someone strikes you on the right cheek, turn to him the other also. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 10:34[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Do not suppose that I have come to bring peace to the earth. I did not come to bring peace, but a sword. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Luke 22:36[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]He said to them, "But now if you have a purse, take it, and also a bag; and if you don't have a sword, sell your cloak and buy one." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 26:52[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Put your sword back in its place," Jesus said to him, "for all who draw the sword will die by the sword." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John 18:22-23[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When Jesus said this, one of the officials nearby struck him in the face. "Is this the way you answer the high priest?" he demanded. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"If I said something wrong," Jesus replied, "testify as to what is wrong. But if I spoke the truth, why did you strike me?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Did Jesus teach pacifism?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]My understanding of Jesus' teaching is this: Jesus advocated love and patience as opposed to hatred and revenge, but not a total pacifism that forbids even self-defense. In Luke 22:36, Jesus seemed to be advising the disciples to use self-defense when necessary, but nothing more. He didn't advocate violence as a way of doing things, for he said that two swords are enough for the eleven disciples[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and in Matthew 26:52 rebuked Peter for attempting to start a violent revolt. Self-defense isn't contradictory to Matthew 5:39, for that passage refers to a slap or insult, not a hard punch that would constitute an attack. Since most people are right-handed, striking someone on their right cheek would typically be done by slapping them with the back of one's hand. Seen in the context of [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 5:38-42[/FONT][FONT=&quot], Jesus' point is that we shouldn't take revenge, not that we cannot defend ourselves. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In Matthew 10:34, Jesus was referring to the fact that his coming forces people to choose sides: either they will choose to do what's right and follow Christ, or they will choose to avoid persecution and reject him. The result is that even families will be divided, as those who reject Christ turn on those who accept him.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Since Jesus would rather have everyone repent and turn to him,[/FONT][FONT=&quot]3[/FONT][FONT=&quot] he was not advocating this conflict, nor was he happy about it; rather it came about as a result of people choosing to reject him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Did Jesus practice what he taught?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Did Jesus violate his own teaching by talking back after he was struck instead of literally offering his other cheek? Again, Jesus' original teaching in Matthew 5 was against revenge, and he was not trying to get back at those who had arrested him in any way. He was not even insulting those who had arrested him. All he did was raise a valid question: why had he been struck, if he were telling the truth? There is a difference between submission and prostration. While Jesus submitted himself to the authorities and did not fight his arrest and crucifixion, he was not obliged to not challenge the authorities when they did something wrong, such as striking him for no good reason. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus did/did not abolish the Law<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 5:17-20[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven. For I tell you that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the Pharisees and the teachers of the law, you will certainly not enter the kingdom of heaven." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Ephesians 2:13-15[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But now in Christ Jesus you who once were far away have been brought near through the blood of Christ. For he himself is our peace, who has made the two one and has destroyed the barrier, the dividing wall of hostility, by abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hebrews 7:18-19[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The former regulation is set aside because it was weak and useless (for the law made nothing perfect), and a better hope is introduced, by which we draw near to God. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Some points on interpreting Mt 5:17-20 from Hard Sayings of the Bible (article by F. F. Bruce): <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]Jesus taught that "the proper way to keep any commandment was to fulfill the purpose for which it was given." For instance, Jesus taught that the Sabbath was instituted for the sake of people ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mk 2:27[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), and therefore picking food to eat or healing on the Sabbath was perfectly allowable. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mk 2:23-3:5[/FONT][FONT=&quot]).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Jesus' teachings on the Law also focused on inward obedience, or obedience of the heart, rather than outward, legalistic obedience ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 5:21-28[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Furthermore, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 15:17-20[/FONT][FONT=&quot] contains the same teaching that in Mark is explicitly interpreted as saying that all foods are clean ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mk 7:14-23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]"The law is fulfilled ethically rather than ceremonially," which Jesus emphasizes by quoting [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Hosea 6:6[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: "I desire mercy, not sacrifice" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 9:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]12:7[/FONT][FONT=&quot]).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus' fulfillment of the Law applies particularly to the sacrificial system. The requirement of sacrifice in order for sins to be forgiven is still in effect, but the requirement has been fulfilled by Jesus' death. Since the sacrifices described in the Law no longer have to be carried out, people might think that the Law itself has been abolished (e.g. sacrifice was once required for forgiveness, but is no longer a requirement), but Jesus explains that he is meeting the requirement, not removing it. Or rather, the need for us today to meet the sacrificial and ceremonial obligations of the Law is abolished, but not the need for those obligations to have been fulfilled in Jesus. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Ephesians 2:13-15 is part of a discussion of the unity of Jews and Gentiles in Christ ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Eph 2:11-22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), hence verse 14 is emphasizing the fact that the laws which separated Gentiles from the Israelites (e.g circumcision) are no longer in effect. The need for post-resurrection followers of God to follow the ceremonial laws - which formed the barrier between Jews and Gentiles - was abolished; the law itself was not abolished, but fulfilled. It is also worth noting that the Greek word translated as "abolish" in v. 14 is different from the word for "abolish" used in Mt 5:17; the former is translated elsewhere as "fade away" and "pass away," while the latter is only translated as "destroy," "abolish," and "thrown down." (This bit of knowledge is from the NIV Exhaustive Concordance.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Hebrews 7:18-19 refers to the regulations of the Levitical priesthood, as part of a discussion of the priesthood of Jesus ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Heb 6:19-8:2[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). While the regulations served a purpose, ordinary Levite priests could not atone for sin once for all as Jesus did, and in that sense the regulations were "weak and useless." The requirements of atoning for sin through sacrifice that the Levite priests attempted to meet were not abolished, but fulfilled through Jesus. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]3. The Spirit of the Law and Reconciliation (Matthew 5:17-26) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]by Dr. Ralph F. Wilson<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Free Email Bible Study [/FONT][FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shapetype id="_x0000_t75" coordsize="21600,21600" o:spt="75" o:preferrelative="t" path="m@4@5l@4@11@9@11@9@5xe" filled="f" stroked="f"> <v:stroke joinstyle="miter"/> <v:formulas> <v:f eqn="if lineDrawn pixelLineWidth 0"/> <v:f eqn="sum @0 1 0"/> <v:f eqn="sum 0 0 @1"/> <v:f eqn="prod @2 1 2"/> <v:f eqn="prod @3 21600 pixelWidth"/> <v:f eqn="prod @3 21600 pixelHeight"/> <v:f eqn="sum @0 0 1"/> <v:f eqn="prod @6 1 2"/> <v:f eqn="prod @7 21600 pixelWidth"/> <v:f eqn="sum @8 21600 0"/> <v:f eqn="prod @7 21600 pixelHeight"/> <v:f eqn="sum @10 21600 0"/> </v:formulas> <v:path o:extrusionok="f" gradientshapeok="t" o:connecttype="rect"/> <o:lock v:ext="edit" aspectratio="t"/> </v:shapetype><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_379" o:spid="_x0000_i1028" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="Free online Bible study" href="http://www.jesuswalk.com/colossians" style='width:24pt;height:15pt;visibility:visible' o:button="t"> <v:fill o:detectmouseclick="t"/> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\25\clip_image001.gif" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]--><!--[endif]-->[/FONT][FONT=&quot]on Colossians after Easter[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]​
<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="width: 157.5pt;" align="right" border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="210"> <tbody><tr style="height: 253.5pt;"> <td style="padding: 5.25pt; height: 253.5pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_380" o:spid="_x0000_i1029" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="James J. Tissot, Jesus Teaching in the Synagogue (1886-1896), watercolor" style='width:150pt;height:215.25pt;visibility:visible'> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\25\clip_image002.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]-->
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<!--[endif]-->[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
James J. Tissot, "Jesus Teaching in the Synagogue" (1886-1896), watercolor. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> </tbody></table> <sup>[FONT=&quot]17 [/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot]"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. <sup>18 </sup>I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished.
<sup>19 </sup>Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven. <sup>20 </sup>For I tell you that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the Pharisees and the teachers of the law, you will certainly not enter the kingdom of heaven." (5:17-20)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How does the New Testament relate to the Old? How do Spirit-filled Christians relate to the Old Testament saints? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Old versus New, Law versus Grace[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Many Christians are quick to throw out the Old Testament. "The God of the Old Testament," they say, "is an angry, vengeful God. So different from Jesus." Most Christians today are unfamiliar with the Old Testament. If anything, they bring only a New Testament to church, and act like the Old Testament no longer has any authority.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Others define it in terms of Law versus Grace, following St. Paul's lead. "I am not under the Old Testament law," they say. "I'm now under the grace of God." True, but just what does that mean? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What did Jesus intend to accomplish? Did Jesus come to do away with the Old Testament?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This very question is at the heart of Jesus' controversy with the Pharisees.
(See [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Excursus 2, "Introduction to the Religion of the Pharisees,"[/FONT][FONT=&quot] above). Jesus doesn't seem concerned to follow the meticulous legal observance of the Pharisees. He heals on the Sabbath. His disciples nibble at grain plucked on the Sabbath. They don't even wash their hands in the prescribed manner! What kind of religion is Jesus propagating? Doesn't he care about the Law?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Not to Abolish but to Fulfill (5:17)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Jesus states his position very clearly: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them." (5:17)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What did he mean? First we need to define some of the phrases he uses.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"The Law" refers especially the Torah or Pentateuch, the first five books of the Bible. "The Prophets" include both the writings of the Prophets (what we call the major and minor prophets) as well as Samuel, Kings, and Chronicles (what we call the historical books). Jesus' phrase "The Law and the Prophets" refers to the whole of the Old Testament Scripture.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]He contrasts two words: "abolish" and "fulfill."<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The word translated "abolish" (NIV) or "destroy" (KJV) is Greek katalu[/FONT]ō[FONT=&quot], which means, "destroy, demolish, dismantle," here, ""to end the effect of something" so that it is no longer in force, "do away with, abolish, annul, make invalid, repeal."<sup>1</sup> This is a strong word, used, for example, of the destruction of the temple in Matthew 24:2; 26:61; 27:40. So with it Jesus emphatically denies coming to destroy the law. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Rather he has a very positive view of the law. He speaks in verse 17 like he is on a mission: "I have come ...." He has a very deliberate task before him, to fulfill the law and the prophets. The word translated "fulfill" is Greek pl[/FONT]ē[FONT=&quot]ro[/FONT]ō[FONT=&quot], which has the basic meaning of "to make full, fill (full)." It can also mean "bring something to completion, finish something already begun." Or "to bring to a designed end, fulfill" a prophecy, an obligation, a promise, a law, a request, a desire, a hope, a duty, a fate, a destiny, etc. Or "to bring to completion an activity in which one has been involved from its beginning, complete, finish."<sup>2</sup> The precise meaning of this common word must be determined by its context. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Certainly Jesus came to make the law itself full. The Pharisees, in their attempt to obey legalistic minutiae had prescribed and limited the application of the law. Jesus wants his followers to see what the law really implies -- which is far beyond the Pharisees' safe interpretations. For example, when the law said, "Thou shalt not kill," explains Jesus, it means more than the act of murder, but the anger and lack of respect for a person that motivate the act (5:21-26). Jesus gives the same sort of reinterpretation to popular concepts of adultery (5:27-30), divorce (5:31-32), oath-taking (5:33-37), retaliation (5:38-42), and love for enemies (5:43-48). Helping people to understand the full depth and spirit of the law is certainly part of his mission. But, as we'll see in a moment, there was more to his mission of fulfilling the law.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jots and Tittles (5:18)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]First, we need to see how emphatically Jesus spoke these words. He wanted everyone to see how deeply he honored and believed the words of the Law and the Prophets. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]He begins with the phrase, "Verily I say unto you ...." It is used as a preface or solemn formula of affirmation to some of Jesus' most definitive statements, and means "truly," and is literally the word "amen." Next he said, <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled." (5:18, KJV)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The NIV translates it: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"... Until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished." (5:18)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Just what is a jot or a tittle?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The English word "jot" is Greek iota, a letter of the Greek alphabet that corresponds to our letter "i". Evidently it was also the equivalent of the Aramaic and Hebrew letter yod, which is written like our apostrophe ('), just a small stroke of the pen. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A "tittle" (rhythms with "little") is Greek keraia, and means "literally 'horn,' 'projection, hook' as part of a letter, a 'serif'."<sup>3</sup> You can see how a tiny part of a letter is important when you compare the lower case letter "l" with the number "1". The difference is in merely a "tittle."<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The emphasis in these two words is on tiny, small, minute. The NIV captures the sense well: "I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished." In other words, Jesus didn't just come to round out the big themes of the Bible, but to fulfill or accomplish even the tiny prophecies and verses. The sentence is an emphatic one. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Practicing and Teaching (5:19)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]But it is followed by an even stronger sentence:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven." (5:19)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This should set us on our heels. If we think that we can ignore the teachings of the Old Testament, we'd better think again. Jesus holds us responsible to both practice and teach to our children the commandments of the Lord. We hear a lot of talk about grace, but Jesus speaks pretty clearly here and elsewhere of commandments and obedience. (See, for example, John 14:15; 15:10; 1 John 2:3; 3:22, 24; 5:3.) A disciple's life is one of learning and following his master.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We see this kind of comparison of least and greatest two other times in Matthew: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"I tell you the truth: Among those born of women there has not risen anyone greater than John the Baptist; yet he who is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he." (11:11)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Therefore, whoever humbles himself like this child is the greatest in the kingdom of heaven." (18:4)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It doesn't seem that salvation, or entrance into the kingdom, is the issue, but one's standing among the other citizens of the kingdom.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Surpassing the Pharisees' Righteousness (5:20)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Jesus also makes it clear that he isn't talking about a new legalism. The Pharisees were devotees of rigorous law-keeping of the minutiae of the law as it had been passed down to them in an oral tradition called "the tradition of the elders." Tithing herbs from the garden and dribbling water on the tips of one's fingers and allowing it to run down to the wrist were part of this scrupulous observance. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Among the common people, the Pharisees were considered in some ways as the holiest of people. If they weren't keeping the law adequately, how could anyone keep it? So Jesus' next statement must have shocked his hearers and angered the Pharisees:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"For I tell you that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the Pharisees and the teachers of the law, you will certainly not enter the kingdom of heaven." (5:20)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How could anyone's righteousness surpass that of the most righteous people in the land? In the remainder of the chapter, Jesus begins to explain how a right observance of the law is not a superficial fulfillment of the exterior, but a living out of the very spirit of the law. And he explains what he means by contrasting with the true spirit of the law what was the popular view of certain commands -- murder, adultery, divorce, oath-taking, retaliation, and hating enemies.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How Did Jesus Fulfill the Law?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]While our text doesn't spell out the ways that Jesus fulfilled the law, it might be helpful to review them briefly. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]One way to view the Law is as:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

    1. [FONT=&quot]The civil law that governed the nation Israel,<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
    2. [FONT=&quot]The religious law that detailed the sacrifices and temple ceremonies required for the forgiveness of sin, and<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
    3. [FONT=&quot]The moral law, such as that found in the Ten Commandments.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Civil Law[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Jesus fulfilled the civil law that described property rights, civil liability, and inheritance. These were designed to govern Israel as a theocracy, that is, a nation with God as their king. The theocracy of Israel finally passed away when the last king of Judah was deposed and the nation was taken into exile. Never again was Israel an independent nation. When the people returned, they did so as vassals of the Persians, later the Greeks, and still later the Romans. Only for brief periods did Israel exist as an independently governed nation. The Kingdom of God had seemingly come to an end.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But that Kingdom was fulfilled in Jesus himself. (See Excursus 1 above, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]"What Is the Kingdom of Heaven?"[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) When the Jewish leaders rejected King Jesus, the kingdom was removed from Israel. Jesus said, <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Therefore I tell you that the kingdom of God will be taken away from you and given to a people who will produce its fruit." (Matthew 21:43)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Gentiles now had an opportunity to be subjects of the King as the gospel went global.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Religious or Ceremonial Law[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Exodus and Leviticus describe in great detail the construction of a tabernacle (later, the temple) and the sacrifices required to atone for sin. "Without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins," we are reminded in Hebrews 9:22b. But the New Testament describes how Jesus, as "the Lamb of God that takes away the sin of the world" (John 1:29), poured out his blood for the forgiveness of sins (Matthew 26:28), once for all and for all time (Hebrews 10:10). The Letter to the Hebrews explains how Jesus is the fulfillment of the Law. So in himself, Jesus fulfilled the religious or ceremonial law.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Moral Law[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]The final kind of law is what we might call the moral law, those moral principles that endure from one age to another. We find them, for example, in the Ten Commandments. "Thou shalt not kill ... thou shalt not commit adultery ... thou shalt not steal ... thou shalt not bear false witness against your neighbor ...." In the Shema we read, <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one. Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your strength" (Deuteronomy 6:4-5). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Love your neighbor as yourself" (Leviticus 19:18). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] Jesus came to fulfill the Kingdom his Father had established, to fulfill the Law his Father had instituted, and to live out in his life the quality of life to which the Law aspired. "I didn't come to abolish the Law and the Prophets," Jesus said, "but to fulfill them."<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="margin-left: 1.45pt;" border="1" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="1"> <tbody><tr style=""> <td style="padding: 3.75pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]Q1. (Matthew 5:17-20) Can you see any tendencies in the church today to effectively "abolish" the Old Testament from our Christian faith? What does a "Christian" legalism look like in a church? What does it look like in a church where there are no moral standards and no obedience expected of Christians?
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]http://www.joyfulheart.com/forums/index.php?showtopic=739[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> </tbody></table> [FONT=&quot]The Spirit of Reconciliation (5:21-26)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="width: 204pt;" align="right" border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="272"> <tbody><tr style="height: 180pt;"> <td style="padding: 3.75pt; height: 180pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]<!--[if gte vml 1]><v:shape id="Imagen_x0020_381" o:spid="_x0000_i1030" type="#_x0000_t75" alt="James J. Tissot, Sermon on the Mount: Jesus Exhorting His Disciples (1886-1896), watercolor. " style='width:206.25pt;height:149.25pt;visibility:visible'> <v:imagedata src="file:///C:\DOCUME~1\ADMINI~1\CONFIG~1\Temp\msohtml1\25\clip_image003.jpg" o:title=""/> </v:shape><![endif]--><!--[if !vml]-->
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James J. Tissot, "Sermon on the Mount: Jesus Exhorting His Disciples" (1886-1896), watercolor. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> </tbody></table> <sup>[FONT=&quot]21 [/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot]"You have heard that it was said to the people long ago, 'Do not murder, and anyone who murders will be subject to judgment.' <sup>22 </sup>But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to his brother, 'Raca,' is answerable to the Sanhedrin. But anyone who says, 'You fool!' will be in danger of the fire of hell. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<sup>[FONT=&quot]23 [/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot]Therefore, if you are offering your gift at the altar and there remember that your brother has something against you, <sup>24 </sup>leave your gift there in front of the altar. First go and be reconciled to your brother; then come and offer your gift. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<sup>[FONT=&quot]25 [/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot]Settle matters quickly with your adversary who is taking you to court. Do it while you are still with him on the way, or he may hand you over to the judge, and the judge may hand you over to the officer, and you may be thrown into prison.
<sup>26 </sup>I tell you the truth, you will not get out until you have paid the last penny." (5:21-26)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus is perturbed that the Pharisees have so defined the Law in their own terms that they have missed the point. And so he begins to expound the Law as it pertains to six subjects: murder, adultery, divorce, oath-taking, retaliation, and love for one's enemy. Instead of a litany of commandments, Jesus looks to the spirit of the Law.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]You have heard that it was said ... but I tell you ...[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Each of these subjects begins with an interesting phrase, "You have heard that it was said ... but I tell you ..." (5:21-22, 27-28, 33-34, 38-39, 43-44). Each of these formulas contain the Greek word erreth[/FONT]ē[FONT=&quot] (Aorist Passive of leg[/FONT]ō[FONT=&quot]). This is not the word Jesus uses to quote the Old Testament. It becomes obvious by the time you come to the quotation in 5:43, that he is quoting the oral tradition, the "tradition of the elders," not the scripture directly. (5:43 reads, "You have heard that it was said, 'Love your neighbor' and hate your enemy' ..."). Yes, the Pharisees quoted the Pentateuch, but they went beyond it with their own interpretation, limiting and circumscribing its meaning. Jesus is explaining the actual spirit of the Law, as only God Himself can expound it.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Do Not Murder (5:21)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]"You have heard that it was said to the people long ago, 'Do not murder, and anyone who murders will be subject to judgment.'" (5:21)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Sixth Commandment is "Thou shalt not kill" (KJV, Exodus 20:13). Certainly those who murder will be subject to judgment. The "tradition of the elders" would agree.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Anger and Insult (5:22)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]But Jesus goes to the heart of the Law as he expounds the motivation behind murder -- anger.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to his brother, 'Raca,' is answerable to the Sanhedrin. But anyone who says, 'You fool!' will be in danger of the fire of hell." [/FONT][FONT=&quot](5:22)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Let's examine the Greek words used in verses 21-22:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]phoneu[/FONT]ō[FONT=&quot] - "murder, kill."<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<sup>[FONT=&quot]4[/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]orgiz[/FONT]ō[FONT=&quot] - "be angry."<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<sup>[FONT=&quot]5[/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]rhaka[/FONT][FONT=&quot] - "a term of abuse / put-down relating to lack of intelligence, numskull, fool (in effect verbal bullying)," derived from the Aramaic word meaning "empty one," found in the Talmud, "empty-head."<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<sup>[FONT=&quot]6[/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]m[/FONT]ō[FONT=&quot]ros[/FONT][FONT=&quot] - "foolish, stupid," from which we get our word "moron."<sup>7</sup><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]sunedrion [/FONT][FONT=&quot]- "a governing board, council," then "the high council in Jerusalem, Sanhedrin."<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<sup>[FONT=&quot]8[/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]geenna - [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Gehenna, "'Valley of the Sons of Hinnom,' a ravine south of Jerusalem. There, according to later Jewish popular belief, God's final judgment was to take place. In the gospels it is the place of punishment in the next life, 'hell.'"<sup>9</sup><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A.B. Bruce distinguishes between the word "Raca" and "fool" in this way: "Raca expresses contempt for a man's head -- you stupid! [The Greek word] m[/FONT]ō[FONT=&quot]re[/FONT][FONT=&quot] expresses contempt for his heart and character -- you scoundrel!"<sup>10</sup><o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This ought to scare us. Who hasn't been angry and insulted someone? Of course, we can get legalistic and say that we haven't used the exact word "Raca" or "fool." But that is the same kind of word gymnastics for which Jesus condemned the Pharisees. Jesus is saying that we are guilty before God for a heart that lashes out in anger and venom. Whether or not a person's life is terminated as a result is not the point.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When I was a boy, we would parrot this saying to someone who called us a name:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Sticks and stones may break my bones,
but words can never hurt me."<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Unfortunately, this children's chant is false. Words do hurt. Names injure us -- sometimes for life. How many of you or your friends have spent years struggling with what your father or mother said to you -- plagued by it, your self-confidence destroyed. Anger, and the vile venom it inspires, kill the spirit. And those who spew this acid on those about them are not free from judgment. The God who condemns murder also condemns angry insult, for they both come from the same root.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="" border="1" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="1"> <tbody><tr style=""> <td style="padding: 3.75pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]Q2. (Matthew 5:21-22) Why does Jesus treat calling someone a fool in the same classification as murder? Does this mean that murder is no worse than an angry insult in God's eyes? How would we act differently if we actually believed that angry attitudes towards others are viewed by God as murder?
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[FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Woe to You Hypocrites![/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Man looks on the exterior, the action, but God examines the heart. And in the heart is the root of murder. Legalism is an exterior thing, but the life of a follower of Jesus begins in the heart.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Woe to you, teachers of the law and Pharisees, you hypocrites! You clean the outside of the cup and dish, but inside they are full of greed and self-indulgence. Blind Pharisee! First clean the inside of the cup and dish, and then the outside also will be clean. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Woe to you, teachers of the law and Pharisees, you hypocrites! You are like whitewashed tombs, which look beautiful on the outside but on the inside are full of dead men's bones and everything unclean. In the same way, on the outside you appear to people as righteous but on the inside you are full of hypocrisy and wickedness." (Matthew 23:25-28)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]No, Jesus didn't come to abolish the law, but to bring out its fullness, to fulfill it.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Fire of Hell (22c)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]So what of the upstanding moral people who never kill, who drive the speed limit, who never break the law? What of them? Are they to be consigned to the fires of hell for hatred in their hearts? (See Excursus 3 below, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]"Did Jesus Believe in Hell?"[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) The answer we must come to is: Yes!<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Sometimes we labor under the ancient myth that we can earn heaven by our good deeds. No, Jesus would say, we must repent! Jesus taught,<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"But the things that come out of the mouth come from the heart, and these make a man 'unclean.' For out of the heart come evil thoughts, murder, adultery, sexual immorality, theft, false testimony, slander. These are what make a man 'unclean'; but eating with unwashed hands does not make him 'unclean'" (Matthew 15:18-20).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The argument in the passage just quoted was part of Jesus' running discussion with the Pharisees about externals versus internals. And with us, too, Jesus carries on this continuing discussion. Cleanse the heart, and then the exterior actions will follow.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Cleansing Process[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]So often when someone from a rough lifestyle becomes a Christian, we church people are quick to get him to conform to our standards of speech, dress, and morals. But you don't learn how to "walk the walk" from learning to "talk the talk." That's backwards. It is the Holy Spirit of God that cleanses us, and he works from the inside out, in an ever-broadening cycle -- conviction, repentance, and change; conviction, repentance, and change. Don't feel you have to do God's cleansing work for him when someone becomes a Christian. Love them. Support them. Pray for them. You expect to change a few diapers with a newborn. "God catches his fish before he cleans them."<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Can we live so circumspectly that we do not break the law of the pure heart? Can we live in such a way that we need no forgiveness? No. "The heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately corrupt; who can understand it?" (RSV, Jeremiah 17:9). Why did Jesus die on the cross? Because there was no other way to atone for our sins. "This is my blood of the new covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins," said Jesus (Matthew 26:28). The Law, the Apostle Paul observes, is not intended to bring salvation but "that through the commandment sin might become utterly sinful" (Romans 7:13).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So if we are frightened by Jesus' stern condemnation of anger and insult and we see the flickering flames of hell licking at us for our heart wickedness, then we've gotten the point that Jesus intended. "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is near," was Jesus' message (Matthew 4:17) and that of his cousin John the Baptist (Matthew 3:2). People flocked to them and were baptized, washing away their sins, because they became aware of their heart wickedness and need for cleansing.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"All the people, even the tax collectors, when they heard Jesus' words, acknowledged that God's way was right, because they had been baptized by John. But the Pharisees and experts in the law rejected God's purpose for themselves, because they had not been baptized by John" (Luke 7:29-30).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Which is your heart most like? A repentant tax collector or a self-justifying Pharisee?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]First, go be reconciled to your brother (5:23-24)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

<sup>[FONT=&quot]23 [/FONT]</sup>[FONT=&quot]"Therefore, if you are offering your gift at the altar and there remember that your brother has something against you, <sup>24 </sup>leave your gift there in front of the altar. First go and be reconciled to your brother; then come and offer your gift." (5:23-24)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So if anger, murder, and insult are condemned by the Law as expounded by Jesus, what is approved by the law? What is the positive command we are to fulfill? "Be reconciled to your brother" (5:24). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]How do we fulfill this law? If we are worshipping and remember that our brother has something against us, we are to leave our gift behind and first be reconciled to our brother. After we have done that, we can come back and resume our worship.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Does this sound a bit radical to your ears? It sounded radical to First Century ears, as well. Jesus sometimes rammed home his points through hyperbole, over-statement, so they would be unforgettable. Is this hyperbole? Perhaps.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But Jesus' clear point is that worship -- seeking to honor God by bringing an offering -- is a mockery if we don't first repent of our sins and carry out that repentance to its logical conclusion. That point isn't radical. It is taught throughout the Scripture in such passages as: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Does the Lord delight in burnt offerings and sacrifices
as much as in obeying the voice of the Lord?
To obey is better than sacrifice,
and to heed is better than the fat of rams" (1 Samuel 15:22).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Rend your heart and not your garments. Return to the Lord your God..." (Joel 2:13).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"You do not delight in sacrifice, or I would bring it;
you do not take pleasure in burnt offerings.
The sacrifices of God are a broken spirit;
a broken and contrite heart,
O God, you will not despise" (Psalm 51:16-17).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Is Reconciliation Always Possible?[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]We need to say, however, that Jesus' words, "First, go and be reconciled to your brother," imply that you have offended your brother and need to make amends. There may well be estrangement that we have little to do with and cannot change. The willingness to reconcile must be shared by the other party. Don't beat yourself up over this. But make sure that you have made right what you need to, and that your anger and insult and self-righteousness about it have been replaced by humility and a willingness to reconcile.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Sometimes we have hurt someone deeply and it is fully our fault, but when we go to humble ourselves and seek forgiveness we are snubbed. We may be snubbed, but we must still go and seek reconciliation. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Lest we think we are in the clear about this, be aware that elsewhere Jesus spoke about another aspect of reconciliation -- our willingness to forgive those who have offended us. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"And when you stand praying, if you hold anything against anyone, forgive him, so that your Father in heaven may forgive you your sins." (Mark 11:25)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Reconciliation may be possible if we will humble ourselves. And even if it is not possible, we must make a sincere attempt if we would seek to fulfill the spirit of the Law. After all, the Law is not really about murder and stealing. It is about love and reconciliation. That is the spirit of the Law.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="" border="1" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="1"> <tbody><tr style=""> <td style="padding: 3.75pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]Q3. (Matthew 5:23-24) What's wrong with worshipping while a brother has something against us (or us against a brother, Mark 11:25)? What is the appropriate action for us to take? How far should we go to bring about reconciliation with someone whom we have offended? Are there any situations that we shouldn't try to resolve? Or that we can't resolve?
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[FONT=&quot]Settle matters quickly with your accuser (5:25-26)[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Jesus concludes this teaching on reconciliation with an example from a mini-parable. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Settle matters quickly with your adversary who is taking you to court. Do it while you are still with him on the way, or he may hand you over to the judge, and the judge may hand you over to the officer, and you may be thrown into prison. I tell you the truth, you will not get out until you have paid the last penny" (5:25-26)<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The parable assumes that you owe your accuser a debt of some kind, and to collect on it he is taking you to small claims court. Jesus is saying: Don't wait until you get to court to work out some kind of deal; settle out of court. Because if the court has to decide the matter, you will be thrown into debtor's prison and won't get out until every last cent is paid.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]We don't have debtor's prisons today, but they were common in Western jurisprudence until recently. On the surface they seem stupid: If a person is in prison he can't work to repay his debt. But what happened when you are thrown into debtor's prison, was that your family and friends would come up with the money in order to get you out. Then you have to live the rest of your life with your family glowering at you, and never letting you forget the hardship you have caused them.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]So in this mini-parable, Jesus is saying, settle quickly, before you get to court. Settle quickly or you'll be stuck for every last cent that is due.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What is the point of the parable in this context? Jesus is teaching his hearers to reconcile quickly with those they have wronged and not to put it off. The implication is that if they wait for God to settle the matter at his bar of justice, that judgment will exacting and harsh punishment. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]You remember that this teaching on murder began with the concepts of accountability and justice: "... subject to judgment ... answerable to the Council ... in danger of the fire of hell." Jesus' mini-parable is only a thinly-veiled picture of us having to stand before God for every one of our sins unless we repent now. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="" border="1" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="1"> <tbody><tr style=""> <td style="padding: 3.75pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]Q4. (Matthew 5:25-26) What is the point of Jesus' parable of settling out of court? Who are we supposed to settle with, according to this parable? What does "settling" entail? What are the reasons that we should settle?
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[FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Golden Center[/FONT][FONT=&quot]<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]In a sense, the Law "Thou shalt not kill" is an outpost to regulate the limits of our behavior, but the Golden Center is something else. Is God seeking non-murderers? No. He is seeking those who do not let anger and hatred live in their hearts at all. He is seeking those who will show mercy, those who will forgive, those who will, in a word, love.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="width: 13.05pt; border: 1pt outset green;" align="right" border="1" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="1" width="17"> <tbody><tr style="height: 9.3pt;"> <td style="border: 1pt inset green; background: none repeat scroll 0% 0% rgb(255, 255, 204); padding: 3.75pt; height: 9.3pt;"> [FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
</td> </tr> </tbody></table> [FONT=&quot]Jesus came to fulfill the Law and the Prophets, not to abolish them. One day an expert in the Law asked Jesus this question:<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Teacher, which is the greatest commandment in the Law?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus replied: " 'Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind.' This is the first and greatest commandment. And the second is like it: 'Love your neighbor as yourself.' All the Law and the Prophets hang on these two commandments" (Matthew 22:36-40).<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]And so what seemed complex to the legalists becomes much simpler to grasp. "Love your neighbor as yourself." That is the aim of the whole law, straight from the mouth of God himself in the Person of Jesus Christ.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<table class="MsoNormalTable" style="" border="1" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="1"> <tbody><tr style=""> <td style="padding: 3.75pt;" valign="top"> [FONT=&quot]Q5. (Matthew 5:21-26) Verses 21-22 are about murder, anger, and insult. Verses 23-24 discuss some fault against one's brother. Verses 25-26 discuss settling a civil suit before going to court. What is the overarching theme of Jesus' teaching in our entire passage, verses 21-26?
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[FONT=&quot]Prayer<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]Father, when you examine our hearts and our attitudes, we are sinners. No, we aren't literal murderers, but you couldn't tell that from our hearts. Forgive us. Cleanse us. And infuse us with the kind of love you have that can love and redeem us in all our conflicted rebellion. Transform us by your Spirit, we pray, in Jesus' name. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Amen.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]References<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]


  1. [FONT=&quot]Katalu[/FONT]ō[FONT=&quot], BDAG 521-522, 3.a.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  2. [FONT=&quot]Pl[/FONT]ē[FONT=&quot]ro[/FONT]ō[FONT=&quot], BDAG 827-828.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  3. [FONT=&quot]Keraia[/FONT][FONT=&quot], BDAG 540.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  4. [FONT=&quot]Phoneu[/FONT]ō[FONT=&quot], BDAG 1063.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  5. [FONT=&quot]Orgiz[/FONT]ō[FONT=&quot], BDAG 721.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  6. [FONT=&quot]Rhaka[/FONT][FONT=&quot], BDAG 903.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  7. [FONT=&quot]M[/FONT]ō[FONT=&quot]ros[/FONT][FONT=&quot], BDAG 663.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  8. [FONT=&quot]Sunedrion[/FONT][FONT=&quot], BDAG 967.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  9. [FONT=&quot]Gehenna[/FONT][FONT=&quot], BDAG 190-191.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  10. [FONT=&quot]A.B. Bruce, Commentary on the Synoptic Gospels in The Expositor's Greek Testament (1897), p. 107.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Are there unclean foods?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Genesis 9:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Everything that lives and moves will be food for you. Just as I gave you the green plants, I now give you everything. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Romans 14:14[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Tim 4:1-4[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As one who is in the Lord Jesus, I am fully convinced that no food is unclean in itself. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Deuteronomy 14:3, 7-8, 10[/FONT][FONT=&quot] ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Dt 14:3-21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]; also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lev 11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Do not eat any detestable thing...you may not eat the camel, the rabbit or the coney. Although they chew the cud, they do not have a split hoof; they are ceremonially unclean for you. The pig is also unclean...Anything that does not have fins and scales you may not eat; for you it is unclean. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
As Paul states in Romans 14:14, foods are not unclean in and of themselves. While God has given rules concerning food in the past, they were laws intended to serve a particular purpose at a particular time, not moral absolutes. The laws given to the Israelites concerning food were in force during the time of the Old Covenant, not before and not after. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]People often view Paul's teaching on foods as contradictory to Jesus' teaching, particularly Jesus' statement that he was not coming to abolish the law (see [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jesus did/did not abolish the law[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Yet Jesus himself pointed out that the ceremonial aspects of the law were only ceremonial in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 15:10-20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus called the crowd to him and said, "Listen and understand. What goes into a man's mouth does not make him 'unclean,' but what comes out of his mouth, that is what makes him 'unclean.'" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Then the disciples came to him and asked, "Do you know that the Pharisees were offended when they heard this?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]He replied, "Every plant that my heavenly Father has not planted will be pulled up by the roots. Leave them; they are blind guides. If a blind man leads a blind man, both will fall into a pit." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Peter said, "Explain the parable to us." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Are you still so dull?" Jesus asked them. "Don't you see that whatever enters the mouth goes into the stomach and then out of the body? But the things that come out of the mouth come from the heart, and these make a man 'unclean.' For out of the heart come evil thoughts, murder, adultery, sexual immorality, theft, false testimony, slander. These are what make a man 'unclean'; but eating with unwashed hands does not make him 'unclean.'" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus did not teach his disciples to break the Law, for since he had not yet died and been resurrected, the Law was still in effect. However, he did tell his disciples that his death and resurrection was the beginning of a new covenant ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 22:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). This new covenant removed the distinctions between clean and unclean that were made in the Law, as a vision from God demonstrated to Peter in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 10:9-16[/FONT][FONT=&quot]: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]About noon the following day as they were on their journey and approaching the city, Peter went up on the roof to pray. He became hungry and wanted something to eat, and while the meal was being prepared, he fell into a trance. He saw heaven opened and something like a large sheet being let down to earth by its four corners. It contained all kinds of four-footed animals, as well as reptiles of the earth and birds of the air. Then a voice told him, "Get up, Peter. Kill and eat." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Surely not, Lord!" Peter replied. "I have never eaten anything impure or unclean." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The voice spoke to him a second time, "Do not call anything impure that God has made clean." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]This happened three times, and immediately the sheet was taken back to heaven. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The immediate purpose of this vision was to teach Peter that it was alright for him to associate with "unclean" Gentiles and share the Gospel with them ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 10:17-11:18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). As a result of the vision and the subsequent salvation of Gentiles, the church realized that the ceremonial laws given by Moses were no longer in effect ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Acts 15:5-11[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Thus, the idea that all foods are now clean did not originate with Paul, but with God himself.<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Did Jesus practice forgiveness?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 6:14-15[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]For if you forgive men when they sin against you, your heavenly Father will also forgive you. But if you do not forgive men their sins, your Father will not forgive your sins. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 23:33[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]You snakes! You brood of vipers! How will you escape being condemned to hell? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 26:24[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But woe to that man who betrays the Son of Man! It would be better for him if he had not been born. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Critics allege that while Jesus taught that we should forgive others, he never actually forgave anyone who hurt him, but instead cursed his enemies. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus forgave those who hurt him on numerous occasions. He explicitly forgave his crucifiers[/FONT][FONT=&quot]1[/FONT][FONT=&quot] and implicitly forgave Peter for disowning him.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]2[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Furthermore, if Jesus is in fact divine, he was forgiving those who had wronged him every time he forgave someone's sins, for sin is itself a wrong against God. He even stated that any sin against him (the Son of Man) would be forgiven.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]3[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus was not disobeying his own teaching when he rebuked the Pharisees and others who rejected him, but rather was following it: "If your brother sins, rebuke him, and if he repents, forgive him."[/FONT][FONT=&quot]4[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Had the Pharisees and others truly repented and asked for forgiveness, Jesus would have forgiven them gladly. Since they persisted in refusing to listen to him, he rebuked them. While this may seem like harsh treatment at first, it was ultimately an act of love. If they were rebuked, they might reconsider their actions and be saved from punishment; but if Jesus were tolerant of their position and said nothing, he would have been harming them by seeing that they continued to err. (Incidentally, rebuking as an act of love is a concept found in Proverbs,[/FONT][FONT=&quot]5[/FONT][FONT=&quot] so Jesus was following not only what he taught, but God's teaching to the Jews as well.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]What about Judas Iscariot? Was forgiveness not available to him? I believe that had Judas truly repented and asked Jesus for forgiveness rather than committing suicide, Jesus would have forgiven him. Judas was sorry, but his sorrow didn't move him to turn back to God.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]6[/FONT][FONT=&quot] Jesus knew in advance that Judas wouldn't repent and would consequently face judgment, just as he knew Judas would betray him in the first place. Thus Jesus' statement about Judas referred to a terrible fate resulting from his own choices, not an inevitable fate that he couldn't avoid even if he had truly repented. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Should good works be seen or not?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 5:16[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]1 Peter 2:12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"In the same way, let your light shine before men, that they may see your good deeds and praise your Father in heaven." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 6:1-4[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Be careful not to do your 'acts of righteousness' before men, to be seen by them. If you do, you will have no reward from your Father in heaven. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"So when you give to the needy, do not announce it with trumpets, as the hypocrites do in the synagogues and on the streets, to be honored by men. I tell you the truth, they have received their reward in full. But when you give to the needy, do not let your left hand know what your right hand is doing, so that your giving may be in secret. Then your Father, who sees what is done in secret, will reward you." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
Matthew 5:16 refers to Christians living in the secular world (as opposed to avoiding it). A Christian who lives honorably out of a genuine desire to please God, and who genuinely loves others, will be noticed by others and will serve as a testimony to God. Conversely, a Christian whose sole motivation in doing good is to be noticed and praised by people will sooner or later be recognized as a hypocrite, and will turn people away from God. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The resolution of these two teachings is best illustrated by example. Suppose Max volunteers at a homeless shelter once a week. If Max goes quietly each week and never mentions it to anyone, his service will still be noticed by the people he serves and those he serves with, and likely will eventually be noticed by others who know him - someone may see him entering or leaving the homeless shelter, or talk to someone else who works there. If Max's sole motive is to make people think he's righteous, and he loudly announces to everyone that he's helping the homeless, people will be turned off by his boasting, and his actual service may be of lesser quality (since he lacks true motivation to do it). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Or take the original example of giving to the poor. Suppose Doris regularly donates a significant portion of her salary to the needy. If Doris gives quietly - anonymously when possible, never mentioning it to anyone - those who know her may still realize what she's doing. Her immediate family will likely know of her spending habits. Her extended family and friends may observe that she lives frugally and that she's a kind and generous person and put two and two together. Or one of her friends, having fallen on rough times, may be the recipient of her generosity. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In short, Jesus' teaching is that we are to do good works, but quietly, without seeking recognition. God is able to use our works and make them known to others when it is beneficial to do so; we don't need to do any advertising ourselves. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Did Jesus keep his identity and message secret?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Why would Jesus try to [/FONT][FONT=&quot]keep his identity a secret[/FONT][FONT=&quot]?
Why did Jesus [/FONT][FONT=&quot]speak in parables[/FONT][FONT=&quot] if no one could understand them?
Was Jesus lying when he said he [/FONT][FONT=&quot]taught nothing in secret[/FONT][FONT=&quot]?
Why did Jesus later instruct the disciples to [/FONT][FONT=&quot]tell everyone about him[/FONT][FONT=&quot]?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Mark 1:34[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]3:11-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus healed many who had various diseases. He also drove out many demons, but he would not let the demons speak because they knew who he was. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 16:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mk 8:29-30[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 9:20-21[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Then he warned his disciples not to tell anyone that he was the Christ. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mark 1:40-44[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 8:1-4[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 5:12-15[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]A man with leprosy came to him and begged him on his knees, "If you are willing, you can make me clean." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Filled with compassion, Jesus reached out his hand and touched the man. "I am willing," he said. "Be clean!" Immediately the leprosy left him and he was cured. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus sent him away at once with a strong warning: "See that you don't tell this to anyone. But go, show yourself to the priest and offer the sacrifices that Moses commanded for your cleansing, as a testimony to them." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mark 4:10-12[/FONT][FONT=&quot] (also [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 13:10-15[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 8:10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When he was alone, the Twelve and the others around him asked him about the parables. He told them, "The secret of the kingdom of God has been given to you. But to those on the outside everything is said in parables so that, <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"'they may be ever seeing but never perceiving,
and ever hearing but never understanding;
otherwise they might turn and be forgiven!'" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 28:19-20[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the age. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John 18:20[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"I have spoken openly to the world," Jesus replied. "I always taught in synagogues or at the temple, where all the Jews come together. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]I said nothing in secret." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]Why would Jesus try to keep his identity a secret?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The following response is based partly on an article in Hard Sayings of the Bible (HSOTB) by Peter H. Davids. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]There are three separate cases to consider: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  1. [FONT=&quot]Jesus wouldn't let demons say who he was<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  2. [FONT=&quot]Jesus healed people but told them not to tell anyone<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  3. [FONT=&quot]Jesus told his disciples he was the Messiah, but told them to keep it secret<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]1. The demons presented two problems: not only were they telling people who Jesus was before he wanted them to know (see #3), they were doing it in a way that wasn't going to help him. Demons were hardly reputable sources of information, and Jesus would not want people to base their faith in him (or anything at all) on what demons had said. HSOTB points out that the demons' statements would only lend more credence to the "Jesus serves Satan" theory the Pharisees tried to promote in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 3:22[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]2. One problem with people's spreading the word about Jesus healing them was that it resulted in large crowds following him around ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mk 1:41-45[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]3:9-10[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). If everyone was crowding around him trying to touch him and clamoring to be healed, it would be harder for him to preach - and preaching, not healing, was his primary objective ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 4:42-43[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). It's also possible that Jesus wanted to be modest or at least not have people think he had worldly motives - HSOTB points out that he told the demon-possessed man in Gerasene to tell his family what God had done for him, not what Jesus had done for him ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mk 5:19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]3. HSOTB says that contemporary Jews had many misconceptions of who the Messiah was going to be. Some didn't believe there would be a Messiah; others thought there would be two Messiahs (a king descended from David and a Levite high priest); still others were waiting for a warrior-king to overthrow the Romans. If Jesus told everyone he was the Messiah, people would assume he was something he wasn't, and he'd have to get past their misconceptions before he could start teaching them anything. Instead, Jesus referred to himself as the Son of Man, which could be interpreted as "human being" (as used in Ezekiel) or as meaning he had power and authority from God (as in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Daniel 7:13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Jesus did tell some people he was the Messiah when they were ready/able to understand it, e.g. his disciples and the Samaritan woman ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 4:25-26[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]HSOTB also suggests that Jesus tried to keep things quiet to avoid rousing the authorities - they could have arrested him or otherwise hindered his preaching before he was done. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why did Jesus speak in parables if no one could understand them?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]People could understand them if they wanted to - if they were willing to seek an explanation and accept what was being said. When the disciples asked for an explanation, it was given (and not just to the twelve disciples, but the others who had stayed to listen). Thus Jesus was not intentionally preventing people from learning; he was the one giving them opportunities to learn, and if his words remained a mystery to his audience, it was the audience's choosing. In fact, in the verses following this passage in Mark, Jesus says, "For whatever is hidden is meant to be disclosed, and whatever is concealed is meant to be brought out into the open. If anyone has ears to hear, let him hear" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mk 4:22-23[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Was Jesus lying when he said he taught nothing in secret?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus taught openly, often speaking to large crowds. While he told the disciples not to tell anyone that he was the Messiah, he did tell others when it was appropriate ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 4:25-26[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), and the Jews understood that he was claiming to be God ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 5:17-18[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). And as explained in the previous answer, the meaning of the parables was available to those who were willing to listen and pursue explanations. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Why did Jesus later instruct the disciples to tell everyone about him?[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus kept (or tried to keep) his identity and miraculous powers from being renown while he was alive, but after his resurrection the reasons for secrecy listed [/FONT][FONT=&quot]above[/FONT][FONT=&quot] no longer applied. You could say that the good news about Christ was now complete - it wasn't just that the Messiah had come, but also that he had died for our sins and been resurrected - and so now was the time to start spreading it, not before. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus and the Fig Tree<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 21:18-22[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Early in the morning, as he was on his way back to the city, he was hungry. Seeing a fig tree by the road, he went up to it but found nothing on it except leaves. Then he said to it, "May you never bear fruit again!" Immediately the tree withered. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When the disciples saw this, they were amazed. "How did the fig tree wither so quickly?" they asked. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus replied, "I tell you the truth, if you have faith and do not doubt, not only can you do what was done to the fig tree, but also you can say to this mountain, 'Go, throw yourself into the sea,' and it will be done. If you believe, you will receive whatever you ask for in prayer." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Mark 11:12-14, 19-25[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The next day as they were leaving Bethany, Jesus was hungry. Seeing in the distance a fig tree in leaf, he went to find out if it had any fruit. When he reached it, he found nothing but leaves, because it was not the season for figs. Then he said to the tree, "May no one ever eat fruit from you again." And his disciples heard him say it. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When evening came, they went out of the city. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the morning, as they went along, they saw the fig tree withered from the roots. Peter remembered and said to Jesus, "Rabbi, look! The fig tree you cursed has withered!" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Have faith in God," Jesus answered. "I tell you the truth, if anyone says to this mountain, `Go, throw yourself into the sea,' and does not doubt in his heart but believes that what he says will happen, it will be done for him. Therefore I tell you, whatever you ask for in prayer, believe that you have received it, and it will be yours. And when you stand praying, if you hold anything against anyone, forgive him, so that your Father in heaven may forgive you your sins." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
Why did Jesus curse the fig tree, when figs weren't in season? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Some light is shed on this passage by an article in Hard Sayings of the Bible by F. F. Bruce: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Was it not unreasonable to curse the tree for being fruitless when, as Mark expressly says, "it was not the season for figs"? The problem is most satisfactorily cleared up in a discussion called "The Barren Fig Tree" published many years ago by W. M. Christie, a Church of Scotland minister in Palestine under the British mandatory regime. He pointed out first the time of year at which the incident is said to have occurred (if, as is probable, Jesus was crucified on April 6th, A.D. 30, the incident occurred during the first days of April). "Now," wrote Christie, "the facts connected with the fig tree are these. Toward the end of March the leaves begin to appear, and in about a week the foliage coating is complete. Coincident with [this], and sometimes even before, there appears quite a crop of small knobs, not the real figs, but a kind of early forerunner. They grown to the size of green almonds, in which condition they are eaten by peasants and others when hungry. When they come to their own indefinite maturity they drop off." These precursors of the true fig are called taqsh in Palestinian Arabic. Their appearance is a harbinger of the fully formed appearance of the true fig some six weeks later. So, as Mark says, the time for figs had not yet come. But if the leaves appear without any taqsh, that is a sign that there will be no figs. Since Jesus found "nothing but leaves" - leaves without any taqsh- he knew that "it was an absolutely hopeless, fruitless fig tree" and said as much. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]F. F. Bruce goes on to describe the cursing of the fig tree as a real-life parable that emphasized the spoken parable of the fig tree in [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 13:6-9[/FONT][FONT=&quot]. It is also likely that Jesus, knowing in advance that his disciples would be surprised by the quick effect his curse had, used the fig tree to provoke their reaction and thus make the lesson about faith more memorable. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
When did the fig tree wither? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The potential problem here is that Matthew says the fig tree withered immediately, while Mark says the withered tree wasn't seen by the disciples until the next day. Here is a possible sequence of events that reconciles the two accounts: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]On the morning after the Triumphal Entry, Jesus and the disciples return to Jerusalem. On the way, Jesus sees a fig tree some distance from the road. He goes to it to check for figs, while the disciples continue on the road. Jesus curses the fig tree and the disciples hear him. The fig tree withers, but the disciples have passed the tree and don't yet notice that it withered. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus and the disciples return to Bethany in the evening; likely it's too dark to see the tree. The next morning, they return to Jerusalem along the same road. As they near the fig tree, Peter points it out, and he and the disciples express amazement that it's already withered. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot](Gleason Archer presents the case that Matthew compressed the events of two days into one account in his Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties - his argument is [/FONT][FONT=&quot]summarized[/FONT][FONT=&quot] by Smith, Chowdry, Jepson and Schaeffer.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Anointing of Jesus<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 26:6-13[/FONT][FONT=&quot]

While Jesus was in Bethany in the home of a man known as Simon the Leper, a woman came to him with an alabaster jar of very expensive perfume, which she poured on his head as he was reclining at the table. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When the disciples saw this, they were indignant. "Why this waste?" they asked. "This perfume could have been sold at a high price and the money given to the poor." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Aware of this, Jesus said to them, "Why are you bothering this woman? She has done a beautiful thing to me. The poor you will always have with you, but you will not always have me. When she poured this perfume on my body, she did it to prepare me for burial. I tell you the truth, wherever this gospel is preached throughout the world, what she has done will also be told, in memory of her." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 14:3-9[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While he was in Bethany, reclining at the table in the home of a man known as Simon the Leper, a woman came with an alabaster jar of very expensive perfume, made of pure nard. She broke the jar and poured the perfume on his head. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Some of those present were saying indignantly to one another, "Why this waste of perfume? It could have been sold for more than a year's wages and the money given to the poor." And they rebuked her harshly. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Leave her alone," said Jesus. "Why are you bothering her? She has done a beautiful thing to me. The poor you will always have with you, and you can help them any time you want. But you will not always have me. She did what she could. She poured perfume on my body beforehand to prepare for my burial. I tell you the truth, wherever the gospel is preached throughout the world, what she has done will also be told, in memory of her." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 12:1-8[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Six days before the Passover, Jesus arrived at Bethany, where Lazarus lived, whom Jesus had raised from the dead. Here a dinner was given in Jesus' honor. Martha served, while Lazarus was among those reclining at the table with him. Then Mary took about a pint of pure nard, an expensive perfume; she poured it on Jesus' feet and wiped his feet with her hair. And the house was filled with the fragrance of the perfume. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]But one of his disciples, Judas Iscariot, who was later to betray him, objected, "Why wasn't this perfume sold and the money given to the poor? It was worth a year's wages." He did not say this because he cared about the poor but because he was a thief; as keeper of the money bag, he used to help himself to what was put into it. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Leave her alone," Jesus replied. "It was intended that she should save this perfume for the day of my burial. You will always have the poor among you, but you will not always have me." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 7:36-50[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
The accounts in Matthew, Mark and John can be reconciled as follows: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While Jesus was in Bethany, a dinner was given in his honor at the home of a man known as Simon the Leper. The disciples, Mary, Martha, and Lazarus were also present. Mary took an alabaster jar containing a pint of pure nard, a very costly perfume, and broke the jar open. She anointed Jesus' head and feet, and wiped his feet with her hair. The fragrance filled the house. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Judas Iscariot objected to Mary's action, saying, "Why wasn't this perfume sold and the money given to the poor? It was worth a year's wages." Judas only wanted the perfume to be sold so that he, as treasurer for the group, could steal some of the money. The other disciples didn't yet realize this, and thought Judas had a good point. "Yes, why this waste?" they chimed in. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"Leave her alone," said Jesus. "Why are you bothering her? She has done a beautiful thing to me. The poor you will always have with you, and you can help them any time you want. But you will not always have me. She did what she could. She poured perfume on my body beforehand to prepare for my burial. I tell you the truth, wherever the gospel is preached throughout the world, what she has done will also be told, in memory of her." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]It appears that the anointing in Luke is a separate incident: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]

  • [FONT=&quot]Were the owners of the house the same? They were both named Simon, but this was a common name of the time: two of the disciples were named Simon (Simon Peter, Simon the Zealot), as well as Judas Iscariot's father ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 6:71[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) and one of Jesus' brothers ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mk 6:3[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). One Simon is described as a Pharisee and the other as "Simon the Leper". Since "Pharisee" only means that one adhered to the beliefs of that sect, a leper could theoretically be a Pharisee, albeit a permanently unclean one. But if a man is a leper, and known as "Simon the Leper," it's unlikely he would be described simply as a Pharisee. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Were the women doing the anointing the same? The woman in Luke is described as a publicly known sinner ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]v. 39[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). This could refer to Mary, but seems unlikely since she and her family were popular Jews ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Jn 11:18-19[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Also, the woman in Luke came because she heard that Jesus was at the Pharisee's house ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]v. 37[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), but Mary was most likely invited, since her brother Lazarus was there and her sister Martha was serving (Jn 12:2-3). Simon the Leper would then have known about Jesus' friendship with Mary and her family, and wouldn't wonder at Jesus' allowing Mary to touch him, as the Pharisee did ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]v. 39[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
  • [FONT=&quot]Did the anointing take place at the same time? The anointing by Mary took place in the last week before Jesus' death (Jn 12:1, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mt 26:1-2[/FONT][FONT=&quot], [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mk 14:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]), and Jesus said the anointing was for his burial (Jn 12:7, Mk 14:8, Mt 26:12), but the anointing by the sinful woman occurred earlier, for Jesus traveled and preached after it occurred ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]Lk 8:1[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). Jesus used the anointing by the sinful woman to teach a lesson on forgiveness ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]v. 39-48[/FONT][FONT=&quot]) to people who apparently had not heard Jesus' teachings before, for they asked, "Who is this who even forgives sins?" ([/FONT][FONT=&quot]v. 49[/FONT][FONT=&quot]). In contrast, guests at a dinner given in Jesus' honor (Jn 12:2) a few days before he died would most likely be familiar with his forgiveness of sins. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->· <!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Were a donkey and colt brought to Jesus, or only a colt?<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->· <!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Matthew 21:2-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->· <!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]"Go to the village ahead of you, and at once you will find a donkey tied there, with her colt by her. Untie them and bring them to me. If anyone says anything to you, tell him that the Lord needs them, and he will send them right away." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->· <!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]This took place to fulfill what was spoken through the prophet: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->· <!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]"Say to the Daughter of Zion,
'See, your king comes to you,
gentle and riding on a donkey,
on a colt, the foal of a donkey.' [/FONT][FONT=&quot]" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->· <!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]The disciples went and did as Jesus had instructed them. They brought the donkey and the colt, placed their cloaks on them, and Jesus sat on them. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->· <!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 11:2-7[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->· <!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]"Go to the village ahead of you, and just as you enter it, you will find a colt tied there, which no one has ever ridden. Untie it and bring it here. If anyone asks you, 'Why are you doing this?' tell him, 'The Lord needs it and will send it back here shortly.'" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->· <!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]They went and found a colt outside in the street, tied at a doorway. As they untied it, some people standing there asked, "What are you doing, untying that colt?" They answered as Jesus had told them to, and the people let them go. When they brought the colt to Jesus and threw their cloaks over it, he sat on it. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->· <!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 19:30-35[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->· <!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]"Go to the village ahead of you, and as you enter it, you will find a colt tied there, which no one has ever ridden. Untie it and bring it here. If anyone asks you, 'Why are you untying it?' tell him, 'The Lord needs it.'" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->· <!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]Those who were sent ahead went and found it just as he had told them. As they were untying the colt, its owners asked them, "Why are you untying the colt?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->· <!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]They replied, "The Lord needs it." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
<!--[if !supportLists]-->· <!--[endif]-->[FONT=&quot]They brought it to Jesus, threw their cloaks on the colt and put Jesus on it. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The Last Supper<o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Matthew 26:20-29[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When evening came, Jesus was reclining at the table with the Twelve. And while they were eating, he said, "I tell you the truth, one of you will betray me." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]They were very sad and began to say to him one after the other, "Surely not I, Lord?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus replied, "The one who has dipped his hand into the bowl with me will betray me. The Son of Man will go just as it is written about him. But woe to that man who betrays the Son of Man! It would be better for him if he had not been born." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Then Judas, the one who would betray him, said, "Surely not I, Rabbi?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus answered, "Yes, it is you." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While they were eating, Jesus took bread, gave thanks and broke it, and gave it to his disciples, saying, "Take and eat; this is my body." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Then he took the cup, gave thanks and offered it to them, saying, "Drink from it, all of you. This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. I tell you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it anew with you in my Father's kingdom." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Mark 14:17-25[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When evening came, Jesus arrived with the Twelve. While they were reclining at the table eating, he said, "I tell you the truth, one of you will betray me - one who is eating with me." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]They were saddened, and one by one they said to him, "Surely not I?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"It is one of the Twelve," he replied, "one who dips bread into the bowl with me. The Son of Man will go just as it is written about him. But woe to that man who betrays the Son of Man! It would be better for him if he had not been born." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]While they were eating, Jesus took bread, gave thanks and broke it, and gave it to his disciples, saying, "Take it; this is my body." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Then he took the cup, gave thanks and offered it to them, and they all drank from it. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many," he said to them. "I tell you the truth, I will not drink again of the fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it anew in the kingdom of God." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Luke 22:14-23[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]When the hour came, Jesus and his apostles reclined at the table. And he said to them, "I have eagerly desired to eat this Passover with you before I suffer. For I tell you, I will not eat it again until it finds fulfillment in the kingdom of God." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]After taking the cup, he gave thanks and said, "Take this and divide it among you. For I tell you I will not drink again of the fruit of the vine until the kingdom of God comes." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]And he took bread, gave thanks and broke it, and gave it to them, saying, "This is my body given for you; do this in remembrance of me." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]In the same way, after the supper he took the cup, saying, "This cup is the new covenant in my blood, which is poured out for you. But the hand of him who is going to betray me is with mine on the table. The Son of Man will go as it has been decreed, but woe to that man who betrays him." They began to question among themselves which of them it might be who would do this. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]John 13:18-30[/FONT][FONT=&quot] <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"I am not referring to all of you; I know those I have chosen. But this is to fulfill the scripture: 'He who shares my bread has lifted up his heel against me.' <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"I am telling you now before it happens, so that when it does happen you will believe that I am He. I tell you the truth, whoever accepts anyone I send accepts me; and whoever accepts me accepts the one who sent me." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]After he had said this, Jesus was troubled in spirit and testified, "I tell you the truth, one of you is going to betray me." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]His disciples stared at one another, at a loss to know which of them he meant. One of them, the disciple whom Jesus loved, was reclining next to him. Simon Peter motioned to this disciple and said, "Ask him which one he means." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Leaning back against Jesus, he asked him, "Lord, who is it?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus answered, "It is the one to whom I will give this piece of bread when I have dipped it in the dish." Then, dipping the piece of bread, he gave it to Judas Iscariot, son of Simon. As soon as Judas took the bread, Satan entered into him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"What you are about to do, do quickly," Jesus told him, but no one at the meal understood why Jesus said this to him. Since Judas had charge of the money, some thought Jesus was telling him to buy what was needed for the Feast, or to give something to the poor. As soon as Judas had taken the bread, he went out. [/FONT][FONT=&quot]And it was night. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot] <hr align="center" width="100%" color="#aca899" noshade="noshade" size="2"> [/FONT]​
[FONT=&quot]
A possible harmonization: <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus first predicted Judas' betrayal by quoting [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Psalm 41:9[/FONT][FONT=&quot], "He who shares my bread has lifted up his heel against me." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]During supper, Jesus said, "I have eagerly desired to eat this Passover with you before I suffer. For I tell you, I will not eat it again until it finds fulfillment in the kingdom of God." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus took a cup, gave thanks and said, "Take this and divide it among you. For I tell you I will not drink again of the fruit of the vine until the kingdom of God comes." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus took bread, gave thanks and broke it, and gave it to the disciples, saying, "Take it and eat; this is my body given for you. Do this in remembrance of me." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]After supper, he took a second cup, gave thanks and offered it to the disciples, saying, "Drink from it, all of you. This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. I tell you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it anew with you in my Father's kingdom." (Note: Possibly, Jesus could have said "I will not drink again of the fruit of the vine" once, if the first cup referred to in Luke was really the same as the second. However, Passover celebrations today involve four cups of wine, so it seems more likely that Jesus was observing a similar ceremony with multiple cups of wine.) <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus then said (immediately after, or a little later), "The hand of him who is going to betray me is with mine on the table." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The disciples were sad, and each asked him, "Surely not I?" <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]"It is one of the Twelve," he replied, "one who dips bread into the bowl with me. The Son of Man will go just as it is written about him. But woe to that man who betrays the Son of Man! It would be better for him if he had not been born." <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]John, at Peter's urging, asked Jesus who would betray him. Jesus responded, "It is the one to whom I will give this piece of bread when I have dipped it in the dish." He dipped the bread and gave it to Judas. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Judas took it and asked, "Surely not I, Rabbi?" At this point, Satan entered him. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]Jesus answered, "Yes, it is you." Then Judas left. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
When did Jesus predict his betrayal: before or after instituting communion? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]As seen in John, Jesus predicted his betrayal more than once during the evening. But when did he make the prediction where he said, "The Son of Man will go just as it is written about him. But woe to that man who betrays the Son of Man"? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]The above harmonization is possible because Matthew and Mark each preface the prediction and the institution of communion with "While they were eating, ..." That is, while one incident is described before the other, there's no connecting "then" or other chronological ordering words to indicate which incident occurred first; both occurred while they were eating. Luke, on the other hand, has Jesus making the prediction in the same speech as the communion speech. While this doesn't necessarily mean that Jesus said the one immediately after the other (the recorded speech could be an abbreviated version), it does give more of a chronological ordering than Matthew or Mark. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
Which occurred first: the breaking of the bread, or the drinking of the wine? <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]All three Gospels which record the institution of communion have the bread ("This is my body...") followed by the wine ("This is the blood of the covenant..."). The only difference among them is that Luke mentions another cup before the bread. As noted in the harmonization, it's likely that there was more than one ceremonial drinking of the cup during the evening. <o:p></o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]<o:p> </o:p>[/FONT]